Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this
problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output
shown, what could be the problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached. D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size. E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration? A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed. B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed. C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode. D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a switch? A. FIB B. ARP C. TCAM D. CAM.
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces.
Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP addresses
in the same network? A. ICMP B. STP C. VTP D. HSRP.
You have configured the host computers on a campus LAN to receive their DHCP addresses
form the local router to be able to browse their corporate site. Which statement about the network
environment is true? A. It supports a DNS server for use by DHCP clients. B. Two host computers may be assigned the same IP address. C. The DNS server must be configured manually on each host. D. The domain name must be configured locally on each host computer.
Which statement about routing protocols is true? A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination. B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol. C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm. D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
In which two ways does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP segments are essentially datagrams. B. TCP uses broadcast delivery. C. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets. D. TCP provides synchronized communication. E. TCP provides best effort delivery.
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work? A. PortFast on the interface B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode.
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28? A. 172.19.20.0 B. 172.19.20.15 C. 172.19.20.16 D. 172.19.20.20 E. 172.19.20.32.
Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance? A. IBGP B. OSPF C. IS-IS D. EIGRP E. RIP.
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table? A. preference of the route source B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets C. how the route was learned D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets.
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.) A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces B. computes the destination host address C. determines the next hop on the path D. updates the destination IP address E. forwards ARP requests.
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses? A. RFC 4193 B. RFC 1519 C. RFC 1518 D. RFC 1918.
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across
different subnets? A. 172.20.1.0 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 192.168.0.119 D. 239.255.0.1.
Refer to the exhibit. A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately
describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.) A. Network Device A is a switch. B. Network Device B is a switch. C. Network Device A is a hub. D. Network Device B is a hub. E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device. F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used?
(Choose two.) A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode B. inappropriate wording in banner message C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used E. configuration supports un-secure web server access.
Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA. (Choose
three.) A. Privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password B. Inappropriate wording in banner message C. Virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement D. Both the username and password are weak E. Telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch F. Cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default.
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.) A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible B. Only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed D. Console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol.
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA? A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password C. only connections from the local network will be possible D. console access to SwitchA requires a password.
After you configure a default route to the Internet on a router, the route is missing from the routing
table. Which option describes a possible reason for the problem? A. The next-hop address is unreachable. B. The default route was configured on a passive interface. C. Dynamic routing is disabled. D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the interface used to reach the next hop.
On which OSI layer does a VLAN operate? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4.
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router.
No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true
about this command? A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router. B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router. C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2. D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Which Ethernet interface command is present when you boot a new Cisco router for the first
time? A. speed 100 B. shutdown C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 D. duplex half.
Which set of conditions comprises a successful ping attempt between two connected routers
configured with IP addresses on the same subnet? A. The destination host receives an echo reply from the source host within one second and the
source host receives an echo request from the destination host. B. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host within one second C. The destination host receives an echo reply from the source host within one second and the
source host receives an echo reply from the destination host within two seconds D. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host and the source host receives
an echo request from the destination host within one second. E. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host and the source host receives
an echo reply from the destination host within two seconds.
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.) A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. D. CDP is a network layer protocol. E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices. F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Which NTP concept indicates the distance between a device and the reliable time source? A. clock offset B. stratum C. reference D. dispersion.
Which NAT command can be applied to an interface? A. ip nat inside B. ip nat inside test access-list-number pool pool-name C. ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.0 10.10.10.50 D. ip nat pool test 10.10.10.0 10.10.10.50 255.255.255.0.
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface. B. An IPv4 address must be configured. C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface. D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start command on a router in enable mode? A. The running configuration of the router is saved to NVRAM and used during the boot process. B. The router reboots and loads the last saved running configuration. C. A copy of the running configuration of the router is sent by FTP to a designated server. D. A new running configuration is loaded from flash memory to the router.
Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true? A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN. D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons.
Which command displays the number of times that an individual router translated an inside
address to an outside address? A. show ip protocol 0 B. show ip nat translation C. show counters D. show ip route E. show ip nat statistics.
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of
90 in the routing table? A. S B. E C. D D. R E. O.
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a
destination? A. IGRP B. RIP C. EIGRP D. OSPF.
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences? A. administrative distance B. next hop C. metric D. routing protocol code.
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose
three. A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting. E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Which statement describes the effect of the overload keyword in the ip nat inside source list 90
interface ethernet 0/0 overload command? A. Addresses that match address list inside are translated to the IP address of the Ethernet 0/0
interface. B. Hosts that match access inside are translated to an address m the Ethernet 0/0 network. C. Hosts on the Ethernet 0/0 LAN are translated to the address pool in access list 90. D. Addresses that match access list 90 are translated through PAT to the IP address of the Ethernet
0/0 interface.
Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been
restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information
between R1 and R2? A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command. B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains
are present in this network? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9 E. 15.
Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address? A. 192.168.1.8/29 B. 192.168.1.32/27 C. 192.168.1.40/29 D. 192.168.1.16/28 E. 192.168.1.48/29.
Which statement about a router on a stick is true? A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches. B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the
same subnet. C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled. D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and
destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace? A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer B. Layer 3 IP address C. Layer 5 session D. Layer 4 protocol.
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6to4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack.
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router? A. IEEE 802 1X B. HSRP C. port channel D. router on a stick.
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub? A. bus B. star C. mesh D. ring.
On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces?
(Choose two.) A. Router# show interfaces B. Router# show ip protocols C. Router# debug interface D. Router# show ip interface brief E. Router# show start.
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic? A. IEEE 802 1w B. IEEE 802 1D C. IEEE 802 1Q D. IEEE 802 1p.
Which statement is a Cisco best practice for switch port security? A. Vacant switch ports must be shut down. B. Empty ports must be enabled in VLAN 1. C. VLAN 1 must be configured as the native VLAN. D. Err-disabled ports must be configured to automatically re-enable.
Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3; R2 is configured as the DHCP server and
R3 as the client. What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP? A. On R2, the network statement In the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured. B. On R3, DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2. C. On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition. D. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.
R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from R1.
But you observe that R2 clock is not synchronized with R1. What is the reason R2 is not receiving
NTP updates from R1? A. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2 router is incorrect. B. The NTP server command not configured on R2 router. C. R2 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown condition. D. R1 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R2 is placed in shutdown condition.
Why applications that are installed on PC's in R2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to
communicate with server1? A. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1
network. B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1
network. C. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN
network. D. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAM
network.
Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet
connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router
R1? A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured. B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured. D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT
overloading for internal networks.
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask? A. routing protocol code B. prefix C. metric D. network mask.
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm?
(Choose two.) A. a bridge B. a router C. a hub D. a Layer 3 switch E. an access point.
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before
transmitting. C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of
the CSMA/CD access method. D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with
each other prior to transmitting data.
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes how SwitchA will handle the frame just received? A. It will drop the frame. B. It will forward the frame out of port Fa0/3 only. C. It will flood the frame out all ports. D. It will flood the frame out of all the ports except Fa0/3.
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an
interface? A. virtual links B. passive-interface C. directed neighbors D. OSPF areas.
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