1. What is the purpose of the low level switch in the potable
water tank? a. It signals the drain/vent valve to OPEN. b. It sends a LOW LEVEL signal to the ECAM memo page. c. It disconnects the electric supply to the lavatory water
heaters.
2. What is the purpose of the manual shut-off valves in the
lavatories? a. To isolate the lavatory from the potable water system. b. To manually operate the lavatory flush. c. To shut off the water supply to the lavatory faucets.
3. What is the purpose of the potable water system shuttle
valve? a. It allows the water tank to be pressurised by either the
aircraft pneumatic system or an external supply b. It moves in response to demands from the lavatory flush system or
galleys c. It allows complete draining of the water system.
4. What is the purpose of the altitude pressure switch in the
toilet system? a. It inhibits operation of the vacuum generator above 16,000
feet b. It inhibits operation of the vacuum generator below 16,000 feet c. It regulates flush water pressure according to aircraft altitude.
5. How many flush operations can be carried out simultaneously? a. One b. Two c. Any number.
6. What happens when the toilet waste tank is full? a. A message appears on the ECAM warning page b. The LAV INOP light on the aft attendant’s panel comes on c. The lavatory system is shut down.
7. What does the LAV INOP light mean? a. The toilet waste tank is full b. A flush control unit has failed c. The vacuum generator has failed.
8. How is each windshield wiper controlled? a. By a three position rotary selector b. By a pushbutton c. Automatically, depending on the weather conditions.
9. Which of the following statements about slat anti-icing is
correct? a. Each slat has hot air delivered by its own telescopic tube b. Hot air is delivered by a telescopic tube to slat 4, from where it is
delivered outboard and inboard to slats 3 and 5 c. The telescopic tube is in slat 3. Hot air is delivered via flexible
interconnecting ducts.
10. How long will the wing anti-ice system operate when on the
ground? a. 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 seconds.
11. Which heating system comes ON automatically when at least
one engine is running? a. Window heating b. Static ports c. Window heating and Static ports.
12. When are the windows and side windows heated? a. In flight, not on the ground b. High power in flight, low power on the ground c. In icing conditions only.
13. Which device has to be unlocked before opening the sliding
window? a. A locking pin on the sliding window frame b. Pushing down on the red indicator on top of the sliding window
operating handle c. None.
14. What happens when the EIU power supply circuit breakers are
pulled? a. Nothing happens b. The windshield heating is cut off c. The windshield and windows are heated.
15. How can a thermal discharge of the bottle be detected on a
cold aircraft? a. By the FDU b. By the ECAM c. By the red disc indicator.
16. If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment what happens? a. SMOKE light comes on, CRC, MASTER WARNING and ECAM
message b. SMOKE light comes on and ECAM message c. ECAM message only.
17. How is the fire extinguishing system controlled? a. By the CFDS b. By the ECAM c. By the FDU.
18. When the APU FIRE pushbutton is released out, which valve
will be affected? a. Hydraulic Fire SOV b. LP Fuel SOV c. Fuel Isolation Valve.
19. Which warning lights are triggered in case of avionics smoke
detection? a. GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light b. BLOWER FAULT c. GEN 1 LINE SMOKE and BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT lights.
20. How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU? a. In series parallel b. In series c. In a loop.
21. When does the FADEC close the fuel return valve? a. If the IDG oil is too hot b. If the return fuel temperature is too cool c. If the fuel temperature in the inner or outer cell is too high.
22. How are the Refuel valves actuated? a. Electrically only b. Manually only c. Electrically or manually.
23. What happens if one fuel quantity probe in the FQIC system
fails? a. Corresponding tank quantity display flashes b. Quantity indication remains the same for 2 probes other than
13 & 14 c. Quantity indication disappears.
24. What is the purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor? a. To stop the Center Tank Pumps b. To restart cooling fuel recirculation c. To stop the cooling fuel recirculation.
25. What happens if a High Level sensor reads too much fuel? a. a warning is triggered: too much fuel b. all the refueling operations are stopped c. corresponding valve closes.
26. Which fuel tanks are the main supply tanks? a. Center tank and inner cells b. Center Tank c. Outer cells.
27. What is the maximum total fuel capacity? a. 45920 LBS (20866 KG) b. 41736 LBS (18964 KG) c. 52174 LBS (23707 KG).
28. When a low level is first sensed in one of the wing tank
inner cells, a signal is sent to open? a. Both transfer valves in that wing, allow fuel to flow from the outer
cell to the inner cell with the low level condition b. both transfer valves allowing fuel to flow from outer cells to
both inner cells c. All four transfer valves, two in each wing.
29. If all fuel boost pumps fail, where it is possible to gravity feed
from? a. The wing tanks only b. The center tank only c. From the center tank or wing tanks as necessary.
30. Can the position of the wing transfer valves be checked? a. Yes, only on the refueling panel b. It is not possible to determine their position. c. Only on the ECAM Fuel page.
31. What happens when the 100% position on the crew oxygen
mask is selected? a. The user breathes filtered cabin air b. The user breathes pure oxygen at a permanent positive pressure c. The user breathes pure oxygen.
32. How do the passenger oxygen time delay relays control the
system automatic operation? a. They cut off electrical supply after 30 seconds b. They supply the system for 3 minutes c. They supply the system after 30 seconds.
33. Where are the passenger oxygen masks stored? a. In the Passenger Service Unit b. In the overhead stowage compartment c. In the seat back of the seat in front of the passengers.
34. Can the crew oxygen cylinder be check without power on the
aircraft? a. Yes, by using the direct reading pressure gauge b. No c. Yes, by using the batteries to power the ECAM screens.
35. What happens when the A/THR function is engaged and not
active? a. The A/THR system controls the engines and the A/THR pushbutton
light is ON b. The thrust levers control the engines and the A/THR pushbutton light
is OFF c. The thrust levers control the engines and the A/THR
pushbutton light is ON.
36. When are the FD bars displayed? a. on ground, when the system is electrically supplied and just after the
safety tests b. when the FD functions are engaged, as long as HDG V/S is
displayed on the FCU and an AP/FD mode is active c. as long as 1FD2 is displayed on the top right of each PFD.
37. When is the windshear protection not available? a. With slats/flaps extended b. With slats/flaps fully extended c. In clean configuration.
38. What happens if RMP2 fails? a. The communication systems are inoperative b. VHF2 frequencies cannot be controlled c. All communication frequencies can be controlled.
39. What is the function of the RESET key located on the ACP? a. The RESET key is used to restart the system b. The RESET key is used to cancel the previous selections c. The RESET key is used to cancel all the lighted calls.
40. Which RMP can control the VHF 1 transceiver? a. RMP 1 b. RMP 1 and RMP 2 c. RMP 1, RMP 2 and RMP 3.
41. What happens when a break in one top line data bus occurs? a. Disables all DEUs b. Affects only type B DEUs c. Only affects the type A DEUs behind the crack on this bus.
42. The status of the passenger door is monitored by which
component(s)? a. By a single microswitch (locking hook) b. By two proximity sensors, one for the operating handle, one
for the locking hook c. By the LGCIU 1.
43. What is the purpose of the damper/emergency cylinder? a. The normal function is to damp the door during opening and
closing, and in case of emergency improve opening speed of
the door b. The normal function is to damp the door during opening and closing,
and in case of emergency support the inflation of the slide c. The damper/emergency cylinder is only used in an emergency to
disconnect the passenger door from the aircraft structure.
44. How is the damper/emergency cylinder serviced after an
emergency opening of the passenger door? a. The nitrogen bottle has to be replaced b. The percussion lever has to be adjusted c. The nitrogen bottle has to be charged and a new shear pin
and newdiaphragm has to be installed.
45. The slides on the overwing emergency escape hatches
(A320/A319): a. Are automatically disarmed when the hatches are opened from
outside the aircraft b. Must be manually disarmed from outside before the hatches can be
opened from outside c. Cannot be disarmed from the outside.
46. How is the cargo door electrically energised and hydraulically
operated? a. The manual selector valve sends a signal to the LGCIU to energise
the blue hydraulic pump to pressurise the two door actuators b. The manual selector valve energises the yellow hydraulic pump to
pressurise the two door actuators without affecting the rest of the
yellow system c. The manual selector valve sends a signal to the LGCIU to
energise the yellow hydraulic pump to pressurise the two
door actuators.
47. What does a red flashing light below the cabin entry door
window indicate? a. Evacuation system armed b. Evacuation system disarmed andresidual pressure in the
cabin c. Girt bar is still connected to cabin floor.
48. What is the CNS/ATM? a. An aircraft navigation system b. A ground communication system c. A concept to use the airspace more efficient.
49. What is the component used for Airline Operational Control
(AOC) hosted applications? a. The MCDU b. The ATSU c. The MMR.
50. What is indicated when an Airline Operational Control (AOC)
message is received? a. The left memo ACARS MSG appears in blue b. The right memo ACARS MSG appears in green c. A light flashes on the left and right side of the glareshield.
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