300 737 NG

The Maximum Engine Start EGT limit for B737 NG is. 725C. 925C. 950C. 975C.

The water pressure for the lavatories is normally provided by the ________________________. pneumatic system. hydraulic system. electrical system.

The Maximum Contiuous EGT limit for B737 NG is. 725C. 925C. 950C. 975C.

The fuel for APU is normally supplied by the ______________. Left tank. Center tank. Right tank.

The cargo compartment doors are plug type, hinged at the _______ and open _______. top ; inward. bottom ; inward. top ; outward. side ; inward.

APU fuel consumption is about. 30KG/H. 50KG/H. 100KG/H. 300KG/H.

The maximum nose wheel steering angle is _____________ when controlled by the tiller. 78 degrees. 70 degrees. 45 degrees. 72 degrees.

With an inoperative engine driven generator, the aircraft can dispatch with the APU as the second source of electrical power. True. False.

If PM is the Captain sitting on the left and PF is first officer sitting on the right, who makes the GO/NO GO decision during takeoff?. Captain. First Officer. PM. PF.

Rudder pedal steering provides a maximum steering angle of _______________. 7 degrees. 10 degrees. 5 degrees. 12 degrees.

The Flight Spoilers augment the Aileron operation when the control wheel is rotated more than ________ degrees. ten. fifteen. five. eight.

The aircraft is equipped with an Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) and is therefore limited to operate from __ degrees North Latitude to __ degrees South Latitude. 82 ; 82. 82 ; 70. 70 ; 70. 80 ; 80.

On the ground, the packs can receive compressed air from _______________________. all of these. a ground source. the APU. the engines.

The PANEL knob on the F/O s panel can adjust the integral lights in the First Officer s instruments and the AFDS mode control panel edge lighting. False. True.

A flight deck switch and a switch on the _______ Attendant station control the Emergency Light system. aft. forward.

PM is the Captain sitting on the left and PF is first officer sitting on the right. If a rejected takeoff before V1 is necessary, who makes the decision and takes actions?. Captain. First Officer. PF. PM.

The Map lights are adjusted by the knob on the ________________. sidewall panels. overhead panels. pedestal.

The fully charged batteries should last for about ______ minutes. 20. 30. 45.

With Switch in AUTO position,the taxi light will automatically turn off when the gears are retracted for safety purposes. False. True.

IF BAT SWITCH is in OFF and STANDBY POWER SWITCH is in BAT, is battery bus powered?. Yes. No.

When the FASTEN SEAT BELTS switch is selected to AUTO, the FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT signs illuminate with ______________________. gear extension. gear or flap extension. flap extension.

What is approximately the wingspan of a Boeing 737-800 (without winglets)?. 28,9 m. 34,4 m. 36,2 m. 29,8 m.

With the FASTEN BELT switch in AUTO, when will the FASTEN BELT signs illuminate?. Only when the landing gear lever is in the DOWN position. When the landing gear is DOWN or TE FLAPS are NOT UP. Only when the flaps are not in the UP position. Both the landing gear and the flaps must be extended.

What determines the correct eye reference position?. The retractable reference marker (as located in the cockpit ceiling) must point between your eyebrows when it is deployed. When looking over glare shield a small amount of airplane nose structure must be visible and view of A/P-A/T-FMC lights and EHSI (ND/PFD) must be unobstructed. Your eyes must be aligned with the eye reference marker sticker between windows 2 and 3. The underside of the glare shield must be aligned with the topside of the Display Select Panel.

Which statement concerning circuit breaker panels P6 and P18 is true?. P6 is located behind the Capt seat and P18 behind the F/O s seat. P6 is located behind the F/O s seat and P18 behind the Capt seat. P6 and P18 are located on the aft overhead panel. Both circuit breaker panels are not located in the cockpit.

A fire axe is located in: The forward galley. The flgiht deck. The aft galley. Both a and c are correct.

What is approximately the minimum pavement width for a 180 turn for B737-800?. 20 m. 24 m. 30 m. 33 m.

What is the location of the logo lights?. In the wing tips, just in front of the strobe lights. On the top of each horizontal stabilizer. In the inner flap track fairings. In the outer flap track fairings.

Select the correct statement regarding the taxi light. The light extinguishes automatically when the gear retracts. It is recommended not to use the light for takeoff and landing because for some aircraft it does not extinguish automatically. The light shines forward in a fixed position. It consists of two lights, both mounted on the nose wheel strut. Both controlled by one switch.

The aircraft water system is supplied by: One main water tank with separate tanks for the toilets. A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment. Two water tanks located either side of the aft cargo compartment. 1 water tank in front of the forward cargo compartment for forward galley and toilet, 1 water tank behind aft cargo compartment for aft galley and toilets.

Each passenger oxygen generator when activated, will produce oxygen for approximately: 7 minutes. 12 minutes. 17 minutes. 20 minutes.

The system pressure of the flight crew oxygen system may be as high as: 1500 P.S.I. 1850 P.S.I. 2000 P.S.I. 2250 P.S.I.

With how many escape straps/ropes is the Boeing 737- 800 equipped?. 2, only in the cockpit. 4, two in the cockpit and two in the cabin. 6, two in the cockpit and four in the cabin. 8, two in the cockpit and six in the cabin.

What is the maximum flight altitude?. 35.000 ft. 41.000 ft. 37.000 ft. 44.000 ft.

What is the speed limit to extend the retractable landing lights?. 280 kt/M.70. No limitations. 270 kt/M.70. 320 kt/M.82.

What is the location of the runway turnoff lights?. In the lower airplane fuselage. In the wing-root, adjacent to the fixed landing lights. In the wing tips, just in front of the strobe lights. On the nose gear.

When do the emergency overwing exits lock?. Either engine is running. When 3 of the 4 Entry/Service doors are locked.The airplane air/ground logic indicates that airplane is in air or both thrust levers are advanced with either engine running. The airplane air/ground logic indicates that the airplane is in the air or both thrust levers are advanced. When three of the four Entry/Service doors are locked.

The passenger oxygen system is activated automatically when the cabin reaches an altitude of: 10,000 feet. 14,000 feet. 12,000 feet. 9,500 feet.

Two Autopilots are installed. Except for_________, only one A/P can be engaged at a time. a coupled Dual Channel Approach. an approach.

Illuminated MCP switch lights do not indicate the operating mode, you must view the mode status on the__________. FMA displays. AFDS panels.

During takeoff, failures of ______________ will cause the A/T to disengage. valid N1 limit signals from the FMC. the crew to advance the throttles.

The A/P can also control the horizontal stabilizer trim - but has no control over__________. the rudder system. the elevator system.

The command bars are enabled when the respective FD switch is turned on, however the pitch command bar will come into view only if a ______is engaged. pitch command mode. AP.

If a ___is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will advance power to the N1 limit, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the selected IAS/MACH value. higher altitude. lower altitude.

During Autopilot operations, the operating FCC sends control commands to the respective pitch and roll hydraulic servos, which operate the flight controls through ______. separate hydraulic systems. a single hydraulic system.

The Speed Selector is used to adjust the selected speed for the __________ modes. MCP SPD and LVL CHG. VNAV and LNAV.

LVL CHG cannot engage after_________. glideslope capture. APP is armed.

Each rotational click of a Course Selector knob - will change the respective Course readout by 1 degree, and will move the _________ on the respective ND by one degree. course deviation pointer. heading pointer.

When Autopilot A is engaged - FCC A controls the autopilot through the A system aileron and elevator servos - utilizing the ____ hydraulic system actuators. A. B.

In VNAV speed descent, the A/T_________, and the AFDS holds the FMC target speed using pitch. retards thrust to idle. goes to throttle hold.

When VNAV is engaged, the aircraft will automatically level off at the altitude displayed in _______ or the FMC altitude - whichever is reached first. the MCP Altitude Display. the Radio Altitude.

When the localizer is captured, the AFDS will command up to ____ degrees of bank regardless of the MCP bank angle selector. 30. 15.

The AFDS captures the glideslope at ____dot, then commands a descent rate to track the glideslope signal. 2/5. 1/5.

The selected speed appears in the IAS/MACH display when __________ is engaged. MCP SPEED. VNAV.

The N1 mode sets power to the N1 limit that is calculated by the______. The available limits are Reduced Takeoff, Takeoff, Go Around, Reduced Climb, Climb, Cruise, and Continuous. FMC. IRS.

A Bank Angle Selector is used to limit the roll guidance for the Headin Select mode and the ____ mode. VOR. LNAV.

LNAV will automatically disconnect upon reaching the end of the ______or entering into a route discontinuity. active route. top of descent.

Autothrottle operation is available with Flight Directors _____or with the Autopilot engaged or not engaged. ON or OFF. ON only.

An illuminated Master (MA) light indicates which _______________. FD is on. FCC is the current master computer.

If a _____is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will set idle thrust, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the selected IAS/MACH value. higher altitude. lower altitude.

With VOR/LOC armed, the AFDS will intercept the selected radial or localizer course from the Heading Select mode or from the _________mode. A/P CMD Roll. A/P CWS Roll.

If no active speed mode is displayed when LVL CHG is engaged, the _______appears, and the display and airspeed cursors synchronize to allow current speed to be target LVL CHG speed. FMC speed. present speed.

The Autothrottle system is normally engaged _______takeoff. after. before.

When will Descent mode begin in the pressurization system?. aircraft descends to 500 ft below selected flight level. aircraft descends to 900 ft below selected flight level. aircraft descends to 0.5 PSI below selected flight level. aircraft descends to 0.25 PSI below selected flight level.

Statements: 1) Full automatic flare and touchdown capability is not available in single A/P operation 2) During all phases of flight; both A/P s can be engaged. Only statement 2 is correct. Only statement 1 is correct. Both statements are correct. No statement is correct.

To make a dual A/P approach the second VHF NAV receiver must be tuned to the ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD prior to: 1000 feet RA. 800 feet RA. 1200 feet RA. 1500 feet RA.

VNAV is terminated by... Selecting a holding. G/S capture. Extending flaps beyond 30 with APP mode engaged. All of the above.

In LNAV the AFDS will intercept and track the active FMC route when... On any heading and within 5 NM of the active route segment. The aircraft is on an intercept course of 90 degrees or less to intercept the route segment before the active waypoint,or aircraft is within 3 NM of the active route segment. The speed is so that the airplane is able to turn and make the interception without overshoot . All of the above are correct.

With CWS engaged, if aileron pressure is released with ____ or less bank, the A/P will roll wings level and hold existing heading. 4 degrees. 6 degrees. 10 degrees. 12 degrees.

What will happen if LVL CHG is engaged but there is no active speed mode?. Airplane will maintain an airspeed of 250 kts. The existing speed will become target speed. In this case it is not possible to engage LVL CHG. None of the above.

On the MCP, when a 8 character is flashing in the IAS/MACH display it means: That electrical power has just been applied. Commanded speed cannot be reached due to overspeed. Autothrottle has disengaged. Commanded speed cannot be reached due to underspeed.

What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?. VNAV. MCP SPEED. ViS. CWS P.

If an engine failure occurs during take-off, the pitch command target speed is NOT: Existing speed, if the airspeed is V2 and V2 + 20 kts. V2 + 15 kts, if the airspeed is above V2 + 20 kts. V2 + 20 kts, if the airspeed is above V2 + 20 kts. V2, if the airspeed is below V2.

During a dual A/P approach if the second A/P is armed it will engage automatically after: LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 1000 feet occurs. LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 1500 feet occurs. LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 1200 feet occurs. LOC and G/S capture and when descent below 800 feet occurs.

The pressurization system has two controllers.One is the Primary, the other is Alternate. For next flight, two controllers will switch over. Yes. No.

The cabin altitude can be maintained within: 7000 feet. 7500 feet. 8000 feet. 8500 feet.

What is the maximum pressure differential for the relief valves in the pressurization system?. 8.6 PSI. 8.65 PSI. 9.1 PSI. 9.15 PSI.

The APU can operate the electrical system and one pack at altitudes up to ___________. 10,000 feet. 20,000 feet. 12,000 feet. 8,000 feet.

For normal operations when the Recirculation Fan is on and cabin differential pressure is high, the ____________________ is closed and exhaust from these cooling fans is routed to the air mix manifold. overboard exhaust valve. main outflow valve. relief valve. pressure valve.

With no electrical load, the APU can operate one pack up to _____________. 17,000 feet. 20,000 feet. 10,000 feet. 8,000 feet.

On the -800/900, which fan discharges the air into the air conditioning mix manifold?. right fan. left fan. both fans. neither fans.

Warm air from the cabin circulates between the aircraft skin and the aft cargo compartment walls and then exits through the _______________. outflow valve. overboard exhaust valve. discharges. pressure valve.

Which pack provides conditioned air to the flight deck?. left. right. center. both.

The deflector doors extend when on the ground and in-flight in icing condtions to provide slush and debris protection to the Ram Air system. False. True.

The __________________ provides control for the FWD CABIN and for the flight deck. right controller. left controller.

Normally, both packs are operated. However, the cabin can be maintained at _________ feet when the airplane is at maximum certified ceiling with only one pack operating. 8,000. 10,000. 6,000. 7,000.

Normally, air exhausts through the ________________. main outflow valve. overboard exhaust valve. both. neither.

How many equipment cooling fans are installed?. four. two. six. three.

What sources of air may be used to supply the pack?. All of these. engine. APU. ground air source.

Which pack normally delivers conditioned air to the cabin?. right. left. neither. both.

If all temperature selectors are in OFF, the output temperature of L and R packs will be: both 24C. both 18C. 18C for L, 24C for R. 24C for L and 18C for R.

AUTO provides ____________ if either pack is shut off in flight with the flaps retracted. high flow. low flow.

Before takeoff, the CDU page of PM is placed on. Takeoff Reference. Legs. Progress page 1. climb.

The inlet door for the Pack Ram Air only opens fully when on the ground. False. True.

On the -700, the left DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on if the temperature of the conditioned air delivered from the _______________ to the cockpit is too hot. right pack. left pack. standby pack. center pack.

On the -800, with the PACK switches in AUTO on the ground, placing both pack switches to HIGH shuts down the ________ recirculation fan. right. left. center. neither.

Warm air exhaust from the electronic equipment cooling is dumped overboard through the ___________________ when the aircraft is on the ground. main outflow valve. overboard exhaust valve. pressure valve. relief valve.

Before takeoff, the CDU page of PF is placed on. Takeoff Reference. Legs. Progress page 1. Climb.

Which side of of the isolation valve does the ground pneumatic air enter the manifold, the right or left side ?. left. right. neither.

Single engine performance is calculated to be dangerous with a pack in HIGH. True. False.

Which lights are used for each flight?. retractable landing lights. fixed landing lights. both fixed and retractable lights. logo lights.

What is the maximum time limit for takeoff thrust setting?. 1 min. 2 min. 5 min. 10 min.

On the -700, most of the air from the ___________ goes to the mix manifold and on to the passenger cabin. right pack. left pack. standby pack.

When the ram air doors are in the FULL CLOSED position, there is still room for some ram air to enter. False. True.

Maximum N1 limit for B737 NG is. 99%. 100%. 104%. 105%.

AUTO provides ____________ if both packs are operating on the ground or inflight. high flow. low flow.

The 3 cabin zones that receive conditioned air are designated as Cockpit, Front Cabin, and Aft Cabin. True. False.

With AUTO selected on the pack switch and the aircraft inflight with flaps retracted, the pack flow rate automatically shifts to HIGH if the opposite pack switch is in OFF. OFF. LOW. HIGH. AUTO.

The cabin will be pressurized to approximately 0.1 psi on the ground automatically when: All doors are closed. The FLT/GRD switch is placed to the FLT position. Engine thrust is increased for takeoff. The engine bleed switches are selected ON.

AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when: The aircraft is descending before the selected altitude was reached. The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 sea level ff./min. The pressurization mode selector is moved to ALTN. The cabin attitude exceeds 15.800 ft.

Condition: Right pack operating only. From which source does the cockpit receive conditioned air?. Directly from the right airconditioning pack. It does not receive conditioned air. From the recirculation fan only. The right air conditioning pack via the mix manifold.

Condition: In Flight and Left Recirculation fan switch in AUTO, When is the left fan not operating?. When both packs are operating with either pack switch in HIGH and flaps are not extended. With one pack operating and the associated pack switch in HIGH. When both packs are operating with either pack switch in HIGH. When both packs are operating with either pack switch in HIGH and the gear is not extended.

Which part of the system is overheated when the right ZONE TEMP light is illuminated?. The FWD CAB duct. The CONT CAB duct. The AFT CAB duct. The AFT CAB duct and/or cargo compartment.

Under which condition(s) in flight is the Overboard Exhaust Valve driven open?. In flight with flaps up. If either PACK switch is in high, and the left recirculation fan is off. When cabin differential pressure exceeds a certain preset value. If either PACK switch is in high, and the right recirculation fan is off.

When both the AUTO FAIL light and ALTN light illuminate: Pressurization control has automatically transferred to the other automatic controller. Pressurization control has automatically transferred to the standby mode. Pressurization control has automatically transferred to the manual mode. Pressurization control was not able to transfer to an alternate mode.

Which statement about the forward cargo compartments is true?. The forward cargo compartment is pressurized but does not have fresh air circulation. The forward cargo compartment is not pressurized. The forward cargo compartment is pressurized and has fresh air circulation. The forward cargo compartment is pressurized and an independent temperature control zone.

With the pressurization mode selector in the MAN position... The outflow valve is controlled by a separate DC motor, slower than in automatic mode. The outflow valve is controlled by a separate DC motor with the same speed as in automatic mode. The outflow valve is controlled by a separate AC motor with the same speed as in automatic mode. The outflow valve is controlled by a separate AC motor, slower than in automatic mode.

Maximum N2 limit for B737 NG is. 99%. 100%. 104%. 105%.

Condition: Both packs operating. Conditioned air from the right pack flows,.. To the passenger cabin via the mix manifold. Directly to the passenger cabin. Directly to the cockpit. To the cockpit via the mix manifold.

What fault condition(s) cannot be reset with the trip reset switch?. Wing body overheat. Bleed trip off. Pack trip off. Both b and c.

Where is the recirculation fan air ducted to?. The mix manifold. The area around the aft cargo compartment. The galley areas. The airconditioning packs.

The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights: Indicate that the ram doors are full open during flight or on the ground. Are illuminated dim when the ram doors are in transit. Will only illuminate in flight with the ram doors full open. Will only illuminate when the aircraft is on ground. During flight indication is inhibited.

Condition: Both packs operating. Conditioned air from the left pack flows,,,. Directly to the cockpit and mix manifold. To the cockpit via the mix manifold. Directly to the cabin and mix manifold. Via the mix manifold to the cockpit and passenger cabin.

What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?. They reduce the air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed air demand. They reduce the temperature of the passenger cabin air. They assist in fine tuning the temperature control of cockpit and cabin. They assist in pressurizing the aircraft.

Which APU lights are inhibited when the APU control switch is in the OFF position?. OVERSPEED. all of these. FAULT. LOW OIL PRESSURE.

How is APU generator power removed from a system?. Moving the APU generator switches to OFF and applying another power source to the electrical system. Moving the APU generator switches to OFF - or applying another power source to the electrical system. Disconnect that APU jumper cable. Hit the APU repeatedly with a large hammer.

Air that enters through the Inlet door flows to: The oxygen generators. The compressor and to cooling airflow for accessories. The pneumatic system. The engine cooler.

What is the maximum altitude for use of APU bleed air (in feet)?. 18,000. 17,000.

How many packs can be powered by the APU during takeoff and up to 10,000 feet?. Two. One.

After the APU control switch is moved to START, approximately how long (in seconds) does it take for the Inlet Door to open?. 30. 20.

What is the maximum operating FL altitude of the APU?. FL 350. FL 410. FL 250. FL 100.

Minimum oil pressure for B737NG is PSI. 4. 10. 13. 19.

Does moving the APU control switch to OFF cause an immediate shutdown?. Yes. No.

How long after APU shutdown should the Battery Switch remain ON to allow time for the INLET door to close?. 15 seconds. 20 seconds.

How many electrical systems and packs can be powered by the APU between 10,000 and 17,000 feet?. Both electrical systems and both packs. One electrical system and one pack (at a time). One - either one electrical system or one pack - but not both. Two - any combination of electrical systems and packs.

Can fuel be delivered to the APU from Tank 2 or from the right pump in the Center tank?. No. Yes - if the Fuel Crossfeed is open.

The APU GENERATOR OFF BUS light illuminates ____________. When the APU is not running. When the APU is running and the generator is not in sync with main power. When the APU is running and it s generator is not powering any busses. When the APU is running and the generator is overloaded and must be shut off.

Will the APU start if there are no operating fuel boost pumps?. No, fuel pumps are mandatory. Yes - it will suction from tank 1.

If the Battery Switch is turned OFF on the ground, the APU will ____________. Continue to operate. Shutdown.

What light comes on if the APU start is interrupted?. OIL TEMP HIGH. OVERSPEED. APU FIRE. OIL PRESS LOW.

How many packs can be powered by the APU on the ground?. One. Two.

APU Bleed air should not be turned on until ____ minute(s) after APU start. Three. One.

The APU Bleed Air Valve also functions as a _____________ to give priority to the delivery of electrical power. Emergency release valve. Load Control Valve. Pneumatic switch. Exhaust.

What is indicated if the OVERSPEED light is on after APU shutdown?. A fault has been detected that will cause an overspeed condition on restart. Indicates that the overspeed circuit detection is faulty. The APU has not really shutdown. An overspeed condition existed prior to shutdown.

If the Battery Switch is turned OFF inflight, the APU will ____________. Continue to operate. Shutdown.

Does the Battery Charger continue to charge the aircraft battery during APU start?. No. Yes.

The APU start cycle can take up to ____ seconds. 120. 130.

In order for the APU to power the aircraft on the ground, is it necessary for the pilot to place both APU Generator switches to ON ?. No. Yes.

Successful APU starts are not assured above FL____________. 250. 280.

For extended operations, APU fuel may be provided by the ________ pump in the Center tank. Left. Right.

Which electrical systems can be powered by the APU when the aircraft is on the ground?. Both left and right. Either left and right but not both. Left only. Right only.

Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from _________. Tank 1. Tank 2.

Inflight - with the Battery Switch OFF - the APU will continue to run, but ________________. There will be no fire detection. It will provide no power to the electrical system. The battery will not recharge. No emergency power will be available.

What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?. 23. 25.

APU Bleed air should be turned off ____ minute(s) before APU shutdown. One. Five.

The APU can supply both transfer buses: On the ground or in flight. On the ground only. In flight only. Only on ground or in flight below 17.000 feet.

The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to: 10,000 feet. 17,000 feet. 25,000 feet.

The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate... When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2. Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer bus.

What is the electrical power source for the APU starter motor?. The battery or AC power from transfer bus 1. Always the battery. Always AC power. None of the above.

APU is running. When FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or OVERSPEED light illuminates, APU will automatically shutdown. The FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or OVERSPEED light will extinguish: 5 minutes after the APU switch has been positioned to OFF. When the APU switch is positioned to OFF. When the air inlet door has closed completely. Immediately after the automatic shutdown.

When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying bleed air, the APU will shutdown after: 60 seconds. 30 seconds. 90 seconds. 120 seconds.

The APU start cycle may take up to... 120 seconds. 60 seconds. 135 seconds. 3 minutes.

Up to which altitude may the APU be operated?. 41.000 ft. 17.000 ft. 37.000 ft. 10.000 ft.

The APU will shutdown on the ground if... An APU fire is detected or the battery switch is placed to OFF. An APU fire is detected. The battery switch is placed to OFF.

How is the DC system powered?. IDGs. Powered from the AC system through transformer rectifiers. APU. External power.

The normally closed Cross Bus Tie relay opens when the autoflight Approach mode captures the __________ with the Flight Director or Autopilot in use. localizer. glideslope. localizer and glideslope.

DC power is normally provided by onboard _______ DC Transformer Rectifiers that convert AC power to DC power. 14 volt. 28 volt.

With the Battery switch OFF - the Standby Power switch must be placed to ________ to power the Standby system from the Battery. AUTO. BATT. MAN.

The aircraft is equipped with ________ -90KVA generators. four. three. two. five.

When an engine is started, its IDG automatically comes on line and powers the respective side of the electrical system. True. False.

If an overload exists after shedding of galley power, Main Bus 1 and Main Bus 2 are shed. Main Bus 1. Main Bus 1 and 2. Main Bus 2.

The BAT switch OFF position removes power from the Battery Bus and __________________ when operating with normal power available and the Standby Power switch in AUTO. DC Standby Bus. Switched Hot Battery Bus. AC Standby Bus.

The OFF position of the Bus Transfer Switch opens the ___________________. Bus Tie Breaker. DC Crosstie Relay.

The aircraft battery can not provide power to AC components. True. False.

With the Bus Transfer switch in _______, the Bus Tie Breakers (BTB) can automatically power the entire electrical system from a single AC power source. ON. AUTO. TRANSFER.

A disconnected IDG can only be reconnected on the ground, by maintenance. False. True.

There is never a time that two generators are allowed to power the same Transfer Bus. False. True.

Each IDG is driven by the _____ accessory drive of the engine. N1. N2.

In case of an overload condition, the galley power on ______________ is shed first. Transfer Bus 1. Transfer Bus 2.

The Battery Bus is normally powered from _______. TR 1. TR 3. TR 2. All TR s.

When the APU is started, it will automatically come on-line and replace the previous power source. True. False.

Inflight or on the Ground with normal conditions, the Standby Power switch in the AUTO position allows the AC Standby Bus to be normally powered by _________________. Transfer Bus 2. Transfer Bus 1. Both Transfer Bus 1 and 2.

Illumination of the SOURCE OFF light indicates: The source manually selected to power Generator Bus has failed, and automatic bus transfer function has closed BTB s to power the Generator Bus from another source. The source manually selected to power Transfer Bus has failed, and automatic bus transfer function has closed the BTB s to power the Transfer Bus from another source. The associated transfer bus is no longer powered. The associated generator bus is no longer powered.

When during cruise, one engine driven generator fails: Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light and TRANSFER BUS OFF light illuminate. Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light and SOURCE OFF light illuminate. GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light, and TRANSFER BUS OFF light illuminate. Also various other lights associated with systems, which were powered by the transfer bus illuminate. Due to redundancy, there will be no lights illuminating unless an annunciator panel is pushed (recall).

The TR UNIT light will illuminate in flight: When TR-3 has failed. When TR-2 has failed. When TR-1 has failed. When any TR has failed.

The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to... Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered. Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus. Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control Computers (FCCs). Make sure that the captain s side navigation receiver and FCC is the only one connected to the battery. This to ensure guidance in case of a total generator failure.

Which statement about illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light is correct?. Ground Power has been plugged in, however airplane power quality is not measured. Ground Power has been plugged in and automatically powers both ground services busses. Ground Power has been plugged in and meets airplane power quality standards. None of the above.

After the loss of all generators the fully charged main battery and auxiliary battery provide standby power for a minimum of: 90 minutes. 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 120 minutes.

Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates: The battery bus not powered. The battery charger is inoperative. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch in the ON position. For maintenance purposes only, to test the capacity of the battery.

One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is... There is no paralleling of any power source. All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System. There is no paralleling of the AC power sources. An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source.

With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power results in automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate power source for standby power: On the ground only. In flight only. Both in flight and on the ground. On the ground only when the APU is running, in flight always.

When the IDG experiences a high oil temperature: The IDG will keep working, unless it is disconnected automatically due to Iow oil pressure. The IDG automatically disconnects and its DRIVE light illuminates. The IDG automatically disconnects and the associated DRIVE light, SOURCE OFF light and GEN OFF BUS light illuminate. The IDG HIGH OIL TEMPERATURE light illuminates. The IDG has to be disconnected manually via Generator Drive Disconnect Switch.

Which statement about the ELEC light is correct?. The ELEC light can illuminate both in flight and on the ground. Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the AC power system. The ELEC light can illuminate on the ground only. The ELEC light can illuminate in flight only.

Due to an electrical failure transfer bus 2 becomes unpowered. Which of the following statements is correct?. DC bus 2 will loose power. The other busses are now powered by TR1 and TR3. Only TR3 will loose power. The battery bus will now be powered by TR2. Only TR2 looses power. TR3 will automatically switch over to transfer bus 1. TR1 and TR3 will now supply the total connected load. TR2 and TR3 will loose power. The battery bus will now be powered by a battery charger.

Illumination of the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicates: The battery bus is unpowered. The DC standby bus is unpowered. The AC or DC standby bus is unpowered or the battery bus is unpowered. The AC standby bus is unpowered.

DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are: Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when the battery switch is OFF). DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus.

DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each of the 3 TR s, The Standby power and Battery bus displays only DC voltage. Normal indication is: __ Volta. 24+/-2V. 26+/-6V. 26+/-4V. 24+/-4V.

The Fire Detection system is powered by the___________. Battery Bus. Hot Battery Bus.

The overheat and fire detector loops test - with A.C. power on the aircraft will activate ___ red & amber lights and the fire alarm bell. The FAULT light should not illuminate during this test. 11. 12.

APU Fire Detection is powered by the__________. Battery Bus. Hot Battery Bus.

The engine Fire Warning Switches are automatically unlocked for______________. either an overheat or a fire condition. only a fire condition.

There is no fire extinguisher for the wheel well area. The procedure tells the pilot to extend the landing gear to allow the relative wind to blow out the fire. True. False.

The APU detector system monitors fire conditions and fault conditions - but does not monitor or shutdown for overheat conditions. True. False.

Engine Fire Protection is provided by two Freon bottles. True. False.

There is ____ alert to the flight crew when an engine fire detection loop has failed. No. An.

If the Engine Fire Detection Loop Selector is in the Normal position and a single loop fault is detected, the FAULT light will not come on. Single loop mode is automatically selected. True. False.

There are no _____lights associated with the system fault/inop test. Red. Amber.

In the wheel well, APU fire red light will flash and the horn _____ sound, when the APU fire loop detectors are tested by the pilot. Will. Will not.

If the Loop Selector is in the Normal position and both loops on one engine are faulty, the FAULT light will not come on. True. False.

The power to the bottle squibs is provided by the ________. SWTICHED HOT BATTERY BUS. BATTERY BUS. AC TRANSFER BUS. HOT BATTERY BUS.

Each Loop Selector switch is usually in the NORMAL position. If loop A or B is selected and the loop is defective, the amber _____ light indicates the selected engine loop has failed. FAULT. INOP.

Since there is no overheat detection for the APU, the APU switch will automatically______________. unlock only if a fire is sensed. either an overheat or a fire condition is sensed.

When an engine fire detection FAULT light comes on, which other lights are triggered to come on?. Master Caution. OVHT. Fire Warning. None.

There is no fault warning for a failure of the Wheel Well Fire detector. This detector is checked by the use of the OVHT/FIRE TEST switch. True. False.

The APU has a Ground Control Panel and Fire Warning Horn in the _____aft main wheel well. Left. Right. Middle. Forward.

The APU bottle has external blow out disks located on the AFT _____side of the aircraft. right. left.

The MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate when the amber ___________or APU DET INOP lights illuminate on the Aft Electronics Panel. BOTTLE DISCHARGE. ENG FIRE. FAULT. ENG OVERHEAT.

The Extinguisher TEST switch can test the circuitry____________. to the detector loops. to the squibs on all three bottles.

If both loops on one engine are malfunctioning when the OVHT / DET switch is in the NORMAL position - the______________. FAULT light illuminates only during recall. FAULT light illuminates. FAULT and Master Caution lights illuminate. FAULT and Fire Warning lights illuminate.

The wheel well system monitors fire conditions, but does not monitor ______ or fault conditions. power. overheat.

Which of the following does not require immediate action from pilots?. Wheel Well Fire. Autopilot disengage. Start Valve Open. Landing Gear Unsafe condition.

A cold front has moved through the area, the temperature is 40 degrees F, and the skies are clear. The ramp area and taxiways are puddled with water. Engine and wing anti-ice should be turned on after engine start. False. True.

The FIRE WARNING lights and the bell can be cancelled by pressing the __________ switch on the Aft Electronics Panel. EXTERNAL FIRE POWER. BELL CUTOUT.

APU Fire Protection is provided from two Freon bottles. True. False.

Overheat Detection will occur if both loops detect an overheat; or one detects an overheat and the other detects a____. Loss of engine thrust. Fire.

In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated red when... At least one detector in each loop detects smoke. Both loops for FWD or AFT cargo detect smoke (with power failed in one loop, the remaining loop detects smoke). At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire condition. None of the above.

Engine fire protection consists of .... Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the battery bus, engine fire extinguishing powered by the switched hot battery bus. Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the battery bus, engine fire extinguishing powered by the hot battery bus. Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the hot battery bus, engine fire extinguishing powered by the battery bus. Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the switched hot battery bus, engine fire extinguishing powered by the battery bus.

Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests... The engine overheat detectors. The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU. The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE. The fault detection circuits and loop continuity for both engines and the APU.

Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the .... Battery bus. No.2 AC Transfer bus. Switched hot battery bus. DC bus 1.

Which lights should illuminate during an OVHT/FIRE test?. Master FIRE WARN lights, MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire Warning Switches, engine overheat lights and Cargo Fire Warning lights. Master FIRE WARN,MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire Warning Switches and engine overheat lights. Also the APU Fire Warning light on the APU ground control panel in the RH wheel bay will illuminate. Master FIRE WARN, MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire Warning Switches, engine overheat lights,Cargo Fire Warning lights, APU Fire Warning light on the APU ground control panel in wheel bay will illuminate. Master FIRE WARN lights, MASTER CAUTION lights, OVHT/DET light, Fire Warning Switches and engine overheat lights. Also the APU Fire Warning light on the APU ground control panel in wheel bay will illuminate.

Pulling the engine Fire Warning Switch: Closes the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve. The Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve must be closed using the Engine Start Lever, also both squibs on each fire extinguisher are armed. Closes both the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve, also one squib on each fire extinguisher is armed. Closes the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve. The Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve must be closed using the Engine Start Lever, Also one squib on each fire extinguisher is armed. Closes both the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve, also both squibs on each fire extinguisher are armed.

Fire detection/protection is provided for: Engines, APU, wheel well, and the toilets. Engines, APU, wheel well, cargo compartments, and toilets. Engines, APU, wheel well, electrical / avionic compartments, and toilets. Engines and APU only.

The function of the EXT TEST -switch on the Overheat/Fire Protection Panel is…. To test the detection circuits and capacity of each extinguisher bottle. To test the discharge circuits for each extinguisher bottle. To test the discharge circuits and capacity of each extinguisher bottle. To test the capacity of each fire extinguisher bottle.

If both FMC fail, can pilots select VOR or APP mode?. Yes. No.

In the event of B system failure, what provides power to the yaw damper actuator?. A system. standby hydraulic system. electrical backup. Yaw dampers are inoperative.

If either trim switch is used while the autopilot is engaged, it will disengage the autopilot. False. True.

Maximum airspeed with Mach Trim inoperative is _______ knots or ________ Mach. 280 ; .85. 300 ; .9. 280 ; .82. 260 ; .78.

There is a manual reversion back-up for the rudder. False. True.

Two of the flight spoilers on each wing and the ground spoilers are powered by the ______________. both systems. B hydraulic system. A hydraulic system.

Stabilizer trim is operated by which of the following methods?. autopilot trim. main electric trim. all of these. manual trim.

The trailing edge flaps are normally powered by _______________. both hydraulic systems. the A hydraulic system. the B hydraulic system.

If the leading edge devices are extended with standby system pressure, they cannot be retracted. True. False.

The spoilers are hydraulically operated. With a loss of hydraulic pressure, the spoiler must be manually stowed. False. True.

Normally, the ______ system supplies pressure to the autoslat control valve. Standby. A. B.

If both FMC fail, can pilots select L NAV or V NAV mode?. Yes. No.

Which hydraulic system does the Elevator Feel System use?. B system. A system. A or B - Whichever has higher pressure.

In addition to the flight spoilers, the _______ ground spoilers deploy on the ground. six. two. four. five.

Inflight, the ________ flight spoilers extend as speed brakes when necessary. twelve. ten. eight. six.

There are _______ leading edge slats and ________ leading edge flaps on each wing. four ; six. two ; four. four ; one. two ; six.

The primary flight controls are normally powered by the _____________________. B system. A system. A and B system.

The flap load shedding system retracts the flaps from ______________ or ______________ during overspeed conditions. 30 to 15 ; 15 to 1. 40 to 25 ; 30 to 15. 40 to 30 ; 30 to 25. 15 to 5 ; 5 to 1.

Alternate flap extension from Flaps 0 to Flaps 15 takes about ____________. thirty seconds. one minute. two minutes. fifteen seconds.

The Mach Trim System begins to move the elevators upward at speeds over Mach __________. 0.65. 0.8. 0.615. 0.7.

If both FMC fail, can pilots select MAP mode?. Yes. No.

There is skew detection for all slats on the wing. False. True.

The normal two-engine go around flap setting is __________. Flaps 20. Flaps 5. Flaps 10. Flaps 15.

Which trim system has the largest range of travel?. None of these. Autopilot Trim. Main Electric Trim. Manual Trim.

What should pilots do when navigation database expire during flight?. update at once. continue flight and update after lading. land at nearest airport.

The speedbrake lever will cause the Ground Spoiler Control Valve to open. However, the ground spoilers will not extend until there is weight on the ________________. all three landing gear. left main landing gear. nose gear. right main landing gear.

With a loss of both hydraulic systems, the ailerons can be operated through the control cables. True. False.

If the hydraulic flap operation fails, the flaps may be positioned by the alternate system, utilizing ______________. an electric motor. a standby hydraulic motor.

How many positions are available for the leading edge slats?. One. Four. Two. Three.

If thrust reverse is selected during takeoff and the aircraft speed is over ___________, the autospoiler action moves the speedbrake lever to UP. 70 knots. 50 knots. 45 knots. 60 knots.

The single-engine go around flap setting is ________. Flaps 10. Flaps 5. Flaps 15. Flaps 1.

The Main Yaw Damper actuator normally uses hydraulic pressure from the _________. standby system. A system. both systems. B system.

If the control wheel is rotated full travel, the flight spoilers extend to the maximum in-flight position. True. False.

The ground spoilers can be extended in-flight. False. True.

The trailing edge flaps are normally operated by the ______________. B hydraulic system. manual reversion. A hydraulic system. flap actuator.

With a loss of both A and B hydraulic systems, the rudder operates through the _________________?. standby hydraulic system. the emergency electrical motor.

If the First Officer's wheel is operative and the Captain's is inoperative, the spoiler mixing operates and the ailerons operate normally. False. True.

A transfer mechanism is installed to _________________. allow the control columns to be physically separated in event of an elevator jam. give captain priority over the first officer control wheel. give first officer priority over the captain control wheel in emergency situations only.

If either pilot rotates the control wheel more than ________ degrees, the flight spoilers on the downward moving wing begin to rise to enhance the roll input. ten. twelve. twenty. fifteen.

Hydraulic system B is lost. Which statement is correct: The main yaw damper is inoperative. The YAW DAMPER light will illuminate when the system B Flight Control Switch is selected to STBY RUD. The Yaw Damper switch cannot be reset. The main yaw damper is inoperative. The standby yaw damper will start to operate when system B Flight Control Switch is selected to STBY RUD and the Yaw Damper Switch is reset. Operation of the main yaw damper is not affected by a loss of hydraulic system B. None of the above.

If wheel spin-up is not detected on landing with the SPEED BRAKE lever in the armed position, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically: When any gear strut compresses. Only when the right main landing gear strut compresses. Only when the left main landing gear strut compresses. When reverse thrust is selected.

The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoff & go- around. Conditions for speed trim operation are... Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.5, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of trim switches, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.5, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.5, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of trim switches, N 1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement. Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.5, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement.

Where is the indication of Standy Hydraulic system?. Lower DU. Lower DU and Hydraulic Panel. Brake Pressure Indicator. FLT CTL panel.

What indicates that all landing gears are up and locked?. all landing gears lights off. lever in UP and all landing gears lights off. lever in UP or OFF, and all landing gears lights off. lever in DOWN and all green lights on.

The number of flight spoilers located on each wing is: 4. 2. 3. 6.

The Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) does not provide: Overspeed protection for LE devices. LE skew detection for slats 2 through 7, except during autoslat operation. TE asymmetry protection by removing hydraulic pressure to the TE flaps if an asymmetry is detected. Protection from uncommanded motion by LE devices or TE flaps.

The flap load relief system is operational at the: Flaps 30 and 40 positions. Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40 positions. Flaps 25, 30 and 40 positions. Flaps 40 position only.

The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is: All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated. All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated. All LE devices EXT lights illuminated. LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.

The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light: Is inhibited during Autoslat operation inflight. Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended. Indicates LE Slats are fully extended. Provides TE Flaps asymmetry protection.

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?. 20 000 feet. 10 000 feet. 17 000 feet. 23 000 feet.

The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron,remain faired on the wing with down aileron. When control wheel is displaced more than ___degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated. 10. 6. 8. 12.

The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the: Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the elevator pitot systems fails. Flaps are up and a pressure-imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected or if one of the elevator feel pitot systems fails. Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator feel pitot systems fails. No correct answer is provided.

When the speedbrakes are deployed in flight, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light: Illuminates when the radio altitude is less than 800 feet, or the TE flaps are extended beyond flaps 10. Illuminates only when the speedbrakes are deployed uncommanded. Illuminates only when the radio altitude is less than 800 feet. Always illuminates.

For the NG, when all fuel pumps are operating, why does the Center Tank fuel feed first?. The Center Tank check valves close at a higher differential pressure than the wing tank check valves. The Center Tank check valves close at a lower differential pressure than the wing tank check valves. The Center Tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than the wing tank check valves. The Center Tank pumps output pressure is higher than the wing tank pumps.

The Fuel Crossfeed Valve is electrically operated. True. False.

What action causes the Fuel Scavenge Shutoff Valve to open?. Turning off the Wing tank pump switches. Turning on the Wing tank pump switches. Turning on the Center tank pump switches. Turning off the Center tank pump switches.

Can the 737 Transfer fuel from tank to tank when inflight?. No. Yes.

Where is the Manual Defueling Valve Lever for transfering fuel or defueling on the ground?. In the main wheel well. In the nose wheel well. Under the left wing. Under the right wing.

Does cargo have fresh air and temperature control?. only fresh air. only temperature control. both. neither.

The power to operate the Fuel Crossfeed Valve comes from the ______________. AC Transfer bus. DC bus 1. DC Transfer bus. Battery bus.

Can the 737 Dump fuel?. No. Yes.

For refueling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when the tank is full?. The Left Wing tank. The Right Wing tank. The Center tank. All of them.

The Fuel Temperature Indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in tank ____. 1. 2. center. 1, 2 and center.

When is the Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated dim?. When the valve is closed and the selector is in the open position. When the valve should be open and the selector is in the closed position. When the valve is open and the selector is in the closed position. When the valve is open and the selector is in the open position.

The illuminated FUEL FILTER BYPASS light indicates _______________. That the fuel does not need filtering and improved engine performance may result. That the fuel filter bypass valve has failed and reduced engine thrust may result. That the filter is contaminated and engine failure may result. That the filter is contaminated and degraded engine performance may result.

What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed Valve?. To transfer fuel to the center tank. To improve fuel economy. To allow for emergency fuel access. To correct an imbalance condition.

How many AC powered boost pumps are installed for each tank?. One. Two. Three. Four.