1. Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a. Acute angle-closure glaucoma b. Ocular hypertension c. Normal tension glaucoma d. Chronic open-angle glaucoma.
This 29 y/o boy was involved in an accident in which he suffered a trauma in the head. During the examination, you observed the patient that presents with an abnormal body posture that involves the arms and legs being held straight out, the toes being pointed downward, and the head and neck being arched backward. The muscles are tightened and held rigidly. You report this position as:
a. Decerebration b. Decortication c. Normal d. Flaccid.
The physician ordered Phenytoin (Dilantin) 300mg PO bid. The available dose is 200 mg tablets. The nurse will give:
a. 1 ½ tablet b. 1 tablet c. ½ tablet d. 2 tablets.
4. A patient is prescribed Effexor, an antidepressant drug. The patient weights 88 lbs. He must be given Effexor 180 mg/Kg IM. The drug stock is 500 mg/ml vial. The nurse will give: a. 6ml b. 8ml c. 12 ml d. 14 ml.
5. Mario is recovering from otitis externa and needs to continue his swimming training. Which of the following instructions do you recommend Mario? a. Wear earplugs b. Insert loose cotton pledget (cotton balls/ torundas de algodón) in the affected ear c. Avoid cold water d. Wear a headset.
6. Which of the following is the most common cause of spinal cord injury (SCI)?
a. Falls b. Motor vehicle crashes c. Acts of violence d. Sports related injuries.
7. You just call Mr Ruiz a 27 Y/o male. When you meet and greet Mr Ruiz you observe the following you proceed to report this finding as?
a. Strabismus b. Psosis c. Chemosis d. Nystagmus.
8. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who plan to use a hearing aid?
a. Describe the various type of hearing aids that are available to the patient b. Advise the patient to purchase for a company sales price c. Advise the patient to purchase the hearing aid from the mail order cataloger d. Advise the patient to purchase the hearing aid that is unnoticeable.
9. If Warfarina is contraindicate as a treatment for stroke, which of the following medication is the best option?
a. Clopidogrel (Plavix) b. Dipyridamole (Persantine) c. Ticlodipine (Ticlid) d. Aspirin.
10. Which of the following forms describe the amount of Mood per heartbeat?
a. Ejectives fractico b. Afterlead c. Stroke volume d. Cardiac Output
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11. The nurse is caring for Jorge a patient diagnosis with hypertension. Which of the following dietary guidelines should Jorge adopt? a. Limit aerobic physical activity to 15 min three time a day b. Maintain adequate dietary intake of potassium c. Reduce smoking to no more than four cigarette per day d. Stop alcohol intake.
12. Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relives by rest and medication? a. Ischemia b. Angina pectoris c. Atherosclerosis d. Atheroma.
13. Which of the following is the most important postoperative assessment parameter for a patient undergoing cardiac surgery?
a. Activity intolerance b. Inadequate tissue perfusion c. Mental alertness d. Blood glucose level.
14. This dysrhythmia has a heart rate that is considered within the normal range of an adult.
a. True b. False c. Unable to answer d. Maybe.
15. Which of the following medications is the antidote to Coumadin (Warfarin)?
a. Protamine Sulfate b. Clopidogrel (Plavix) e. Vitamin K d. Aspirin.
16. Which of the following is a manifestation of right sided heart failure?
a. Accumulation of blood in the lungs b Reduction in cardiac output c. Systemic venous congestion d. Reduction of forward low.
17. Which term describes the backward flow of blood through a heart valve?
a. Regurgitation b. Prolapse c. Stenosis d. Hypertrophy.
18. Which of the following is a deformity of the chest that occurs as a result of over inflation of the lungs? a. Barrel chest b. Kyphoscoliosis c. Pigeon chest d. Funnel chest.
19. A client with pyelonephritis receives a prescription for co-trimoxazole (Septra) PO for 10 days. Which finding best demonstrates that the client has followed the prescribed regimen?
a. U/A increases to 2,000 mL/day b. Flank and abdominal discomfort decreases c. Absent bacteria on U/C d. RBC count within normal limits.
20. You are assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptoms prompted the client to seek medical attention? a. Rash on the palm of the hands and soles of the feet b. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis c. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis d. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis.
21. The nurse is caring for a male client with gonorrhea who’s receiving ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and doxycycline (Vibramycin). The client asks the nurse why he is receiving two antibiotics. How should the nurse respond? a. "Because there are many resistant strains of gonorrhea, more than one antibiotic may be required for successful treatment." b. "The combination of these two antibiotics reduces the risk of reinfection." c. "Many people infected with gonorrhea are infected with chlamydia as well." d. "This combination of medications will eradicate the infection faster than a single antibiotic.”.
22. A client reports experiencing vulvar pruritus. Which assessment factor may indicate that the client has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
a. Cottage-cheese-like discharge b. Yellow-green discharge c. Gray-white discharge d. Discharge with fishy odor.
23. A 22 y/o female patient is brought to the ER by EMT’s. MBT (multiple body trauma) patient involved in a MVA (Motor Vehicle Accident) with immediate transport to the ER. The patient presents with an open wound on head while inspection glass is observed in patient’s skull. Multiple lacerations in body and chest and in respiratory distress. A secured airway is placed, and bleeding is stopped a. Fundoscopic examination b. Corneal reflex response c. Auditory assessment d. Pain assessment.
24. Carlos is providing the HPI of María, a 62 y/o patient. He states that he noticed her mother was experiencing difficulty speaking and understanding speech. You proceed to report this finding as: a. Apnea b. Ataxia c. Aphasia d. Dyslexia.
25. The following symptoms are associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome except: a. Weakening or tingling sensation in the legs b. Initial symptom altered mental status c. Weakness in the arms and upper body d. Nearly complete paralysis.
26. Which of the following statement about herpes zoster is not true? a. Patients with a past medical history of chickenpox at risk of post herpetic neuralgia
b. A sexually transmitted disease c. A condition that causes symptoms such as burning, tingling, pain, and lesions generally at one side of the body d. caused by the varicella zoster virus.
27. Symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia may include all of the following except: a. Extreme intermittent facial pain in the jaw or cheek b. Inability to swallow c. Tingling or numbness on one side of the face d. Pain triggered by contact with the face or facial movements.
28. A Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as: a. Least responsive b. Coma c. Most responsive d. A need of emergency attention.
29. Which of the following terms refers to paralysis of one side of the body or a part of it due to an injury to the motor areas of the brain? a. Hemiplegia b. Quadriplegia c. Paraplegia d. Paraparesis.
30. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment and uses the whisper test to assess which cranial nerve? a. Vagus b. Olfactory c. Acoustic
d. Facial.
31. Which patient would the nurse prioritize as needing emergent treatment? assuming no other injuries are present, except the ones outlined below a. A patient with blunt chest trauma with some difficulty breathing b. A patient with a sore neck that was immobilized in the field with a cervical collar c. A patient with a possible fractured tibia with adequate pedal pulses d. A patient with confusion.
32. Policy and procedure dictate that handwashing is a requirement when caring for patients. Which statement about handwashing supports this policy? a. Frequent handwashing reduces transmission of pathogens from one patient to another b. Wearing gloves is a substitute for handwashing c. Bar soap, which is generally available should be used for handwashing d. Waterless products should be avoided in situations where running water is unavailable
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33. A patient has sustained a long bone fracture. Mr. Soto RN is preparing a care plan for this patient. Which intervention should Mr. Soto RN include in the care plan to enhance fracture healing? a. Limit weight bearing and exercising b. Monitor color, temperature, and pulses of the affected extremity c. Avoid immobilization of the fracture fragments d. Administration of high doses of corticosteroids.
34. A client with left sided heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath and occasionally coughing up pink tinged foamy sputum. You should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem? a. Right sided heart failure b. Acute pulmonary edema c. Pneumonia d. Cardiogenic shock.
35. A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect: a. Hair loss b. Stomatitis c. Fatigue d. Vomiting.
36. A 25 y/o female has been admitted and treated for Cushing’s syndrome and her outcome has been positive. If this is true, the nurse would expect a decline in: a. Serum glucose level b. Hair loss c. Bone mineralization d. Menstrual flow.
37. In the ER you are providing care to Ms. Santos. She is a 32 y/o female newly diagnosed with asthma. The physician prescribed albuterol for the patient. When teaching Ms. Santos about this drug you should explain that it may cause: a. Nasal congestion b. Nervousness c. Lethargy d. Hyperkalemia.
38. The nurse is caring for Roberto, a 35 y/o male diagnosed with back strain. What would be important to discuss with this patient?
a. Avoid lifting more than one third of his body weight without assistance b. Focus on using back muscles during lifting c. Lift objects while holding the object away from the body d. Tighten the abdominal muscles and lock the knees during the lifting of an object
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39. The nurse is caring for Rosalinda, a patient who has had a plaster leg cast applied. Immediately post application the nurse should inform the patient that: a. The cast will cool in five minutes b. The cast should be covered with a towel c. The cast should be supported on a board while drying d. The cast will only have full strength when dry.
A patient with suspect Parkinson’s Disease is being initially assessed by the nurse. The nurse would expect the patient to have a tremor. When is the best time to assess for the tremor? During a period of time when the patient is...
a. Resting b. Brushing the teeth c. Preparing his or her meal tray to eat d. Participating in occupational therapy.
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department from the site of a chemical fire. The paramedics report that the patient has a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. When you asses the patient he verbalizes no pain in the right arm and the skin appears charred. Based upon these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the patient's right arm?
a. Superficial partial-thickness b. Deep partial-thickness c. Full partial-thickness d. Full-thickness.
42. Juan is admitted to the ER. The patient is complaining of severe abdominal pain. The patient is vomiting “coffee-ground” like vomitus. The patient is diagnosed with a perforated gastric ulcer and is informed that he needs surgery. When can the patient most likely anticipate that the surgery will be scheduled? a. Within 24 hours b. Within the next week c. Without delay because the bleed is emergent d. As soon as all the day's elective surgeries have been completed.
43. You are doing a preoperative assessment on a patient going to surgery. The patient informs you that he ingests 5 to 10 ounces of alcohol each day and has for the last 15 years. What postoperative difficulties can the nurse anticipate for this patient? a. Delirium tremens...Immediately after surgery b. Delirium tremens...Within 72 hrs. after his last alcohol drink c. Delirium tremens...Upon administration of general anesthesia d. Delirium tremens...1 week after his last alcohol drink
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44. Your patient is receiving postoperative analgesic through a PCA pump. You have given the patient a bolus of a narcotic medication. What is it important for you to assess the patient for? a. Sedation b. Respiratory depression c. Fluid overload d. Changes in skin integrity.
45. Andres is an 80 y/o male, newly diagnosed with primary hypertension, has just been started on a beta-blocker. The nurse knows that in addition to teaching the patient about his medication -ie, side effects, purpose, and schedule- she should also focus her teaching on what? a. Increase fluids to avoid extracellular volume depletion from the diuretic effect of the beta-blocker. b. Maintaining a diet high in dairy to increase protein necessary to prevent organ damage. c. Use of supportive devices such as hand rails and walkers to prevent falls stemming from postural hypertension d. Limiting exercise to avoid injury that can be caused by postural hypotension
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46. You are caring for a patient with hematologic disorder. The patient asks you where the body forms bloodcells. Where would you tell the patient that blood cells are formed? In the... a. Spleen b. Kidneys c. Bone marrow d. Liver.
47. The nursing instructor is teaching new nursing students how to perform an abdominal assessment. When performing an abdominal assessment, what examination sequence should the nurse follow? a. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpatation b. Inspection, auscultation, palpatation, and percussion c. Inspection, percussion, palpatation, and auscultation d. Inspection, palpatation, percussion, and auscultation.
48. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with a suspected GI bleed. The nurse assesses the patient’s stool after a bowel movement and notes it to be a tarry-black color. The nurse recognizes that the bleeding is likely occurring where? a. The lower GI tract b. The upper GI tract c. The esophagus d. The anal area.
49. The nurse is preparing to place a nasogastric tube in one of her patients. What is the process for determining the length of a nasogastric tube to be placed in the stomach?
a. Place distal tip to nose, then ear tip and endo of xiphoid process b. Instruct the patient to lie prone and measure tip of nose to umbilical area c. Insert the tube into the nose until tube fills with secretions d. Obtain an order from the physician for the number of inches to insert the tube
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50. You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: PH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results? a. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation b. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation d. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis
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34. You are counseling Ana, a 30 y/o woman with a PMHx of PMS who comes to the clinic regarding effective measures to use to relieve symptoms associated with her diagnosis. Based on your knowledge you suggest:
a. Decrease intake of fruits especially peaches and watermelon
b. Reduce exercise during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle when symptoms are at their peak
c. Maintain a salt intake of 6 g/day or less
d. Limit alcohol intake to less than 1 oz. per day
a. Decrease intake of fruits especially peaches and watermelon b. Reduce exercise during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle when symptoms are at their peak c. Maintain a salt intake of 6 g/day or less d. Limit alcohol intake to less than 1 oz. per day.
35. A 26 y/o female describes her periods as heavy bleeding between her menstrual periods. You would record this finding as:
a. Metrorrhagia b. Oligomenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Hyponenorrhea.
36. You are caring for a 21 y/o with a hx. of chlamydia. Based on your knowledge this is considered dangerous, primarily because: a. Is asymptomatic b. Cause fertility c. Leads to itching d. Is highly difficult to treat.
37. Cervical neoplasia has been liked to which of the following type of STD’s? a. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) b. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) c. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) d. Chlamydia.
38. Kathy is a 39 y/o sexually active female, who has come to the clinic requesting oral contraception. You have assessed the patient and provided instructions regarding contraception and the use of oral contraceptives. Kathy would demonstrate need for further instructions if she: a. Continues to use condoms b. Continues to actively smoke c. Takes a pill every morning d. Uses a barrier method of birth control when missing two or more pills
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40. When caring for a pregnant, the nurse would recognize that a woman with which of the following disorders has the greatest risk for giving birth to a macrosomic newborn?
a. Diabetes b. Anemia c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hypertension.
39. Which of the following measure would be LEAST effective in relieving the stress urinary incontinence experienced by a 60 y/o woman with pelvic relaxation?
a. Performing Kegel Exercise
b. Reducing her intake of oral fluids to one liter or less per day
c. Emptying her bladder on a regular basis, every two hours.
d. Participating in a smoking cessation program to relieve her smoker’s cough
a. Performing Kegel Exercise b. Reducing her intake of oral fluids to one liter or less per day c. Emptying her bladder on a regular basis, every two hours. d. Participating in a smoking cessation program to relieve her smoker’s cough.
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