1. the primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the use of ailerons has increased the drag. vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
2. which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turn the lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. the raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
3. 14 CFR part 1 defines VMO as maximum operating limit speed. maximum structural cruising speed.
4. airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the angle of bank. true airspeed.
5. the stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by variations in flight altitude. variations in airplane loading.
6. during the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased is momentarily decreased. is momentarily increased.
7. load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time divided by the total weight of the aircraft. divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.
8. lift on a wing is most properly defined as the force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
9. while holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector. vary depending upon the resultant lift vector.
10. which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady- state descent? the sum of all forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.
11. what performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? maximum gain in altitude over a given distance. range and maximum distance glide.
12. the need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.
13. in theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become twice as great. for times greater.
14. as airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane increases because of increased induced drag. increases because of increased parasite drag.
15. if the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60º banked turn, the load factor will increase as well as the stall speed. remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.
16. the angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.
17. which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight? these forces are equal. thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
18. on a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the flightpath. longitudinal axis.
19. an aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface. higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.
20. in theory, if the angle of attack and other factor remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be two times greater than at the lower speed. four times greater than at the lower speed.
21. by changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's lift, airspeed, and drag. lift and airspeed, but not drag.
22. a rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root. wing root, with the stall profession toward the wing tip.
23. stall speed is affected by weight, load factor, and power. load factor, angle of attack, and power.
24. which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack an increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag. an increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
25. for a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn is constant and the stall speed increases. is constant and the stall speed decreases.
26. if severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to design-maneuvering speed. maximum structural cruising speed.
27. a propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. the spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitud axis. left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
28. which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight? at lower airspeed the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. there is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
29. the ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as load factor and directly affects stall speed. load factor and has no relation with stall speed.
30. (refer to figure 1) the vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the green arc. yellow arc.
31. if an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60º constant-altitude bank, the total load would be 4,000 pounds. 12,000 pounds.
32. if the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays positive dynamic stability. positive static stability.
33. longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its elevator. ailerons.
34. longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper. pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
35. if the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays neutral longitudinal static stability neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
36. in a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to increase decrease.
37. when turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.
38. recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its center of gravity moves forward. center of gravity moves aft.
39. why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? to compensate for the loss of vertical component of lift. loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.
40. if airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? the angle of attack must be increased or angle of bank decreased. must be decreased or angle of bank increased.
41. name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft thrust, lift, turns, and glides. straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
42. a pilot`s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is maintaining a safe airspeed. turning back to the takeoff field.
43. to increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should increase the bank and increase airspeed. increase the bank and decrease airspeed.
44. (refer to figure 2.) select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. the airplane will stall 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60º bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down. 10 knots higher in a 45º bank, power-on stall,than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.
45. an airplane leaving ground effect will experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction. experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
46. one of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.
47. the spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind? extended during both a landing roll or ground operation. extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation.
48. the purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease landing speed. the lift of the wing.
49. propeller efficiency is the ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.
50. in order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is essential to minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop). secure the failed engine.
51. single engine ceiling (SEC) is the maximum density altitude (DA) at which the SE Vyse will produce a 50 FPM rate of climb with the critical engine inoperative. the maximum DA that an aircraft can climb to with an engine failed.
52. in order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must bank away from the live engine up to 5º. bank into the live engines slightly.
53. when dealing with aerodynamics, VMC refers to minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative. maximum airspeed at which an engine can be operated with one engine.
54. on an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left engine is considered to be the critical one to fail because of the following factors zero sideslip condition, engine windmilling and aft legal C of G. P-factor, accelerated slipstream, spiraling slipstream and torque.
55. every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a heat exchange. a pressure differentia.
56. what causes wind? air mass modification. pressure differences.
57. in the northern hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the right by coriolis force. right by surface friction.
58. why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level? coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient. coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows.
59. what prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas? coriolis force. surface friction.
60. which would increase the stability of an air mass? cooling from below. decrease in water vapor.
61. which feature is associated with the tropopause? abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate. absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
62. a common location of clear air turbulence is in an upper trough on the polar side of jet stream. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of high-pressure flow.
63. the jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by long streak of cirrus clouds. dust or haze at flight level.
64. during the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the south and speed increases. north and speed increases.
65. which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? a straight jet stream associated with a low-pressure trough. a curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.
66. which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion? clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.
67. the wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the northern hemisphere is a cyclone and is caused by coriolis force. an anticyclone and is caused by coriolis force.
68. which is the true with a respect to a high-or-low-pressure system? a high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. a high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
69. which is true regarding high-or-low pressure systems? a high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. a low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
70. which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? the temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity decreases. decreases as the relative humidity increases.
71. moisture is added to a parcel of air by evaporation and condensation. evaporation and sublimation.
72. which would decrease the stability of air mass? warming from below. cooling from below.
73. what determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend. the stability of the air before lifting occurs. the relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.
74. when conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather? strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
75. if clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence. stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
76. what type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures? fog and low stratus clouds. strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
77. the conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and stable, moist air. unstable, moist air.
78. which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? nimbostratus clouds. towering cumulus clouds.
79. which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds. unstable, moist air and orographic lifting. unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism.
80. what are the characteristics of stable air? poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds. poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumulus clouds.
81. what is a characteristic of stable air? stratiform clouds. fair weather cumulus clouds.
82. when an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist? moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels. smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility.
83. which is characteristic of stable air? cumuliform clouds. restricted visibility.
84. which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass? showery precipitation. continuous precipitation.
85. which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface? cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
86. which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
87. the conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across he ridge. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.
88. one of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and below rotor clouds. below lenticular clouds.
89. virga is best described as streamers of precipitations trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
90. the most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with squall lines. fast-moving occluded fronts.
91. if airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least 20 miles. 10 miles.
92. what visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm? low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.
93. which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? the start of rain. the appearance of an anvil top.
94. what feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of thunderstorm? roll cloud. continuous updraft.
95. during the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? developing. dissipating.
96. what minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms? 30 miles. 40 miles.
97. during an ifr cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2`` thick on the leading edge of the wings. you are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 use a faster than normal approach and landing speed. fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the ``wind chill``effect and break up the ice.
98. frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.
99. a characteristic of the stratosphere is a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35.000 feet. relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.
100. which feature is associated with the tropopause? absolute upper limit of cloud formation. abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.
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