TLA-A

Fig. 90 Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?. Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight.

Fig. 89 How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 122,000 pounds gross weight?. 2,200 feet. 2,750 feet. 3,150 feet.

Fig. 89 Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway?. Brakes and spoilers at 122,500 pounds gross weight. Brakes and reversers at 124,000 pounds gross weight. Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight.

Fig. 91 What is the ground roll when landing with 15° of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds?. 1,750 feet. 2,200 feet. 2,750 feet.

What are rotation and V2 bug speeds for Operating Conditions G-5? (See figures 81, 82, and 83). 120 and 134 knots. 119 and 135 knots. 135 and 135 knots.

What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3?. 2.06 EPR. 2.07 EPR. 2.09 EPR.

What are V1, Vr and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions G-3? (See figures 81, 82, and 83). 134, 134, and 145 knots. 134, 139, and 145 knots. 132, 132, and 145 knots.

Fig.15 - 18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-21?. 10.0 minutes; 290 pounds; 35 NM. 10.0 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM. 11.5 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM.

Fig. 15 - 16 - 17 What is the single-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-25?. 385 ft/min. 780 ft/min. 665 ft/min.

Fig. 15 - 16 - 17 What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-24?. 2,100 ft/min. 2,400 ft/min. 1,500 ft/min.

Fig. 15 - 16 - 17 What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-23?. 1,500 ft/min. 2,600 ft/min. 2,490 ft/min.

Fig. 15 - 16 - 17 What is the single-engine climb gradient after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-22?. 6.8 percent gradient. 7.5 percent gradient. 5.6 percent gradient.

Fig. 15 - 16 - 17 What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-21?. 1,350 ft/min. 2,450 ft/min. 2,300 ft/min.

Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude .............................................. Sea Level Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +30°C Weight ................................................................. 13,500 lb Wind component ................................................ 14 kts HW Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 2,500 feet. 2,850 feet. 3,050 feet.

Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude .................................................... 8,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ..................................................... -5°C Weight ................................................................. 14,000 lb Wind component .................................................. 4 kts TW Ice vanes ............................................................. Extended. 4,500 feet. 4,800 feet. 5,300 feet.

Fig. 19 - 20 Which statement is true regarding performance with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-29?. Service ceiling is more than 100 feet above the MEA. Bleed air must be OFF to obtain a rate of climb of 50 ft/min at the MEA. Climb is not possible at the MEA.

Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude .................................................... 6,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ................................................. +10°C Weight ................................................................. 16,600 lb Wind component ................................................ 15 kts HW Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 4,950 feet. 4,800 feet. 5,300 feet.

Fig. 19 - 20 At what altitude is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-30?. 9,600 feet. 13,200 feet. 2,100 feet above the MEA.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-32?. 1 hour 13 minutes. 1 hour 15 minutes. 1 hour 20 minutes.

Fig. 27 - 28 What are the approach speed and ground roll when landing under Operating Conditions B-36?. 113 knots and 950 feet. 113 knots and 1,950 feet. 112 knots and 900 feet.

Fig. 27 - 28 What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-36?. 1,900 feet. 1,625 feet. 950 feet.

Fig. 26 What are the time and distance to descend from 23,000 feet to 600 feet with an average 15-knot headwind?. 14.2 minutes, 50 NAM. 14.6 minutes, 56 NAM. 14.9 minutes, 59 NAM.

Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-1?. 19,400 feet. 18,000 feet. 20,200 feet.

Fig. 70 How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds? Initial weight ....................................................... 175,500 lb Zero fuel weight ................................................. 138,000 lb. 9 minutes. 10 minutes. 8 minutes.

Fig.70 How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight ....................................................... 181,500 lb Zero fuel weight ................................................. 126,000 lb. 15 minutes. 14 minutes. 13 minutes.

FigHow many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 25,000 pounds? Initial weight ....................................................... 179,500 lb Zero fuel weight ................................................. 136,500 lb. 10 minutes. 9 minutes. 8 minutes.

Fig. 70 How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight ....................................................... 180,500 lb Zero fuel weight ................................................. 125,500 lb. 13 minutes. 15 minutes. 16 minutes.

Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 2,950 pounds. 2,870 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

Fig.68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 2,870 pounds. 2,230 pounds. 1,440 pounds.

Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 2,940 pounds. 2,520 pounds. 3,250 pounds.

Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 2,250 pounds. 2,500 pounds. 3,000 pounds.

Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 1,625 pounds. 1,950 pounds. 2,440 pounds.

Fig. 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 219 knots and 1.28 EPR. 214 knots and 1.26 EPR. 218 knots and 1.27 EPR.

Fig. 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 223 knots and 1.33 EPR. 225 knots and 1.33 EPR. 220 knots and 1.28 EPR.

Fig, 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 217 knots and 1.50 EPR. 215 knots and 1.44 EPR. 216 knots and 1.40 EPR.

Fig. 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 210 knots and 1.57 EPR. 210 knots and 1.515 EPR. 210 knots and 1.45 EPR.

Fig. 92 What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30°, gear down, to flaps 0°, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots?. 13,500 pounds. 13,300 pounds. 15,300 pounds.

Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-2?. 14,700 feet. 17,500 feet. 18,300 feet.

Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?. 22,200 feet. 19,800 feet. 21,600 feet.

Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-4?. 27,900 feet. 22,200 feet. 24,400 feet.

Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-5?. 8,800 feet. 9,600 feet. 13,000 feet.

What is the rotation speed for Operating Conditions G-2? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). 150 knots. 154 knots. 155 knots.

What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions G-1? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). 122 knots. 137 knots. 133 knots.

What is the maximum takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions G-5? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). Engines 1 and 3, 2.27; engine 2, 2.18. Engines 1 and 3, 2.16; engine 2, 2.14. Engines 1 and 3, 2.23; engine 2, 2.22.

What is the maximum takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions G-4? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). Engines 1 and 3, 2.23; engine 2, 2.21. Engines 1 and 3, 2.26; engine 2, 2.25. Engines 1 and 3, 2.24; engine 2, 2.24.

Fig. 26 What are the distance and fuel consumption to descend from 13,500 feet to 1,500 feet?. 30 NAM, 87 pounds. 29 NAM, 80 pounds. 38 NAM, 100 pounds.

Fig. 26 What are the time and distance to descend from 16,500 feet to 3,500 feet?. 9.3 minutes, 37 NAM. 9.1 minutes, 35 NAM. 8.7 minutes, 33 NAM.

Fig. 26 What are the distance and fuel consumption to descend from 22,000 feet to 4,500 feet?. 44 NAM, 117 pounds. 48 NAM, 112 pounds. 56 NAM, 125 pounds.

Fig. 26 What are the time and distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500 feet?. 10.3 minutes, 39 NM. 9.8 minutes, 33 NM. 10.0 minutes, 36 NM.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-35?. 900 pounds. 1,030 pounds. 954 pounds.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-34?. 668 pounds. 718 pounds. 737 pounds.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-33?. 1,165 pounds. 1,373 pounds. 976 pounds.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-32. 1,028 pounds. 896 pounds. 977 pounds.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-31?. 812 pounds. 749 pounds. 870 pounds.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-35?. 1 hour 6 minutes. 1 hour 8 minutes. 1 hour 10 minutes.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-34?. 1 hour 6 minutes. 1 hour 3 minutes. 1 hour 11 minutes.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-33?. 1 hour 50 minutes. 1 hour 36 minutes. 1 hour 46 minutes.

Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-31?. 1 hour 11 minutes. 1 hour 17 minutes. 1 hour 19 minutes.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-5? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 89,900 pounds. 90,000 pounds. 90,100 pounds.

What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-5? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 1.98. 1.95. 1.96.

What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-4? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.06. 2.105. 2.11.

What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-3? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.01. 2.083. 2.04.

What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-1? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.04. 2.01. 2.035.

Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-5?. 78,600 pounds. 77,000 pounds. 76,300 pounds.

Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-4?. 73,200 pounds. 74,190 pounds. 73,500 pounds.

What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.19. 2.18. 2.16.

Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-3?. 80,300 pounds. 85,400 pounds. 77,700 pounds.

Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-2?. 65,200 pounds. 65,800 pounds. 69,600 pounds.

Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-1?. 79,000 pounds. 83,600 pounds. 81,500 pounds.

Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-2?. 36 minutes. 55 minutes. 40 minutes.

Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-5?. 1 hour 3 minutes. 48 minutes. 55 minutes.

Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude .................................................. 2,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ................................................... -15°C Weight ................................................................. 16,000 lb Wind component .................................................. 5 kts HW Ice vanes ............................................................ Extended. 3,750 feet. 4,600 feet. 4,250 feet.

Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude .................................................. 5,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +20°C Weight ................................................................. 15,000 lb Wind component ................................................ 10 kts HW Ice vanes ........................................................... Rectracted. 6,300 feet. 4,700 feet. 4,300 feet.

Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle? Pressure altitude .................................................. 6,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +35°C Weight ................................................................. 14,500 lb Wind component ................................................ 10 kts HW Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 4,150 feet. 4,550 feet. 2,600 feet.

What effective runway lenght is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.

Fig.2 Which condition meets FAR Part 135 operational requirements for a small, transport category, turboprop airplane to land at the destination airport that has the runway environment given in the illustration?. The airport may be listed as the destination airport if the landing distance does not exceed 5,160 feet for Rwy 19. The airport may NOT be listed as the destination airport if the landing distance exceeds 5,100 feet for Rwy 19. The airport may be listed as the destination airport if the landing distance does not exceed 5,350 feet for either runway, wet or dry conditions.

Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used for a non-transport category, turbopropeller-driven airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at the alternate airport?. 5,010 feet. 5,845 feet. 6,020 feet.

Fig. 2 May a small transport category, turboprop airplane that has a computed landing distance of 6,000 feet use either or both runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?. Only Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used under any conditions. Either Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry.

Fig. 2 May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?. Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist. Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry.

Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,160 feet. 5,820 feet. 6,020 feet.

Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,010 feet. 5,820 feet. 5,845 feet.

Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-4?. 35 minutes. 19 minutes. 20 minutes.

Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-3?. 1 hour. 1 hour 15 minutes. 1 hour 24 minutes.

What is the maximum takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions G-3? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). Engines 1 and 3, 2.08; engine 2, 2.05. Engines 1 and 3, 2.14; engine 2, 2.10. Engines 1 and 3, 2.18; engine 2, 2.07.

What is the maximum takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions G-2? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). Engines 1 and 3, 2.15; engine 2, 2.16. Engines 1 and 3, 2.18; engine 2, 2.13. Engines 1 and 3, 2.14; engine 2, 2.11.

What is the maximum takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions G-1? (See Figures 81, 82, and 83). Engines 1 and 3, 2.22; engine 2, 2.16. Engines 1 and 3, 2.22; engine 2, 2.21. Engines 1 and 3, 2.15; engine 2, 2.09.

What are V1 and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions G-4? (See figures 81, 82, and 83). 133 and 145 knots. 127 and 141 knots. 132 and 146 knots.

Fig. 73,74,75 What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?. 124 knots. 137 knots. 130 knots.

Fig. 73,74,75 What is Vref +20 for Operating Conditions L-3?. 151 knots. 169 knots. 149 knots.

Fig. 73,74,75 What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2?. 140 knots. 145 knots. 148 knots.

Fig. 73,74,75 What is Vref for Operating Conditions L-1?. 143 knots. 144 knots. 145 knots.

Fig. 73,75 What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-5?. 2.00 EPR. 2.04 EPR. 2.05 EPR.

What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-4?. 2.056 EPR. 2.12 EPR. 2.096 EPR.

What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2?. 2.115 EPR. 2.10 EPR. 2.06 EPR.

Fig. 73,75 What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1?. 2.01 EPR. 2.03 EPR. 2.04 EPR.

Fig. 73,74,75 What is Vref +10 for Operating Conditions L-4?. 152 knots. 138 knots. 148 knots.

Fig. 93 What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3° glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds?. 136 knots. 132 knots. 139 knots.

Fig.94,95,96 What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Int'l?. 2 hours 12 minutes. 2 hours 15 minutes. 2 hours 18 minutes.

Fig. 93 What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40°, and an airspeed of 118 knots?. 17,000 pounds. 20,800 pounds. 22,300 pounds.

Fig. 94,95,96 What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to the Greater Buffalo Int'l?. 2,224 pounds. 1,987 pounds. 1,454 pounds.

Fig, 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 221 knots and 1.83 EPR. 223 knots and 2.01 EPR. 217 knots and 1.81 EPR.

When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?. Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and sunrise.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and official sunrise. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing.

A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?. The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?. The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. No passengers may be carried.

What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?. Clearway. Stopway. Obstruction clearance plane.

Which is correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?. Vso. Vs. Vs1.

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?. Vs. Vs1. Vso.

Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed?. Vc. Vs. Vma.

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?. Vmu. Vmd. Vfc.

Which is the definition of V2 speed?. Takeoff decision speed. Takeoff safety speed. Minimum takeoff speed.

Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,010 feet. 5,820 feet. 5,845 feet.

Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 (dry) at the destination airport?. 6,020 feet. 5,820 feet. 5,160 feet.

Fig. 1 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport?. 5,460 feet. 5,880 feet. 6,088 feet.

Fig. 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport catergory airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,460 feet. 5,490 feet. 6,210 feet.

Fig. 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,460 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,370 feet.

Fig. 1 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,490 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,405 feet.

Fig. 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (Dry) at the alternate airport?. 5,490 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,405 feet.

Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4?. 4,950 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 5,230 pounds.

For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?. An abrupt change in relative wind. A decrease in angle of attack. Sudden decrease in load factor.

If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?. Vmc. Vyse. Vxse.

What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V1 speed? Pressure altitude .................................................... 3,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ................................................... -10°C Weight ................................................................. 15,000 lb Wind component .................................................. 8 kts TW Ice vanes ............................................................. Extended. 2,200 feet, 105 knots. 2,000 feet, 113 knots. 1,900 feet, 103 knots.

Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Pressure altitude .................................................... 2,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +15°C Weight ................................................................. 16,600 lb Wind component ........................................................ Calm Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 3,400 feet. 3,700 feet. 4,200 feet.

Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V1 speed? Pressure altitude .................................................... 4,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... 0°C Weight ................................................................. 15,500 lb Wind component ................................................ 10 kts TW Ice vanes ............................................................. Extended. 2,900 feet, 106 knots. 4,250 feet, 102 knots. 2,700 feet, 107 knots.

Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Pressure altitude .............................................. Sea Level Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +12°C Weight ................................................................. 16,000 lb Wind component ................................................ 16 kts HW Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 1,750 feet. 2,800 feet. 2,550 feet.

Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude .................................................... 5,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +29°C Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 2,950 foot-pound. 3,100 foot-pound. 3,200 foot-pound.

Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude .................................................... 3,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +43°C Ice vanes ........................................................... Retracted. 3,000 foot-pound. 3,050 foot-pound. 3,110 foot-pound.

Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude .................................................... 7,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................... +9°C Ice vanes ............................................................. Extended. 3,200 foot-pound. 3,160 foot-pound. 3,330 foot-pound.

Fig. 27 - 28 What is the remaining runway length when stopped after landing over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-37?. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,600 feet.

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?. Maintain a constant altitude. Maintain a constant attitude. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

Fig. 94,95,96 What TAS should be maintained to arrive over CRL VORTAC 42 minutes after level-off?. 166 knots. 168 knots. 171 knots.

What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?. Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

Fig.98,100,102 What is the ETE from DFW Int'l to IAH?. 1 hour 2 minutes. 1 hour 4 minutes. 1 hour 6 minutes.

Fig.98-100/102 Determine the TAS required to arrive at CUGAR, 31 minutes after level-off?. 269 knots. 264 knots. 258 knots.

(Refer to Figures 158, 159, 160, 160A, and 161) The required amount of fuel (in pounds) to be on N711JB, prior to taxi, is. 5,993 pounds. 6,408 pounds. 6,641 pounds.

Fig. 119 to 122 What is the total fuel required for the flight from BUF to ORD using .80 Mach?. 19,388 pounds. 22,094 pounds. 21,644 pounds.

Fig. 119 to 122 What is the ETE from BUF to ORD using .80 Mach?. 1 hour 01 minutes. 1 hour 04 minutes. 1 hour 08 minutes.

Fig. 119 to 122 What is the specific range in nautical miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to start of descent using .78 Mach?. 48.8 NAM/1000. 52.5 NAM/1000. 55.9 NAM/1000.

Fig. 119 to 122 What is the ETE from BUF to ORD using .78 Mach?. 1 hour 09 minutes. 1 hour 07 minutes. 1 hour 05 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What is the total fuel required at .82 Mach?. 22,420 pounds. 22,284 pounds. 22,700 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 107, 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What is the ETE at .82 Mach?. 1 hour 05 minutes. 1 hour 07 minutes. 1 hour 03 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What approximate indicated Mach should be maintained to arrive over the BZA VORTAC 6 minutes after passing IPL VORTAC?. .73 Mach. .74 Mach. .715 Mach.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach?. 22,836 pounds. 22,420 pounds. 22,256 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What is the ETE at .80 Mach?. 1 hour 02 minutes. 1 hour 04 minutes. 1 hour 07 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What is the specific range in nautical miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to the ARLIN Intersection using .78 Mach?. 46.1 NAM/1,000 pounds. 48.2 NAM/1,000 pounds. 50.0 NAM/1,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C) What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?. 22,140 pounds. 22,556 pounds. 22,972 pounds.

Fig. 103,104,105,106 Determine the ETE for the flight from Tucson Int'l to Los Angeles Int'l. 2 hours 10 minutes. 2 hours 15 minutes. 2 hours 19 minutes.

Fig. 103,104,105,106 Estimate the total fuel required to be on the aircraft, prior to taxi at Tucson Int'l. 2,223 pounds. 2,327 pounds. 2,447 pounds.

Fig. 98,100,102 Determine the TAS required to arrive at CUGAR, 29 minutes after level-off?. 285 knots. 290 knots. 295 knots.

Fig.98-100/102 What is the total fuel required from DFW Int'l to IAH?. 1,555 pounds. 1,863 pounds. 1,941 pounds.

Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. Low gross weight. High density altitude.

Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?. When wing lift has been reduced. At high groundspeeds. When the wheels are locked and skidding.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff speed. Decreases takeoff distance.

What effect would a change in ambient temperature of air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?. As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?. Compressor discharge. Fuel spray nozzles. Turbine inlet.

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplanning?. No effect on hydroplanning, but increases landing roll. Reduces hydroplanning potential if heavy braking is applied. Increases hydroplanning potential regardless of braking.

Compared to dynamic hydroplanning, at what speed does viscous hydroplanning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplannin occurs. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplanning. At the same speed as dynamic hydroplanning.

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplanning is experienced on landing?. Apply full main wheel braking only. Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplanning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 psi?. 85 knots. 80 knots. 75 knots.

At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplanning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 psi?. 90 knots. 96 knots. 110 knots.

Which term describes the hydroplanning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?. Reverted rubber hydroplanning. Dynamic hydroplanning. Viscous hydroplanning.

Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude .................................................... 7,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. +35°C Ice vanes ............................................................ Retracted. 2,820 foot-pound. 2,880 foot-pound. 2,780 foot-pound.

At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?. A speed less than that for L/Dmax. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax.

At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax. A speed less than that for L/Dmax.

What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?. Increase speed. Maintain speed. Decrease speed.

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?. Maximum range and distance glide. Best angle of climb. Maximum endurance.

Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?. Angle of attack. Altitude. Airspeed.

What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.

Under what condition is Vmc the highest?. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. CG is at the most rearward allowable position. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude .................................................... 9,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................... +3°C Ice vanes ............................................................. Extended. 3,100 foot-pound. 3,040 foot-pound. 3,180 foot-pound.

Fig. 27 - 28 What are the approach speed and ground roll when landing under Operating Conditions B-37?. 108 knots and 1,400 feet. 109 knots and 900 feet. 107 knots and 1,350 feet.

Fig. 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (dry) at the alternate airport?. 5,460 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,370 feet.

Fig. 27 - 28 What is the total runway used when touchdown is at the 1,000 foot marker for Operating Conditions B-38?. 2,000 feet. 1,700 feet. 1,800 feet.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-1?. 4 hours 5 minutes. 4 hours 15 minutes. 4 hours.

What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-5? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.00. 2.04. 1.96.

What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.20. 2.07. 2.06.

What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-3? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.11. 2.02. 1.90.

What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-2? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.10. 1.99. 2.02.

What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1? (See Figures 59 and 60). 1.82. 1.96. 2.04.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-5? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 73,000 pounds. 72,900 pounds. 72,800 pounds.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-4? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 102,900 pounds. 102,600 pounds. 103,100 pounds.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 82,100 pounds. 82,500 pounds. 82,200 pounds.

How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 2,250 pounds. 2,600 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 4,100 pounds. 3,600 pounds. 4,000 pounds.

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-5? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 70 NM. 47 NM. 61 NM.

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-4? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 63 NM. 53 NM. 65 NM.

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-3? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 95 NM. 79 NM. 57 NM.

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 84 NM. 65 NM. 69 NM.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-2?. 5 hours 5 minutes. 6 hours 15 minutes. 5 hours 55 minutes.

What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 145 NM. 137 NM. 134 NM.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-3?. 4 hours 15 minutes. 3 hours 40 minutes. 4 hours.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-5?. 2 hours 55 minutes. 3 hours 10 minutes. 2 hours 50 minutes.

Fig. 27 - 28 What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-38?. 1,850 feet. 1,700 feet. 1,800 feet.

Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?. 5,230 pounds. 5,970 pounds. 5,550 pounds.

Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?. 1 hour 11 minutes. 56 minutes. 62 minutes.

A definition of the term "viscous hydroplanning" is where. the airplane rides on standing water. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.

(Refer to Figures 115, 116, and 117.) Due to traffic, LAX Center radar vectored PTL 130 to TRM, then cleared the flight to PHX via J169 BLH, direct to Arlin Intersection. What approximate indicated MAch should be maintained to arrive over the BLH VORTAC 8 minutes after passing TRM VORTAC?. .84 Mach. .82 Mach. .86 Mach.

Fig. 103 What CAS should be used to maintain the fixed TAS at the proposed altitude?. 157 knots. 167 knots. 172 knots.

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is. V2. V1. Vef.

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at Vef, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol. V2min. V1. Vlof.

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is. V2. Vef. V1.

Fig. 93 What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25°, and an airspeed of 152 knots?. 14,500 pounds. 15,900 pounds. 16,700 pounds.

The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is. limiting compressor speed. limiting exhaust gas temperature. limiting torque.

An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will. increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. decrease due to higher density altitude.

What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

Fig. 86,87 What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-2?. 1,440 pounds, 104 NM. 1,500 pounds, 118 NM. 1,400 pounds, 98 NM.

Fig. 86,87 What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-3?. 1,490 pounds, 118 NM. 1,440 pounds, 110 NM. 1,550 pounds, 127 NM.

Fig. 84,85 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions H-2?. 257 knots and 1.60 EPR. 258 knots and 1.66 EPR. 253 knots and 1.57 EPR.

Fig. 86,87 What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1?. 24 minutes, 118 NM. 26 minutes, 125 NM. 25 minutes, 118 NM.

Fig. 86,87 What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5?. 1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. 1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. 1,390 pounds, 92 NAM.

Fig. 86,87 What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-4?. 22 minutes, 110 NM. 21 minutes, 113 NM. 24 minutes, 129 NM.

Fig. 84,85 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-5?. 3,170 pounds. 7,380 pounds. 5,540 pounds.

Fig. 84,85 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions H-3?. 226 knots and 1.30 EPR. 230 knots and 1.31 EPR. 234 knots and 1.32 EPR.

Fig. 84,85 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-3?. 3,090 pounds. 6,950 pounds. 6,680 pounds.

How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.

Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?. Increase speed for a headwind. Increase speed for a tailwind. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?. Increasing speed or altitude. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.

Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increased headwind component.

How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. Immediately after ground contact. Immediately prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking.

What is controlled by the waste gas of a turbo-charged reciprocating engine?. Supercharger gear ratio. Exhaust gas discharge. Throttle opening.

Fig. 93 What is the thrust required to maintain a 3° glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30°, and an airspeed of Vref +20 knots?. 9,800 pounds. 11,200 pounds. 17,000 pounds.

Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine?. The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.

Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turbo-prop engine is a measure of. turbine inlet temperature. shaft horsepower and jet thrust. propeller thrust only.

What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?. High RPM and low MAP. Low RPM and high MAP. High RPM and high MAP.

What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?. Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack.

Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?. Intermittent "backfire" stall. Transient "backfire" stall. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud "bang" and low reversal. Completes loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversals take place.

FIG. 84,85 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-2?. 5,100 pounds. 3,400 pounds. 5,250 pounds.

Fig. 84,85 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-1?. 3,500 pounds. 4,680 pounds. 2,630 pounds.

Fig. 84,85 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions H-5?. 245 knots andn 1.65 EPR. 237 knots andn 1.61 EPR. 249 knots andn 1.67 EPR.

Fig. 84,85 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions H-4?. 219 knots and 1.44 EPR. 216 knots and 1.42 EPR. 220 knots and 1.63 EPR.

Fig. 88,89 Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds?. Dry runway using brakes and reversers. Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers.

Fig. 84,85 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-4?. 3,190 pounds. 3,050 pounds. 2,550 pounds.

Fig. 88 How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?. 1,150 feet. 500 feet. 300 feet.

Fig. 92 What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25°, and an airspeed of 172 knots?. 13,700 pounds. 18,600 pounds. 22,000 pounds.

Figure 88 What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?. 117,500 pounds. 136,500 pounds. 139,500 pounds.

Fig. 92 What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 25°, and an airspeed of 145 knots?. 16,500 pounds. 18,100 pounds. 18,500 pounds.

Fig. 92 What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 25°, and an airspeed of 162 knots?. 17,400 pounds. 19,500 pounds. 22,200 pounds.

Fig. 84,85 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions H-1?. 264 knots and 1.80 EPR. 259 knots and 1.73 EPR. 261 knots and 1.81 EPR.

Fig.92 What is the thrust required to maintain a 3° glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30°, and an airspeed of Vref +30 knots?. 13,300 pounds. 16,200 pounds. 17,700 pounds.

Fig. 92 What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3° glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds?. 127 knots. 149 knots. 156 knots.

Fig. 91,92 What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15° of flaps?. 123 knots and 3,050 feet. 138 knots and 3,050 feet. 153 knots and 2,050 feet.

Fig. 91 How much more runway will be used to land with 0° flaps rather than 15° of flaps at a landing weight of 126,000 pounds?. 900 feet. 1,800 feet. 2,700 feet.

Figure 88 How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight?. 4,200 feet. 4,500 feet. 4,750 feet.

Fig. 91,92 What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used?. 138 knots and 3,900 feet. 153 knots and 2,900 feet. 183 knots and 2,900 feet.

Fig. 91 How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15° of flaps rather than 0° flaps at a landing weight of 119,000 pounds?. 500 feet. 800 feet. 2,700 feet.

Fig. 90 What is the landing distance on an icy runway with reversers inoperative at a landing weight of 125,000 pounds?. 4,500 feet. 4,750 feet. 5,800 feet.

Fig. 90 What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway?. 124,000 pounds. 137,000 pounds. 108,000 pounds.

Fig. 90 What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?. 400 feet. 950 feet. 1,350 feet.

Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-4?. 48.3 minutes. 50.7 minutes. 51.3 minutes.

Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?. 10,270 pounds. 9,660 pounds. 10,165 pounds.

Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2?. 1 hour 35 minutes. 1 hour 52 minutes. 1 hour 46 minutes.

Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1?. 58.1 minutes. 51.9 minutes. 54.7 minutes.

Fig. 63,64 What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-4?. 76.8 percent. 75.4 percent. 74.0 percent.

What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-3?. 77.8 percent. 82.6 percent. 84.2 percent.

Fig. 63,64 What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-2?. 78.2 percent. 75.2 percent. 76.7 percent.

Fig. 63,64 What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-1?. 82.4 percent. 84.0 percent. 84.8 percent.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-5?. 15,000 pounds. 20,000 pounds. 19,000 pounds.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-4?. 33,000 pounds. 31,500 pounds. 34,000 pounds.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-3?. 36,000 pounds. 34,500 pounds. 33,000 pounds.

Fig.61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-2?. 33,000 pounds. 28,000 pounds. 35,000 pounds.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-4?. 6 hours 50 minutes. 5 hours 45 minutes. 5 hours 30 minutes.

What are rotation and V2 bug speeds for Operating Conditions R-5? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 138 and 143 knots. 136 and 138 knots. 134 and 141 knots.

Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1?. 25,000 pounds. 26,000 pounds. 24,000 pounds.

What are V1, Vr, and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions R-3? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 143, 143, and 147 knots. 138, 138, and 142 knots. 136, 138, and 143 knots.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-2? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 82,775 pounds. 83,650 pounds. 83,800 pounds.

Fig. 48 - 49 - 50 What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-1?. 81,600 pounds. 81,400 pounds. 81,550 pounds.

Fig. 48 - 49 - 50 What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-5?. 68.0 NM. 73.9 NM. 66.4 NM.

Fig. 48 - 49 - 50 What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-4?. 58.4 NM. 61.4 NM. 60.3 NM.

Fig. 48 - 49 - 50 What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-3?. 86.4 NM. 84.2 NM. 85.1 NM.

Fig. 48 - 49 - 50 What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-2?. 85.8 NM. 87.8 NM. 79.4 NM.

Fig. 45 - 46 - 47 What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-5?. V1 110.4 knots; Vr 110.9 knots. V1 109.6 knots; Vr 112.7 knots. V1 106.4 knots; Vr 106.4 knots.

Fig. 45 - 46 - 47 What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-4?. V1 128.0 knots; Vr 130.5 knots. V1 129.9 knots; Vr 133.4 knots. V1 128.6 knots; Vr 131.1 knots.

Fig. 45 - 46 - 47 What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-3?. V1 136.8 knots; Vr 141.8 knots. V1 134.8 knots; Vr 139.0 knots. V1 133.5 knots; Vr 141.0 knots.

Fig. 45 - 46 - 47 What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-2?. V1 129.7 knots; Vr 134.0 knots. V1 127.2 knots; Vr 133.2 knots. V1 127.4 knots; Vr 133.6 knots.

Fig. 45 - 46 - 47 What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-1?. V1 123.1 knots; Vr 125.2 knots. V1 120.5 knots; Vr 123.5 knots. V1 122.3 knots; Vr 124.1 knots.

Fig. 27 - 28 What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-40?. 1,500 feet. 1,750 feet. 1,650 feet.

Fig. 27 - 28 What are the approach speed and ground roll when landing under Operating Conditions B-39?. 111 knots and 1,550 feet. 110 knots and 1,400 feet. 109 knots and 1,300 feet.

What are critical engine failure and takeoff safety speeds for Operating Conditions R-4? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 131 and 133 knots. 123 and 134 knots. 122 and 130 knots.

Fig. 27 - 28 What is the remaining runway length when stopped after landing over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-39?. 2,300 feet. 2,400 feet. 2,500 feet.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-3? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 75,750 pounds. 75,900 pounds. 76,100 pounds.

What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-4? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 86,150 pounds. 86,260 pounds. 86,450 pounds.

Fig. 48 - 49 - 50 What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-1?. 104.0 NM. 99.2 NM. 109.7 NM.

Fig. 51 - 52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-1?. 30 minutes. 44 minutes. 29 minutes.

What is the rotation speed for Operating Conditions R-2? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 147 knots. 152 knots. 146 knots.

What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions R-1? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 128 knots. 121 knots. 133 knots.

Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turbo-prop engine is normally available in which altitude range?. 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. 25,000 feet to the tropopause. The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

Fig.66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-5?. 6,250 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 7,120 pounds.

Fig. 119 to 122 What is the total fuel required for the flight from BUF to ORD using .78 Mach?. 19,033 pounds. 21,739 pounds. 22,189 pounds.

Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-3?. 12,300 pounds. 11,300 pounds. 13,900 pounds.

Fig. 19 - 20 At what altitude is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-28?. 1,500 feet above the MEA. 10,400 feet. 11,800 feet.

Fig. 19 - 20 Which statement is true regarding performance with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-27?. Cimb rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min. Service ceiling is below the MEA. Bleed air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000 feet.

Fig. 19 - 20 At what altitude is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-26?. 13,000 feet. 14,200 feet. 13,600 feet.

Fig. 15 - 18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-25?. 11.5 minutes; 170 pounds; 31 NM. 8.0 minutes; 270 pounds; 28 NM. 12.5 minutes; 195 pounds; 38 NM.

Fig. 15 - 18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-24?. 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM. 9.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM. 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM.

Fig. 15 - 18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-23?. 13.0 minutes; 180 pounds; 35 NM. 14.0 minutes; 210 pounds; 40 NM. 15.0 minutes; 240 pounds; 46 NM.

Fig. 15 - 18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-22?. 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 40 NM. 11.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 37 NM. 10.5 minutes; 175 pounds; 32 NM.

What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 3?. 29.2 percent MAC. 33.0 percent MAC. 28.6 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit is exceeded under Operating Conditions BE-11?. ZFW limit is exceeded. Aft CG limit is exceeded at takeoff weight. Aft CG limit is exceeded at landing weight.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the cargo in section G is moved to section J under Loading Conditions BE-10?. 2.7 inches aft. 2.4 inches aft. 3.2 inches aft.

(Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit, if any, is exceeded under Operating Conditions BE-13?. Takeoff forward CG limit is exceeded. No limit is exceeded. Landing aft CG limit is exceeded.

(Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit(s) is(are) exceeded under Operating Conditions BE-12?. ZFW limit is exceeded. Landing aft CG limit is exceeded. ZFW and maximum takeoff weight limits are exceeded.

(Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit(s) is(are) exceeded under Operating Conditions BE-14?. Maximum ZFW limit is exceeded. Takeoff forward CG limit is exceeded. Maximum landing weight and landing forward CG limits are exceeded.

(Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit(s) is(are) exceeded under Operating Conditions BE-15?. Maximum takeoff weight limit is exceeded. Maximum ZFW and takeoff forward CG limits are exceeded. Maximum takeoff weight and takeoff forward CG limits are exceeded.

What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1?. 15.2 percent MAC. 29.8 percent MAC. 30.0 percent MAC.

What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT 10? (See figures 77, 79, and 80). 27.0 percent MAC. 27.8 percent MAC. 28.0 percent MAC.

What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT 11? (See figures 78, 79, and 80). 26.8 percent MAC. 27.5 percent MAC. 28.6 percent MAC.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions G-1? (See figures 81 and 83). 4 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 4-3/4 ANU.

Ref. Fig. 78,79,80 What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT 13?. 28.6 percent MAC. 29.4 percent MAC. 30.1 percent MAC.

Ref. Fig. 78,79,80 What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT 15?. 32.8 percent MAC. 31.5 percent MAC. 29.5 percent MAC.

Ref. Fig. 78,79,80 What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT 14?. 30.1 percent MAC. 29.5 percent MAC. 31.5 percent MAC.

What is the gross weight index for Loading Conditions WT-9? (See figures 77, 79, and 80). 169,755.2 index. 158,797.9 index. 186,565.5 index.

Ref.Fig. 78,79,80 What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT 12?. 25.8 percent MAC. 26.3 percent MAC. 27.5 percent MAC.

What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT8? (See figures 77, 79, and 80). 29.4 percent MAC. 30.0 percent MAC. 31.3 percent MAC.

What is the gross weight index for Loading Conditions WT-6? (See figures 77, 79, and 80). 181,340.5 index. 156,545.0 index. 165,991.5 index.

What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT5? (See figures 76, 79, and 80). 25.6 percent MAC. 26.7 percent MAC. 27.2 percent MAC.

What is the CG in inches of datum for Loading Conditions WT-4? (See figures 76, 79, and 80). 908.4 inches. 909.0 inches. 909.5 inches.

What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT3? (See figures 76, 79, and 80). 27.8 percent MAC. 28.9 percent MAC. 29.1 percent MAC.

What is the CG in inches of datum for Loading Conditions WT-2? (See figures 76, 79, and 80). 908.8 inches. 909.6 inches. 910.7 inches.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5? (See figures 53 and 55). 6-3/4 ANU. 8 ANU. 7-1/2 ANU.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-4? (See figures 53 and 55). 4-1/4 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 5 ANU.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions G-2? (See figures 81 and 83). 6-1/2 ANU. 7-1/4 ANU. 5-3/4 ANU.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-3? (See figures 53 and 55). 3 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 5 ANU.

What is the CG in percent of MAC for Loading Conditions WT7? (See figures 77, 79, and 80). 21.6 percent MAC. 22.9 percent MAC. 24.0 percent MAC.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions G-3? (See figures 81 and 83). 3-3/4 ANU. 4 ANU. 4-1/4 ANU.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 39 X 37 inches Pallet weight - 37 lbs. Tiedown devices - 21 lbs Cargo weight - 1,094.3 lbs. 115 lbs/sq ft. 112 lbs/sq ft. 109 lbs/sq ft.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions G-5? (See figures 81 and 83). 3-1/4 ANU. 2-3/4 ANU. 2-1/2 ANU.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-2? (See figures 53 and 55). 5-3/4 ANU. 7 ANU. 6-3/4 ANU.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 78.9 X 98.7 inches Pallet weight - 161 lbs. Tiedown devices - 54 lbs. Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lbs. 180 lbs/sq ft. 186 lbs/sq ft. 183 lbs/sq ft.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 116.8 X 87.7 inches Pallet weight - 137 lbs. Tiedown devices - 49 lbs. Cargo weight - 12,262.4 lbs. 172 lbs/sq ft. 176 lbs/sq ft. 179 lbs/sq ft.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 48.5 X 33.5 inches Pallet weight - 44 lbs. Tiedown devices - 27 lbs. Cargo weight - 786.5 lbs. 79 lbs/sq ft. 76 lbs/sq ft. 73 lbs/sq ft.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 37.5 X 35 inches Pallet weight - 34 lbs. Tiedown devices - 23 lbs. Cargo weight - 1,255.4 lbs. 152 lbs/sq ft. 148 lbs/sq ft. 144 lbs/sq ft.

What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet size is 78.9 wide and 98.7 long Pallet weight - 161 lb Tiedown devices - 54 lb Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lb. 185 lbs/sq ft. 179 lbs/sq ft. 183 lbs/sq ft.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 98.7 X 78.9 inches? Floor load limit - 183 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 161 lb Tiedown devices - 54 lb. 9,896.5 pounds. 9,735.5 pounds. 9,681.5 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 87.7 X 116.8 inches? Floor load limit - 175 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 137 lb Tiedown devices - 49 lb. 12,262.4 pounds. 12,448.4 pounds. 12,311.4 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 96.1 X 133.3 inches? Floor load limit - 249 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 347 lb Tiedown devices - 134 lb. 21,669.8 pounds. 21,803.8 pounds. 22,120.8 pounds.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions G-4? (See figures 81 and 83). 2-3/4 ANU. 4 ANU. 2-1/2 ANU.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 138.5 X 97.6 inches? Floor load limit - 235 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 219 lb Tiedown devices - 71 lb. 21,840.9 pounds. 21,769.9 pounds. 22,059.9 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 X 68.7 inches? Floor load limit - 79 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown devices - 27 lb. 884.1 pounds. 857.1 pounds. 841.1 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6 X 48.7 inches? Floor load limit - 117 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown devices - 31 lb. 1,611.6 pounds. 1,654.6 pounds. 1,601.6 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 107 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 37 lb Tiedown devices - 33 lb. 1,295.3 pounds. 1,212.3 pounds. 1,245.3 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 66 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 34 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 744.6 pounds. 681.6 pounds. 663.0 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 34.6 X 46.4 inches? Floor load limit - 88 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 41 lb Tiedown devices - 26 lb. 914.1 pounds. 940.1 pounds. 981.1 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 X 68.7 inches? Floor load limit - 85 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 924.5 pounds. 968.6 pounds. 953.6 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6 X 48.7 inches? Floor load limit - 121 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 47 lb Tiedown devices - 33 lb. 1,710.2 pounds. 1,663.2 pounds. 1,696.2 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 112 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 45 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 1,331.8 pounds. 1,302.8 pounds. 1,347.8 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 76 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown devices - 27 lb. 857.4 pounds. 830.4 pounds. 786.5 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 143 X 125.2 inches? Floor load limit - 209 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 197 lb Tiedown devices - 66 lb. 25,984.9 pounds. 25,787.9 pounds. 25,721.9 pounds.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-1? (See figures 53 and 55). 8 ANU. 7-5/8 ANU. 7-3/4 ANU.

Where is the new CG if the weight is added to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 2?. +17.06 index arm. +14.82 index arm. +12.13 index arm.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-4? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). 26 percent MAC. 22 percent MAC. 18 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-9?. Station 296.7. Station 297.1. Station 301.2.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-8?. Station 297.4. Station 298.1. Station 302.0.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-7?. Station 296.0. Station 297.8. Station 299.9.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-6?. Station 300.5. Station 296.5. Station 300.8.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row 8 are moved to row 2, and the passengers in row 7 are moved to row 1 under Loading Conditions BE-5?. 1.0 inches forward. 8.9 inches forward. 6.5 inches forward.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if all passengers in rows 2 and 4 are deplanned under Loading Conditions BE-4?. 2.5 inches aft. 2.5 inches forward. 2.0 inches aft.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if four passengers weighing 170 pounds each are added; two to seats in row 6 and two to seats in row 7 under Loading Conditions BE-3?. 3.5 inches aft. 2.2 inches forward. 1.8 inches aft.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to row 8, and the passengers in row 2 are moved to row 9 under Loading Conditions BE-2?. 9.2 inches aft. 5.7 inches aft. 7.8 inches aft.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to seats in row 9 under Loading Conditions BE-1?. 1.5 inches aft. 5.6 inches aft. 6.2 inches aft.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-5?. Station 288.9. Station 290.5. Station 288.1.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-4?. Station 297.4. Station 299.6. Station 297.7.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-2?. Station 295.2. Station 292.9. Station 293.0.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-1?. Station 290.3. Station 285.8. Station 291.8.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 81 X 83 inches? Floor load limit ................................................. 180 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight ............................................................. 82 lbs Tiedown devices ....................................................... 31 lbs. 8,403.7 pounds. 8,321.8 pounds. 8,290.8 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 76 X 74 inches? Floor load limit ................................................. 176 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight ........................................................... 77 lbs Tiedown devices ....................................................... 29 lbs. 6,767.8 pounds. 6,873.7 pounds. 6,796.8 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36 X 48 inches? Floor load limit ................................................. 169 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight ............................................................. 47 lbs Tiedown devices ....................................................... 33 lbs. 1,948.0 pounds. 1,995.0 pounds. 1,981.0 pounds.

What are the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used under RAP 135?. The empty weight and CG of multiengine and single-engine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months. The empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 24 calendar months unless the original Airworthiness Certificate was issued within the previous 36 calendar months. The empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.

The weight and CG of an aircraft used in air taxi service must have been calculated from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of time?. Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months. Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months. Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24 calendar months.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-5? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). 26 percent MAC. 30 percent MAC. 32 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-10?. Station 298.4. Station 298.1. Station 293.9.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if 300 pounds of cargo in section A is moved to section H under Loading Conditions BE-6?. 4.1 inches aft. 3.5 inches aft. 4.0 inches aft.

(Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-3?. Station 288.2. Station 285.8. Station 290.4.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG if all cargo in sections A, B, J, K, and L are off-loaded under Loading Conditions BE-8?. Station 292.7. Station 297.0. Station 294.6.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-3? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). 18 percent MAC. 20 percent MAC. 22 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the cargo in section F is moved to section A, and 200 pounds of the cargo in section G is added to the cargo in section B, under Loading Conditions BE-7?. 7.5 inches forward. 8.0 inches forward. 8.2 inches forward.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-2? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). 26 percent MAC. 20 percent MAC. 22 percent MAC.

What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-1? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). 29 percent MAC. 32 percent MAC. 36 percent MAC.

What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 5?. 31.9 percent MAC. 19.1 percent MAC. 35.2 percent MAC.

Fig. 44 What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1?. 27.1 percent MAC. 26.8 percent MAC. 30.0 percent MAC.

Fig. 44 Where is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 5?. +19.15 index arm. +13.93 index arm. -97.92 index arm.

Fig. 44 What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 4?. 37.0 percent MAC. 23.5 percent MAC. 24.1 percent MAC.

Where is the new CG if the weight is removed from the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 4?. +15.53 index arm. +8.50 index arm. -93.51 index arm.

What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 2?. 26.1 percent MAC. 20.5 percent MAC. 22.8 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG if cargo is loaded to bring sections F, G, and H to maximum capacity under Loading Conditions BE-9?. Station 307.5. Station 305.4. Station 303.5.

An alternate airport for departure is required. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport. for a period 1 hours before or after the ETA. during the entire flight. when the flight arrives.

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are. those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive. those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives. those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight.

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Direct only. Parallel only.

Refer Figure 122 What would be the DME reading at the lowest altitude at which the glide slope may be intercepted when authorized by ATC?. 12.4 miles. 9.4 miles. 7.7 miles.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for circle 3 (top of Class A airspace)? (See figure 127). FL 600. FL 450. FL 500.

Fig. 127 Which distance is appropriate for circle 7 (Class D airspace)? (See figure 127). 5 nautical miles, bu the distance and shape can vary. 4.4 statute miles, but the distance and shape can vary. 4.4 nautical miles, but the distance and shape can vary.

Fig. 127 What is the base of the Class A airspace? (See figure 127). 12,000 feet AGL. 14,500 feet MSL. FL 180.

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?. Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

Fig. 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 3 area?. 2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet;(H) 500 feet.

Fig. 128 A flight is to be conducted in VFR conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operations during daylight hours for the circle 1 area?. 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet. 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 1,000 feet.

Fig. 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 2 area?. 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet. 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain "VFR on Top"?. Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

Refer Fig. 112 At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME RWY 32R approach at IAH , if still IMC?. Anytime after the FAF. IAH 1.3 DME. IAH 1 DME.

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SID's, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain "VFR on Top"?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing. Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearence. Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request.

How should a pilot describe braking action?. 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Fig. 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in the circle 6 area?. 3 miles; (I) 1,000 feet; (K) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds. 1 mile; (I) 500 feet; (K) 1,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.

Fig. 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in the circle 5 area?. 1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet. 3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) 500 feet. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for circle 2 (top of Class C airspace)? (See figure 127). 3,000 feet AGL. 4,000 feet AGL. 3,500 feet AGL.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for circle 1 (top of Class E airspace)? (See figure 127). 14,000 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL. 18,000 feet MSL.

Fig. 128 What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in VFR conditions during daylight hours for the circle 4 area?. 1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1 mile; (H) 1,000 feet.

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s?. Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning. Airport or primary runway closings, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages. Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI.

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

NOTAM (L)s are used to disseminate what type of information?. Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. Taxi closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approaches criteria, and airport rotating beacon outages. Time critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in normally published charts.

In what airspace will ATC not authorize "VFR on Top"?. Class C airspace. Class B airspace. Class A airspace.

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for circle 5 (top of Class D airspace)? (See figure 127). 1,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. 3,000 feet AGL.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top of Class G airspace)? (See figure 127). 500 feet AGL. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

Fig. 124 A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel or teardrop. Parallel only. Direct only.

Fig. 124 A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct only.

Fig. 126 What is the normal radius from the airport of the outer area, B? (See figure 126). 10 miles. 20 miles. 25 miles.

Fig. 126 What is the radius from the airport of the inner circle, C? (See figure 126). 5 miles. 7 miles. 10 miles.

Fig. 126 What is the radius from the airport of the outer circle, A? (See figure 126). 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.

Fig. 124 A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct.

Fig. 126 Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer circles? (See figure 126). 3,000 feet AGL. 3,000 feet above airport. 4,000 feet above airport.

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established. Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area. Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?. No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and TSO-C74b transponder.

Fig. 126 Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle? (See figure 126). 700 feet AGL. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?. 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearence?. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. When an IFR clearence is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by CORPAC Flight Planning. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

A minimun instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearence of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas. Minimum Obstruction Clearence Altitude (MOCA). Off-Route Obstruction Clearence Altitude (OROCA). Minimun Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by. stating "Have numbers". stating "Have Weather". repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?. The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activate the VFR portion.

Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?. All compulsory reporting points en route. The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight. The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

When does ATC issue a STAR?. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-enginepowered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?. 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing prority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport.

At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?. 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-enginepowered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?. 230 knots. 250 knots. 275 knots.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?. 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.

What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?. 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airports should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

An ATC "instruction". is the same as an ATC "clearance.". is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized. must be "read back" in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?. 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM.

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when celared for an ILS approach? The pilot. may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized "VFR on Top?. The same afforded all IFR flights. 3 miles horizontally instead of 5. Traffic advisories only.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?. 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?. 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT", the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?. 1 SM. 1/2 SM. 300 feet and 1/2 SM.

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. entering controlled airspace. entering IFR weather conditions.

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be inititiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM. 3/8 SM.

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?. Two-way communications. Two-way communications and transponder. Transponder and DME.

What is the minimun flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR -on Top clearence during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

Refer Figure 112 How should the pilot identify the MAP on the IAH VOR/DME RWY 32R?. After time has elapsed from FAF. IAH 1.3 DME. IAH 1 DME.

Refer figure 122 What is the lowest altitude at which the glide slope may be intercepted when authorized by ATC?. 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet. 4,000 feet.

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

Refer Figure 112 When is the earliest time the pilot may initiate a descent from 460 feet MSL to land at IAH?. Anytime after GALES INT if the runway enviroment is visible. Only after the IAH 1.3 DME if the runway environment is visible. Only after the IAH 1 DME if the runway environment is visible.

Maximum holding speed for a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is: 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 200 knots.

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?. 3° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whicheever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less.

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

Refer Figure 100-101 What is the magnetic variation at both DFW Intl. and IAH?. 08 E. 0. 08 W.

Refer figure 99-101 Which frecuency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?. 117.0 MHz. 134.9 MHz. 135.5 MHz.

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight"?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised immediately?. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the. aircraft dispatcher. flight navigator. pilot in command.

When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for operations, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?. List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use. List at least one additional alternate airport.

How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. Indication will drop to zero. Indication will rise to the top of the scale. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

Fig. 139 Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI?. 174. 166. 335.

Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on. 122.1 MHz. 122.0 MHz. 123.6 MHz.

Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?. 6. 7. 12.

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. 60 days. 90 days. 30 días.

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A test signal, "TESTING", is sent every 30 seconds. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag would appear. The identifier would be removed.

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. 4° on the ground and in flight. 6° on the ground and in flight. 6° and in flight and 4° on the ground.

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. Coded identification T-E-S-T. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag might appear. An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?. Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. Date, place, bearing error, and signature.

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. 0 DME miles. 2 DME miles. 2.3 DME miles.

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months. ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.

Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?. 9. 13. 19.

What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude. Severe weather information, changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. High altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the DGTA if requested. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. plus or minus 6°. plus 6° or minus 4°. plus or minus 4°.

When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. corrections for static pressure systems. corrections for instrument error.

During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and substracted from all VOR courses. be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/FROM should read TO.

Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,800 feet.

Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. VOR/DME FIX. Surveillance radar. Compass locator.

During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. Increase in indicated airspeed. Decrease in indicated airspeed. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent record.

Fig. 139 What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No.2 NAV?. 1°. 2°. 4°.

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. Whataction is required?. Descend below Class A airspace. Advise dispatch via company frequency. Notify ATC immediately.

Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?. 1. 8. 11.

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. Advise ATC immediately. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?. 4. 15. 17.

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. Notify ATC immediately. Squawk 7600. Monitor the VOR receiver.

Fig. 139 Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 166. 346. 354.

A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or equipment which. are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. may be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?. 9 and 6. 9 only. 6 only.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?. 11. 5 and 13. 7 and 11.

If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?. Lower than pressure altitude. Higher than pressure altitude. Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.

How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. SDF - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?. RCLS and REIL. Radar and RVR. TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

What functions are provided by ILS?. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "C" correspond?. 9. 4. 12.

Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?. 5. 6. 15.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?. 1. 10. 2.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?. 4. 11. 5.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond?. 7 only. 7 and 11. 5 and 13.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?. 8. 1. 2.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?. 4. 12. 11.

Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?. 8 only. 8 and 3. 3 only.

Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,000 feet.

Fig. 125 What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?. 285°. 055°. 235°.

Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 1,500 feet.

Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?. All turbine powered airplanes. Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. Large turbine-powered airplanes only.

Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?. The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?. VOR. VOR and ILS. VOR and DME.

Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the. Airplane Flight Manual. International Flight Information Manual. Air carrier´s Operations Specifications.

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. International Flight Information Manual. Airplane Flight Manual.

An air carrier that elects to use an Inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?. The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.

Fig. 125 Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235° FROM the station? (Wind 050° at 20 knots.). 2. 3. 4.

Fig. 125 Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?. 1. 2. 3.

Fig. 125 Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and heading away from the station?. 1. 2. 3.

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. Airborne radar. DME.

An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be. conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo". conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.

If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only. when able to climb and descend VFR and manintain VFR/OT en route. in VFR conditions. in day VFR conditions.

When instructed by ATC to "Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.)," the pilot should stop. with the nose gear on the hold line. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a fullscale deflection?. When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.

Fig. 135 - 138 Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?. 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. 430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background.

If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to. proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. 585 feet. 1,300 feet. Sea level.

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?. ARINC. Any FSS. Appropriate dispatch office.

Information recorded during normal operations of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

Which rule applies to the use of cockpit voice recorder erasure fetaure?. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. All recorded information may be erased, unless the DGAC needs to be notified of an occurrence.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. Lights are closer together and easily distniguished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

What facilities may be subsituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. ASR and PAR. The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

Fig. 136 - 138 Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?. 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

TCAS I provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum?. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. RVR 1,000 feet. RVR 700 feet.

TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

Fig. 137 - 138 Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?. 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope. 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope. 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. After passing the visual descent point (VDP). When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.

Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots.

Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

Fig. 139 What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV?. 5.0 NM. 7.5 NM. 10.0 NM.

Fig. 156 This sign, which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot, indicates. a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower. a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway. the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

Fig. 157 This is an example of: an ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign. a Runway Boundary Sign. an ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign.

If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?. A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light. A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.

Fig. 112 While arcing left on the IAH 10 DME Arc, the pilot experiences a left crosswind component. Where should the bearing pointer be referenced relative to the 90° (wingtip) position to maintain the 10 DME range?. On the left wingtip reference. Behind the left wingtip reference. Ahead of the left wingtip reference.

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,. a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?. VOR. ADF. VOR and DME.

When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required. For flights at or above FL 180.

When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies?. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land. The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

A cockpit voice recorder must be operated. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone. Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the exit. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centreline of the runway to a point on the exit.

Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "low" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night?. 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.

What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.

Fig. 129 What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 500 feet. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

How may a pilot determine if a LORAN-C receiver is authorized for IFR operations?. Consult the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement. A placard stating, "LORAN-C APPROVED FOR IFR EN ROUTE, TERMINAL AND APPROACH SEGMENTS.". An airframe logbook entry that the LORAN-C receiver has been checked within the previous 30-calendar days.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.

Fig. 139 On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No.1 NAV?. R-175. R-165. R-345.

Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of an intersecting taxiway only. of some designated point on the runway. only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

What documents the authorized operational level of LORAN-C?. A placard stating "KIRAB-C APPROVED FOR IFR.". The Airplane Flight Manual Supplement or DGAC Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration. An entry in the aircraft maintenance logbook giving place, date, and signature of authorizing official.

A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: must be adhered to. does not preclude a rejected landing. precludes a rejected landing.

LORAN-C is based upon measurements of the difference in time arrival of pulses generated by what type radio stations?. A group of stations operating on the 108-115 MHz frequency band. Two stations operating on the 90-110 MHz frequency band. A chain of stations operating on the 90-110 kHz frequency band.

Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 3,000 feet. 3,500 feet.

Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet.

Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?. High - white, on glidepath - red and white; low - red. High - white, on glidepath - green; low - red. High - white and green, on glidepath - green; low - red.

In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: the published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. the published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. the landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LASHO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

The airport markings, signage and lighting associated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) consists of: yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and in-pavement lights. red and white signage, yellow hold-short markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights. red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and yellow hold-short markings.

Which class of NOTAM gives the latest information on LORAN-C chain or station outages?. NOTAM (L)'s under the identifier "LORAN-C.". NOTAM (D)'s under the identifier "LRN.". Class II NOTAM's published every 14 days.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request ATC clearance for the deviation. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. Radar and RVR. RCLS and REIL. HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

When is DME required for an instrument flight?. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. In terminal radar service areas. Above 12,500 feet MSL.

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certifcate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. They are both the same, 31,000 feet. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.

Fig. 139 Which OBS selection on the No.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 175. 165. 345.

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?. 10. 14. 16.

What does the tri-color VASI consist of?. Three light bars; red, green, and amber. One light projector with three colors; red, green, and amber. Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.

What does the pulsating VASI consist of?. Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.

What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. Pilots have a choice of glide angles. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. a hard landing. increased landing rollout. landing short of the runway threshold.

The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by. high performance aircraft. helicopters. high cockpit aircraft.

What is the purpose of REIL?. Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. High - pulsing white, on glidepath - green, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on glidepath - steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on course and on glidepath - steady white, off course but on glidepath - pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red.

What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?. In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jestream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as. convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence.

What is likely location of clear air turbulence?. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.

Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?. A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause. Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.

Where are jetstreams normally located?. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere. At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break.

Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10 °C. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.

Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?. Clear ice. Frost ice. Rime ice.

Which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.

The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in nonprecipitation conditions is to. raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point. increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).

The VV001 in the following METAR indicates METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $. an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet. a 100 foot indefinite ceiling. the variability value is 100 feet.

Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?. Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall linde thuunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.

When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?. After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight.

Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?. Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity. Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface. Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.

Fig. 144 How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?. Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

What is a characteristic of the troposphere?. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.

What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.

What characterizes a ground-based inversion?. Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility.

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?. A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.

Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?. Arctic only. Arctic and subtropical. Subtropical only.

What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steadystate thunderstorm?. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?. Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind.

What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. Descending to the surface and then outward. Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.

Where is the usual location of a thermal low?. Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that. a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing. a layer of warmer air exists above. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.

When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least. 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed. 2,500 feet. 500 feet above any moderate to a severe turbulence layer.

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.

Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?. Moist, stable air behind moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.

How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?. By convective mixing in cool night air. By wind or the movement of air. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Absence of wind and turbulence. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mamma. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates. the absence of clouds in the area. an area of no convective turbulence. an area where precipitation drops are not detected.

What is the single source reference that contains information regarding volcanic eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific region?. Weather Depiction Chart. In flight weather advisories. Area forecast.

Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets.

What type weather change is to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported?. The frontal weather is becoming stronger. The front is dissipating. The front is moving at a faster speed.

Which atmospheric factor cause rapid movement of surface fronts?. Upper winds blowing across the front. Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.

In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?. Warm fronts or occluded fronts. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. Cold front occlusions.

What weather difference is found on each side of a "dry line"?. Extreme temperature difference. Dewpoint difference. Stratus versus cumulus clouds.

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?. Establish a course across the trough. Climb or descend to a smoother level. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.

In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwindwhen descending on the glide slope?. Less power is required. Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.

Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?. Squall line. Advective fog. Frontogenesis.

Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?. Low-Level Prog Chart. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001. SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC. What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?. The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed. Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour. Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.

Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus.

Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids. need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades. can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. could cause FDP vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and. increased thrust. a decreased stall speed. an increased stall speed.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can. reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent.

What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?. could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. It can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is. 18 knots or less. greater than 18 knots. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can. reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is. 50 knots greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 55 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.

A squall line is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of. 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 2 minutes. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as. VRB00KT. 00000KT. 00003KT.

In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as. 00003KT. VRB00KT. 00000KT.

On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted using. a station circle at the aircraft location. a square at the aircraft location. a star at the aircraft location.

The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $. less than 1/4 statute mile. measured 1/4 statute mile. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.

When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?. Temperature inversion. Wind stronger than 15 knots. Surface radiation.

On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. A satellite observation is plotted using. a station circle at the cloud top location. a square at the cloud top location. a star at the cloud top location.

Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of. a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport. a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing. provide ice protection during flight. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.

What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity. Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station. Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.

What type turbulence should be reported when it causes in altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?. Continuous severe chop. Continuous moderate turbulence. Intermittent moderate turbulence.

What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic chnages in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulence.

Fig. 145 What was the local Central Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report at Austin (KAUS)?. 11:53 a.m. 5:53 p.m. 10:53 p.m.

What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?. The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. There is an inversion with colder air below.

Fig. 144 What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?. Strong tailwind. Strong updraft. Significant performance increase.

Fig. 144 What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?. Decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind. Strong downdraft.

Ref. Figure 144 When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?. 3. 2. 1.

Ref. Figure 144 If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?. 4 and 5. 2 and 3. 3 and 4.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 1,500 ft/min. 4,500 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?. Trough. Ridge. Hurricane or typhon.

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed," and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"?. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min. Any rapid change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in ecxess of 100 ft/min.

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?. Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. decreases pressure gradient force. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.

Where is a common location for an inversion?. At the tropopause. In the stratosphere. At the base of cumulus clouds.

Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?. Nimbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus.

What is a feature of a stationary front?. The warm fron surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a fron into the colder air?. Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?. 4,000 feet thick. 2,000 feet thick. A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.

Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?. Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog. Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.

What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? "SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE". A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. Cumulus. Dissipating. Mature.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?. Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft.

What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value. during the downdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorm is approaching. immediately after the rain showers have stopped.

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?. The parcel of air resists convection. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.

How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?. Ambient temperature lapse rate. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.

Which process causes adiabatic cooling?. Expansion of air as it raises. Movement of air over a colder surface. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.

When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases. at a faster than dry air because of the release of latent heat. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surfacebased temperature inversion?. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.

Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?. Katabatic. Advection. Adiabatic.

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?. 3° per 1,000 feet. 2° per 1,000 feet. 4° per 1,000 feet.

At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?. At the poles. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°). At the Equator.

How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?. Calm. High pressure area. COL.

Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure. at the surface. reduced to sea level. at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.

What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?. Thunderstorms at higher levels. Freezing rain at higher levels. Snow at higher levels.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.

What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?. The air is unstable. A temperature inversion exists. The air is stable.

What is a feature of supercooled water?. The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 °C until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.

What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?. Cloud bases form. Precipitation starts. Stable air changes to unstable air.

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?. On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.

Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?. The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.

Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?. Cold front and warm front. Warm front. Occluded front.

Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?. Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.

Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change occurs to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated area.

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?. Rotor cloud. Standing lenticular. Low stratus.

Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?. Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.

Ref. Figure 145 The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320º true at 39 knots. wich ocurred at 1743Z. with gusts to 43 knots. with 43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the last report.

SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM+SHRA SCT005BKN035 OVC050CB24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?. Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21. Precipitation started at 57 after the hour. 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.

Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Increased stall speed. Increased pitchdown tendencies. Increased angle of attack for stalls.

METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?. Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour. The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL. Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.

METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC?. The rain became lighter. Atmospheric pressure increased. A funnel cloud was observed.

A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of. thunderstorms or other precipitation. precipitation or low visibility. thunderstorms or high wind.

Fig. 147 At which time is IFR weather first predicted at Lubbock (KLBB)?. 0100Z. 2100Z. 0400Z.

Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is. 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 6 knots or more pre 1,000 feet. greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?. Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Dispatch release and weight and balance release. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 monts. 3 months. 12 months.

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. 3 months. 6 months. 30 months.

When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. Type of operation (e.g. IFR, VFR), trip number. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. supplemental and commercial. supplemental and domestic. flag and commercial.

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and pitch indicator is required, that instrument must. continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes after the output of the airplane's electrical generating system falls below an optimun level. be operable by a selector switch which may be actuated from either pilot station. continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system.

If the weather forecast do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and. make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45 minute reserve at normal cruising speed. fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed.

A pilot's experience includes 8 hours in a particular make and basic model multiengine, turboprop airplane while acting as pilot in command. Which additional pilot in command experience meets the requirements for designation as pilot in command of that airplane when operated by a commuter air carrier in passenger carryng service?. Twelve takeoffs and landings. Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours.

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Only for takeoff and landing. During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. unlocked during takeoff and landing. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. latched open during takeoff and landing.

Regulations require that interior emergency lights must: operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. be armed or turned on during taxiling and all flight operations.

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.

The two pilots stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved quick- donning masks. What is the maximun altitude authorized if one pilot is not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen?. 41,000 feet MSL. 35,000 feet MSL. 25,000 feet MSL.

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. difference training. transition training. upgrade training.

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than. 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew without a rest period is. 8 hours. 10 hours. 12 hours.

The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is. 100 hours. 120 hours. 300 hours.

A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for flight deck duty during any 24-consecutive-hour period for not more than. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?. Keep safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. not considered to be part of a rest period.

Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight crewmember. not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30 day period. be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

Newport News/Willimamsburg Intl is a FAR Part 139 airport. The A/FD contains the following entry: ARFF Index A.What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have? (Refer to Appendix 2, Legend 15). Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds of DC plus 1,000 gallons of water.

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. weather reports and forecasts. names of all crewmembers. minimum fuel supply.

Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172 If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone?. No label is required. POISON. FLAMMABLE LIQUID.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetyl bromide in one package that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft? (Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175). 1 quart. 1 gallon. No limit is specified.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetylene in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?. Any amount is forbbiden. 300 pounds. No limit is specified.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) If not expected, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing allethrin?. ORM-A. None. CORROSIVE.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.

The persons jointly responsable for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. pilot in command and chief pilot. pilot in command and director of operations. pilot in command and the flight follower.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of aluminum hydride in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?. No limit is specified. 25 pounds. Any amount is forbbiden.

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. in the interest of safety. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency the aircraft dispatcher should. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. comply wiht the company's lost aircraft plan. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. Pilot in command. Dispatcher. Person who declares the emergency.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time it may depart without being redispatched is. 2005Z. 1905Z. 0005Z.

A domestic air carrier airplane land at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. 1945Z. 2015Z. 0045Z.

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregulrities of facilities and services?. The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.

Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations or flight follower. Pilot in command.

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot in command. Director of operations or flight follower.

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest NOTAMs?. Any company dispatch facility. Notices To Airmen publication. Airport/Facility Directory.

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. of FL 260. of FL 250. above FL 250.

Each crewmember shall have readly available for individual use on each flight a. key to the flight deck door. certificate holder's manual. flashlight in good working order.

A crewmember who has served as second incommand on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100) may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. upgrade training. transition training. initial training.

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. Not more than 1 hour. Not more than 2 hours. More than 6 hours.

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

If a flight crewmember completes a required anual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. November 1988. December 1988. January 1989.

At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes. 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?. If the airplane is being flown on proving flight, with revenue cargo aboard. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. If required by the airplane's type certificate.

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. pilot in command. air carrier's chief pilot. certificate holder.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. Airplane Flight Manual. Certificate holder's manual. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?. The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. At least one full stop landing must be made. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line checks is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding. 24 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 6 calendar months.

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on a shipping paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft operator retain one copy of this document?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) The aircraft operator discovers that the label on a container of hazardous materials is missing. How should the appropriate replacement label be determined?. Shipping papers. Hazardous material index. Hazardous Materials Tables of CFR 49.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. is not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums have been completed in the past 6 months. 120 days after issue or renewal.

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have completed an DGTA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. required to have a current first-class medical certificate. not required to hold a medical certificate.

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from an FAR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. To the manager of the General Aviation District Office. To the manager of the facility in control at the time of the deviation. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager.

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

Lewiston-Nez Perce Co. is a FAR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have? (Refer to Appendix 2, Legend 15, Appendix 3, Figure 177). Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemicals (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. a first-class medical certificate. at least a current third-class medical certificate. a second-class medical certificate.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) An operator makes a telephone report of an incident involving fire during the loading of hazardous materials. Within what period of time must a written report be submitted?. 48 hours. 10 days. 15 days.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Which procedure must be followed if an operator, when loading magnetized material, cannot avoid placing it in a position where it affects the accuracy of the magnetic compass?. Placard the compass "unreliable". Rely solely on electronic navigation. Make a special compass swing and calibration.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Which class of hazardous material must be loaded aboard an aircraft in a position that allows no contact with containers of corrosive materials?. Organic chemicals. Oxidizing materials. Catalytic agents.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the maximum weight of hazardous material (other than nonflammable compressed gas) that may be carried in an accessible cargo compartment of a passenger-carrying aircraft?. 50 pounds, unless otherwise specifically permitted. 10 pounds, if classified as corrosive. 25 pounds, if classified as ORM-D.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the maximum, if any, number of packages of ORM material that may be transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft?. No limit applies. A number whose combined transportation indices total 50. A number whose combined transportation indices total 100.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) If transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft, what is the maximum combined transportation indices of packages containing radioactive materials?. 100. 50. 25.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Certain classes of hazardous material may be shipped by air but are not permitted aboard passenger-carrying aircraft. How must such material be labeled?. DANGEROUS. HAZARDOUS/CLASS X. CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY.

What precaution, if any, should be taken if dry ice is carried aboard an aircraft?. This material does not require special precautions. A waiver to carry this material should be requested from the DGTA. Proper ventilation of the aircraft should be assured.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175.) What is the maximum quantity of flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin of a small, nonscheduled, passenger-carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of the United States?. 10 gallons. 15 gallons. 20 gallons.

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. certificate holder's operations specifications. application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

The crew interphone system on a large turbojet-powered airplane provides a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system, from that station. are always visible, from within the airplane. are able to avold the intake areas of the engines. may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.

Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

"Operational control" of a flight refer to. the specific duties of any required crewmember. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?. ATP: B-727 and DC-3; Commercial: DC-9. ATP: B-727 only; Commercial: DC-9 and DC-3. ATP: B-727 and DC-9; Commercial: DC-3.

(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the minimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label "RADIOACTIVE YELLOW II", and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space continuously occupied by people?. 3 feet. 4 feet. 5 feet.

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. 10 days after the deviation. 10 days after returning home. 72 hours after returning to home base.

What is the flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. FL 240. FL 250. Above FL 250.

If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. appropriate ground radio station. DGAC office. operations manager (or director of operations).

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. all aircraft occupants. all passenger seats.

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. One for each passenger seat. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. within easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy reach of each seated occupant.

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A minimum of 2 hours supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. 30 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin. may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under RAP Part 121?. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. Number of passenger cabin occupants. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A large airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. aircraft occupant. seat on the aircraft. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. Two. Four. Three.

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survivaltype emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. in the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

Wich document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?. Operations Specifications. Operating Certificate. Dispatch Release.

Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxygen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane?. Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen masks above FL 350. At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining pilot at the controls shall use an oxygen mask. At altitudes above FL 250, one of the two pilots at the controls shall use an oxygen mask continuosly.

What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command?. 15 seats. 12 seats. 10 seats.

What aircraft operating under FAR Part 135 are required to have a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator installed?. All airplanes that are turbojet powered. All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot flightcrew. All turbine powered aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of 30 seats or more.

What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?. None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude.

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?. The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.

What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twinengine airplane?. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. Motion about the longitudinal axis. Motion about the lateral axis. Motion about the vertical axis.

What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.

What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. L/Dmax. lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.

What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc?. Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?. Low speed. High speed. Any speed.

What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.

For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn. is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. varies with the rate of turn. is constant.

What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?. Inward and aft. Inward and forward. Outward and forward.

What is the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?. Porpoise. Wingover. Dutch roll.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's. lift, gross weight, and drag. lift, airspeed, and drag. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?. A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. A severe moment or "tuck under". Severe porpoising.

At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?. Supersonic Mach number. Transonic Mach number. Critical Mach number.

What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?. Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic index.

Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?. .50 to .75 Mach. .75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?. Decreases profile drag. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?. Prevent flow separation. Decrease rate of sink. Increase profile drag.

What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?. The same angle of attack. A lower angle of attack. A higher angle of attack.

In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?. While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed to avoid overbanking. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. When practicing immiment stalls in a banked attitude.

Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?. Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.

Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?. Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing..

For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.

Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

What is the purpose of a servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

What is the purpose of a control tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?. Ruddervator. Upper rudder. Leading-edge flaps.

Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?. Slats. Elevator. Dorsal fin.

When are outboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

When are inboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to. best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. an airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb at the best rateof-climb airspeed.

What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

What is a purpose of flight spoilers?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be. 2 Gs. 3 Gs. 9 Gs.

Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?. Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed.

What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?. Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease. Rate and radius will increase.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?. Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.

What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

What affects indicated stall speed?. Weight, load factor, and power. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?. Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. The rate of turn will increase resulting in a increased load factor. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.

Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?. Tabs. Flaps. Outboard ailerons.

Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?. Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.

Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

What is load factor?. Lift multiplied by the total weight. Lift substracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight.

Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?. Sluggish in aileron control. Sluggish in rudder control. Unstable about the lateral axis.

What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability. Neutral dynamic stability.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative static stability. Positive static stability. Negative dynamic stability.

What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be. the same. two times greater. four times greater.

What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twinengine airplane represent?. Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?. With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended.

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?. Direct tailwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind.

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should. lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is. developing lift. operating at high airspeeds. using high power settings.

Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off. prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft. above the horizon and increasing in size. on the horizon with little relative movement. on the horizon and increasing in size.

Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formarion of vortices.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding. 8 hours. 12 hours. 24 hours.

You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot acept any undue delay. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute. looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.

To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid make turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly. below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the oncourse centerline. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.

What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?. Does not cause illusions. Lower than actual. Higher than actual.

Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of. pitching up. pitching down. leveling off.

Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is. closer to the runway than it actually is. farther from the runway than it actually is. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. An off-airway route to the point of departure. The route filed in the flight plan.

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, procceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?. Look only at far away, dim lights. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

What is a sympton of carbon monoxide poisoning?. Rapid, shallow breathing. Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. Dizziness.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?. Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.

What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7777.

Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicates an emergency situaion is possible should an undue delay occur.

Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as. autokinesis. Coriolis illusion. the leans.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?. A stressful situation causing anxiety. The excessive consumption of alcohol. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

What causes hypoxia?. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.

Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases. the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased. the percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased. oxygen partial pressure is decreased.

Which is a common sympton of hyperventilation?. Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. Increased vision keenness. Decreased breathing rate.

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when. ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.

What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?. Alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abbilities. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?. Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too. high. low. shallow.

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as. somatogravic illusion. ground lighting illusion. autokinesis.

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as. inversion illusion. autokinesis. somatogravic illusion.

When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach. altitude may be higher than it appears. altitude may be lower than it appears. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.