1 Instru

4097. A characteristic of the stratosphere is. A— an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude. B— a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet. C— relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

4154. The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is. A— 20,000 feet. B— 25,000 feet. C— 37,000 feet.

4227. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. A— Absence of wind and turbulent conditions. B— Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. C— Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

4155. A jet stream is defined as wind of. A— 30 knots or greater. B— 40 knots or greater. C— 50 knots or greater.

4168. The strength and location of the jet stream is normally. A— stronger and farther north in the winter. B— weaker and farther north in the summer. C— stronger and farther north in the summer.

4096. The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather is. A— variation of solar energy received by the Earth’s regions. B— changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface. C— movement of the air masses.

4095. How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast? FT 6000 9000 0737-04 1043-10. A— 3°C. B— 10°C. C— 7°C.

4113. If the air temperature is +8°C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?. A— 3,350 feet MSL. B— 5,350 feet MSL. C— 9,350 feet MSL.

4094. A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by. A— warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. B— the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air. C— ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

4112. The most frequent type of ground- or surfacebased temperature inversion is that produced by. A— radiation on a clear, relatively still night. B— warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C— the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

4114. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?. A— A stable layer of air. B— An unstable layer of air. C— Air mass thunderstorms.

4125. A temperature inversion will normally form only. A— in stable air. B— in unstable air. C— when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass.

4200. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?. A— Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds. B— Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain. C— Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation.

4105. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?. A— Coriolis force. B— Surface friction. C— The greater density of the air at the surface.

4106. Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to. A— a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes. B— friction between the wind and the surface. C— stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

4107. What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?. A— The winds at 2,000 feet and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction. B— The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker. C— The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 feet and are usually weaker.

4108. Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?. A— Centrifugal. B— Pressure gradient. C— Coriolis.

4104. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when. A— water vapor condenses. B— water vapor is present. C— the temperature and dew point are equal.

4101. To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?. A— The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. B— The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal. C— The temperature at which dew will always form.

ALL 4159. What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?. A— Advective action. B— Upward currents. C— Cyclonic movement.

4102. What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?. A— The temperature is above freezing at your altitude. B— The temperature is below freezing at your altitude. C— You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.

4103. The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on. A— relative humidity. B— air temperature. C— stability of air.

4099. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that. A— there are thunderstorms in the area. B— a cold front has passed. C— there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

4161. Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?. A— Snow. B— Hail. C— Ice pellets.

4121. Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?. A— Low-level winds. B— Ambient lapse rate. C— Atmospheric pressure.

4122. What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?. A— The method by which the air is lifted. B— The stability of the air before lifting occurs. C— The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

4124. Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate). A— 3°C per 1,000 feet. B— 2°C per 1,000 feet. C— 2.5°C per 1,000 feet.

4115. What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?. A— First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds. B— Vertical clouds with increasing height. C— Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

4118. What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?. A— Layered clouds with little vertical development. B— Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence. C— Clouds with extensive vertical development.

4123. Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliformtype clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?. A— Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism. B— Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting. C— Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

4131. The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a. A— cloud with extensive vertical development. B— rain cloud. C— dark massive, towering cloud.

4134. What are the four families of clouds?. A— Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus. B— Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air. C— High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

4157. A high cloud is composed mostly of. A— ozone. B— condensation nuclei. C— ice crystals.

4133. Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?. A— Low clouds. B— High clouds. C— Clouds with extensive vertical development.

4129. Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?. A— Towering cumulus. B— Cumulonimbus. C— Altocumulus castellanus.

4130. Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate. A— an inversion. B— unstable air. C— turbulence.

4132. The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of. A— a jet stream. B— very strong turbulence. C— heavy icing conditions.

4149. Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate. A— turbulence at and below the cloud level. B— poor visibility. C— smooth flying conditions.

4163. Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of. A— atmospheric stabilization around cities. B— an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products. C— increased temperatures due to industrial heating.

4156. Under which condition does advection fog usually form?. A— Moist air moving over colder ground or water. B— Warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions. C— A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current.

4164. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?. A— An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. B— A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea. C— Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions.

4165. In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?. A— Coastal areas. B— Mountain slopes. C— Level inland areas.

4166. What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?. A— Steam fog and down slope fog. B— Precipitation-induced fog and ground fog. C— Advection fog and up slope fog.

4167. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?. A— Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. B— Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. C— The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

4169. Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?. A— Moist air moving over colder ground or water. B— Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface. C— Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

4162. Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?. A— Increased visibility. B— Convective turbulence due to surface heating. C— Fog.

4158. An air mass is a body of air that. A— has similar cloud formations associated with it. B— creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth’s surface. C— covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

4116. The general characteristics of unstable air are. A— good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds. B— good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiformtype clouds. C— poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds.

4120. What are some characteristics of unstable air?. A— Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility. B— Turbulence and poor surface visibility. C— Turbulence and good surface visibility.

4128. Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?. A— Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. B— Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. C— Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

4117. Which is a characteristic of stable air?. A— Fair weather cumulus clouds. B— Stratiform clouds. C— Unlimited visibility.

4119. What are the characteristics of stable air?. A— Good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratustype clouds. B— Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus-type clouds. C— Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratustype clouds.

4098. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of. A— stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence. B— cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence. C— stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

4127. Frontal waves normally form on. A— slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. B— slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts. C— rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.

4136. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?. A— A wind change. B— An abrupt decrease in pressure. C— Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.

4160. If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?. A— Constant airspeed (VA). B— Level flight attitude. C— Constant altitude and constant airspeed.

4916. If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the. A— maneuverability of the airplane will be increased. B— amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased. C— airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.

4210. A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as. A— light turbulence. B— moderate turbulence. C— light chop.

4148. What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?. A— A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. B— A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate. C— Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

4126. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. A— The start of rain at the surface. B— Growth rate of cloud is maximum. C— Strong turbulence in the cloud.

4143. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. A— Cumulus. B— Dissipating. C— Mature.

4147. What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?. A— The anvil top has completed its development. B— Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base. C— A gust front forms.

4137. Where do squall lines most often develop?. A— In an occluded front. B— In a cold air mass. C— Ahead of a cold front.

4142. If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?. A— Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute. B— Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer. C— Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

4145. Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?. A— Warm front. B— Squall line. C— Air mass.

4141. What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?. A— Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line. B— Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. C— Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

4144. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?. A— Lightning. B— Heavy rain showers. C— Supercooled raindrops.

4146. Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?. A— Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions. B— Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude. C— Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

4251. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. A— Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B— One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. C— Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

4252. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. A— 8,000 feet per minute. B— 7,000 feet per minute. C— 6,000 feet per minute.

4253. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. A— 40 knots. B— 80 knots. C— 90 knots.

4254. (Refer to Figure 13.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?. A— 4 and 5. B— 2 and 3. C— 3 and 4.

4255. (Refer to Figure 13.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?. A— 3. B— 2. C— 1.

4256. (Refer to Figure 13.) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter?. A— Decreasing headwind. B— Increasing tailwind. C— Strong downdraft.

4257. (Refer to Figure 13.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?. A— Strong tailwind. B— Strong updraft. C— Significant performance increase.

4258. (Refer to Figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?. A— Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. B— Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. C— Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

4100. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. A— The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. B— When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing. C— Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

4152. In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?. A— Cumulonimbus clouds. B— High humidity and freezing temperature. C— Freezing rain.

4153. What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?. A— You have flown into an area of thunderstorms. B— Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude. C— You have flown through a cold front.

4171. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil. A— reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent. B— increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent. C— reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

4950. During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to: A— use a faster than normal approach and landing speed. B— approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect. C— fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the “wind chill” effect and break up the ice.

4151. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?. A— Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil. B— Frost decreases control effectiveness. C— Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.

4958. When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should. A— fly to an area with liquid precipitation. B— fly to a lower altitude. C— leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

4959. Tailplane icing can be detected by. A— a slow and steady decrease in altitude. B— flaps failing to operate. C— a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose-down pitch.

4960. If tailplane icing or a tailplane stall is detected, the pilot should. A— lower the flaps to decrease airspeed. B— decrease power to VFE. C— retract flaps and increase power.

4971. Which is true with regards to icing?. A— Heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bad as light icing on the upper surface. B— Smooth ice on the upper surface will cause minimal if any problems. C— Light icing is worse than heavy icing.

4972. What is the most likely reason for buffeting or vibrations after extending the flaps during or exiting icing conditions?. A— Incipient tailplane stall. B— Aerodynamic stall due to increased angle of attack. C— Aerodynamic instability due to ice accumulation forward of the ailerons.

4973. The best technique for using deicing boots is to. A— allow ice to build first to reduce likelihood of “ice bridging.”. B— use them immediately upon visual detection of any ice. C— cycle several times after exiting to obtain a clean wing.

4974. How should deicing boots be used after exiting flight in icing conditions?. A— Boots do not need to be operated after leaving icing conditions. B— Continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation. C— Only continue to cycle the boots if you are concerned ice may continue to accumulate.

4969. The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is that. A— it can cause breakage of antennas. B— it can cause blockage of the pitot tube and/or static ports affecting aircraft instruments. C— it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift.

4970. Preventing ice from causing a hazard for aircraft certificated for flight into known icing conditions is accomplished by 1. Spraying alcohol or glycol solution on the aircraft before takeoff. 2. A deicing system on the aircraft. 3. An anti-icing system on the aircraft. Which statement is true?. A— All three statements are true. B— Only statements 2 and 3 are true. C— Only statement 1 is true.

4960-1. What should pilots do if icing is detected while also experiencing a rolling condition?. A— Lower the flaps to decrease airspeed. B— Set power and angle of attack for a controlled descent. C— Retract flaps and increase power.

4960-2. What autopilot function should you turn off if icing is suspected?. A— HDG (heading) mode. B— AUTO Approach (APP) mode. C— Turn autopilot off.

4960-3. A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is. A— having the autopilot continuously engaged while monitoring the system for abnormal trim, trim rate, or attitude. B— periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane. C— periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.

4961. If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should. A— first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots. B— operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice. C— operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal.

4962. The first place ice is likely to form on an aircraft is the. A— wings. B— tailplane. C— windshield.

4964. If a pilot encounters freezing drizzle, he can assume that. A— there is warmer air above. B— the freezing drizzle will accumulate as rime ice. C— since freezing drizzle is supercooled it is not a concern for structural icing.

4965. When flying through supercooled water droplets, the first sign of structural ice accumulation would be. A— the leading edge of the wings. B— on probes and antennas. C— the windshield.

4966. What actions should the pilot take in the event of suspected tailplane icing during an approach?. A— Leave the autopilot on to assist flying the approach. B— Use partial or no flaps and no autopilot. C— Hand fly the approach until the IAF and then use the autopilot.

4967. Expect clear ice to form on the leading edge of airfoils when. A— liquid water and snow combine with ice. B— temperatures are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high airspeeds. C— the precipitation is small droplets and the aircraft is at low airspeeds.

4968. When flying through stratiform clouds, the best way to alleviate icing is by. A— changing altitude to one with above-freezing temperatures or where temperatures are colder than -10°C. B— slowly climbing out of the icing layer. C— always descending to find warm air below.

4138. Where does wind shear occur?. A— Exclusively in thunderstorms. B— Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature. C— With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

4139. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. A— It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B— It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C— It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

4150. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. A— It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence. B— The Coriolis phenomenon in both high- and lowlevel air masses is the principal generating force. C— It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

4140. Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?. A— With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport. B— With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport. C— Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.

4238. Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground. A— during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. B— during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys. C— during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

4135. Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer. A— In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell. B— In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell. C— On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

4720. When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?. A— Higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then a decrease. B— Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase. C— Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.

4727. While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?. A— Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope. B— Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope. C— Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

4739. Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?. A— PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Increases, then decreases to approach speed. B— PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed. C— PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, then increased; VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

4755. While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?. A— Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope. B— Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope. C— Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.

4917. When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?. A— A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent. B— A sudden change in airspeed. C— A sudden surge of thrust.