If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended? Mantain a constant altitude. Mantain a constant attitude. Mantain constant airspeed and altitude.
Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence? Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is Developing lift. Operating at high airspeeds. Using high power settings.
Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has just taken off? The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? Direct tailwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind.
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To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight path. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback? Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, and acknowledgement is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do no accept the clearance.
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What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000? Immediately climb to 9000. Report climbing to 9000. Report maintaining 9000.
Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes? Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
Wich reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10
Knots.
Vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots, and leaving and assigned holding fix or point.
TCAS I provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recomended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.
El número de las naciones unidas asignado por el comité de expertos en transporte de MP consta de:
2 dígitos. 3 dígitos. 4 dígitos.
¿Cuántas clases de MP existen? 9 15 6.
Un animal vivo infectado: Podrá llevarse abordo debidamente encerrado. Es prohibido transportarlo por vía aérea. Esta prohibido transportarlos por vía aérea salvo dispensa de los estados interesados.
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En las normas relacionadas con MP además de los idiomas exigidos por el estado de origen, debería utilizarse: Ruso Español. Inglés.
Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga
MP. A menos que se haya certificado que los bultos satisfacen las condiciones pertinentes previstas en las instrucciones técnicas Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas. Todas las anteriores.
Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte aéreo a través del servicio postal. La OACI. IFALPA. La unión postal universal.
Todo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias explosivas se denomina: Incompatible. Artículo explosivo. Liquido pirofórico.
Las sustancias tóxicas se pueden clasificar en: Sustancias venenosas. Sustancias explosivas Sustancias corrosivas.
Que mercancías no se estibaran junto a otras en una aeronave: MP incompatibles Mercancías capaces de reaccionar peligrosamente entre si. A y B son correctas.
Todo bulto de MP llevara las etiquetas de manipulación apropiadas: Siempre. Vuelos nacionales Vuelos internacionales.
El piloto al mando puede negarse a efectuar un transporte de MP si: No se le ha proporcionado por escrito la información adecuada. No se le ha solicitado la autorización oportuna. El avión lleva VIP. abordo.
Diga que frase es cierta: Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI. Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI. Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
¿La sigla NOTOC que significa? Notice to company. Notice to crew. Notice to Captain.
¿Si desea buscar una sustancia por su nombre y hallar sus propiedades, donde la buscaría? Manual de la aeronave. Páginas azules de manual de regulaciones de MP de IATA. En el manual de operaciones de vuelo.
Que significa la sigla DL: Dosis letal. Dosis dosificada. Dosis limite.
¿Quien asigna el grupo de embalaje? El expedidor. La IATA. El explotador.
En Las variaciones de los estados que significa la ultima letra que es una G: Gol. Gobierno. Ganancia de cada estado en cuanto MP se refiere.
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La letra Y en las instrucciones de embalaje significa: Que se puede transportar igual cantidad que en una instrucción que no tenga esa letra. La cantidad que se puede transportar es menor porque no es un embalaje aprobado para el transporte de MP. De acuerdo al estado se le pone la letra Y o la Z.
Un embalaje puede ser reutilizado siempre y cuando: Sean removidas todas las etiquetas. La sustancia a empacar no vaya a reaccionar con algún componente Anterior. A y B son correctas.
TCAS II provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify
ATC and Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
With no traffic identified by TCAS, you can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. must scan only for hot air balloons.
While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes? Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR
approach? Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
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What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach? A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is an VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the part initiating the approach.
How should a pilot describe braking action? 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fift, or normal. Nil, poor, fair or good.
When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
What is the hijack code? 7200 7500 7777.
What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
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Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600 and 7700 series.
How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
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Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to mantain altitude? Compensate for loss of vertical component of the lift. Increase the horizontal component of the lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.
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Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff? Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increase headwind component.
Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.
What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight? Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.
When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side? 5° to 10°. 10° to 12°. 18° to 20°.
An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately 6 miles. 2 miles. 1 mile.
Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver? Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located. Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the station.
To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. .
To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
What is the primary cause off all changes in the Earths weather? Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface. Movment of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone? Calm. High pressure area. COL.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thundrestorms.
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What phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of cloud is ai its maximum.
What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.
The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be 150°. 285°. 330°.
If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be 040°. 065°. 220°.
(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned Left to a heading of 270°. Right to a heading of 330°. Right to a heading of 360°.
Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets.
Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane? Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more. A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed. Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire.
ILS critical area sign indicates Where aircraft are prohibited. The edge of the ILS critical area. The exit boundary.
Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background.
Holding position signs have white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.
Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at The surface. 3,823 feet MSL. 700 feet AGL.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? May conduct operations under visual flight rules. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of Special VFR airspace. Class D airspace. Class B airspace.
(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco
International Airport is The outer segment of Class B airspace. An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. A Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains below 8,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. The flight of aircraft is prohibited. The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace? The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is The surface. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign? Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.
(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol? Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.
To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should Rely on body sensations. Increase the breathing rate. Rely on aircraft instrument indications.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? Insufficient oxygen. Excessive carbon monoxide. Insufficient carbon dioxide. .
To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should Swallow or yawn. Slow the breathing rate. Increase the breathing rate.
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? Drowsiness. Decreased breathing rate. A sense of well-being.
Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as Humidity decreases. Altitude increases. Oxygen demand increases.
Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart? At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures. To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure.
(Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at DENAY intersection. Glide slope intercept. ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.
(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is 11,000 feet MSL. 7,000 feet MSL. 9,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed approach point? 4.8 NM. 5.2 NM. 12.0 NM.
(Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies? 1,157 feet. 1,320 feet. 1,360 feet. .
(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is 2,365 feet MSL. 2,400 feet MSL. 3,000 feet MSL.
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in
flight. Requested to contact a new controlling facility. Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A
procedure? One VOR receiver. One VOR receiver and DME. Two VOR receivers and DME.
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