4B 777

Where can you see the flow rate of the pack?. a. EICAS pages when in the manual mode. b. The Synoptic page. c. The Maintenance pages.

(ATA 21) Which computer normally controls air flow into the air conditioning packs?. A. CTC. B. ASCPC. C. ECSMC.

(ATA 21) Which ASCPC schedule gives the largest air flow into the pack?. A. 3
. B. 0
. C. 1.

In normal operation conditions and at low flight altitudes (below 24000 ft) which FCSOV will be used by which of the following CTC’s?. a. UPPER. b. LOWER. c. BOTH.

What will happen to the FCSOV if outlet temperature > 110 degrees?. a. The Valve will shut. b. FCSOV will go to low flow. c. The valve will drive fully open.

(ATA 21) What are the main components of the air cycte machine?. A. One compressor stage, two Isolated turbine stages and ram air how fan on same shaft. B. One compressor stage, one turbine stage and ram air how fan on same shaft. C. One compressor stage and two isolated turbine stages on same shaft.

What type of bearings has the ACM?. a. Oil bearings. b. Roller bearings and DTD585. c. Air bearings.

Moisture collected from the water separator is sent to where?. a. The spray nozzle on the ram inlet air to assist Ram air temperature. b. The inlet of the ACM turbine bearing for bearing cooling. c. The exit of the ACM turbine to humidify the air into the cabin.

Which to air conditioning pack valves are interchangeable?. a. Econ cooling valve and the low limit valve. b. Trim air valve and the FCSOV. c. Low limit and Turbine bypass valves.

(ATA 21) The ram air inlet doors are normally open with the airplane on the ground. What you have to use for closing them if necessary?. A. Cabin Temperature Controller BITE test. B. Maintenance Access Terminal special function. C. Air Supply Cabin Pressure Controller ground test.

What computers operates the pack valves?. a. ASCPS’s. b. ELCC’s. c. CTC’s.

(ATA 21) What will happen if Ram air inlet door RVDT fails?. A. The Ram air inlet door stays in the last position just before failure. B. The Ram air inlet door RVDT failure doesn't affect on door control. C. The CTC moves the related actuator to the full open position.

(ATA 21) What does the forward equipment cooling system use to remove smoke from the flight deck?. A. Supply fans. B. Differential pressure. C. Extractor fans.

(ATA 21) Trim Air PRSOV is electrically controled and: A. Electrically operated, and fail safe designed to close position by spring. B. Pneumatically operated, and fail safe designed to close position by torque motor. C. Pneumatically operated, and fail safe designed to close position by stepper motor.

The trim air valves utilise what as a muscle source?. a. Electrics. b. Pneumatics. c. pneumatics as a back up only.

Where are trim air modulating valves signalled from?. a. ASCPC’s. b. CTC’s. c. ECS control cards on the Misc card file panel.

(ATA 21) Which component controls the operation of recirculation fans in normal condition? (CTC - cabin temperature controller; ECSMC-environmental control system miscellaneous card ECSMC). A. Left CTC. B. Right CTC. C. ECSMC.

(ATA 21) Which component controls the operation of the recirculation fans?. A. Electrical load management systems (ELMS). Aircraft information management system (AIMS). C. Cabin temperature controller (CTC).

(ATA 21) What happens to the recirculation system when the airconditioning system is in single pack operation?. A. The CTC turns off the upper and lower fan on the same side as the unserviceable pack. B. The CTC turns off the lower fan on the opposite side to the unserviceable pack. C. The CTC turns off the lower fan on the same side as the unserviceable pack.

(ATA 21) SATCOM backup fan is used to pull the air thru electronic components in E11. When is this fan on?. A. When both lavatory/galley ventilation fans don't work. B. When the airplane is in the air (WOW=false). C. When the airplane is on the ground (WOW).

Where does the satcom Antenna receives cooling from?. a. A venture effect flow sensor from the chiller vent valves. b. A dedicated supply line from the mix manifold. c. A dedicated satcom fan exhausted to the galley vent system.

(ATA 21) What statement about equipment cooling override valve is correct?. A. In the override position, the cooling valve is opened and the smoke removal valve is closed. B. In the override position, the cooling valve and the smoke removal valve are closed. C. In the normal position, the cooling valve is opened and the smoke removal valve is closed.

The  ECC in the Equipment Colling System uses takeover logic : a. If both Flow detectors have no Flow for 6.5 minutes & Override Valve is closed. b. When the Cargo Heat Valve fails to operate when commanded by the ECSMC  . c. When the pressure sensors detect low pressure in the system.

(ATA 21) When does advisory message EQUIP COOLING appear?. A.There is low flow in the equipment cooling system on the ground for 5 minutes. B. Smoke is detected in the equipment cooling system on the ground. C. There is low flow in the equipment cooling system in the air for 5 minutes
.

If the FWD cargo heat becomes too high what will occur?. a. The vent valve closes and the override valve modulates. b. The heat valve closes and the vent valve will open. c. The vent valve and the heat valve will both close.

(ATA 21) Which statement is true about the IFE cooling system?. A. The IFE system will continue to operate without cooling until the temperature is above 80 de C. B. With the IFE cooling OFF, ELMS does not switch off the IFE system. C. The IFE systems switches off automatically when the cooling systems is OFF.

Where is the IFE exhaust cooling routed to. a. The overboard vent valve. b. The Fwd mix bay area. c. The Fwd Outflow valve.

On 300 series Aircraft how is additional heat supplied to the forward Cargo hold?. a. 5000 watt electrical heater. b. Pneumatic bleed air. c. Galley Booster fans run in flight.

(LLAR) Crew rest area supply air is ducted from which of the following?. a. Mix manifold only. b. Exhaust air from the Aft cargo sidewalls. c. The left pack system of the mix manifold.

Manual outflow valve control is signalled  from when which of the following ?. a. The P5 open and close switches. b. The remote pressure sensor. c. ASCPC's.

What modes of operation are compatible for OUTFLOW valves?. a. Either valve can be operated equally in AUTO or MAN independently from the other valve operating mode. b. When AFT valve is selected to MAN, forward valve will be operated in STANDBY mode. c. When either valve is selected to MAN both valves will be operating in MAN mode through the action of a toggle switch.

(ATA 21) What is the total air outflow distribution through forward and aft outflow valves if you set both outflow valves fi Auto mode?. A. 20% - forward valve and 80% - aft valve. B. 80% - forward valve and 20% - aft valve. C. 50% - forward valve and 50% - aft valve.

(ATA 21) The negative pressure relief vent is a spring-loaded door. The door starts to open at a differential pressure of: A. 8.95 psi. B. 1.5 psi. C. 0.2 psi.

(ATA 21) Which cabin parameter is accurately controlled by the ASCPC in backup mode?. A. Pressurization and temperature. B. Pressurization only. C. Temperature only.

(ATA 27) Which access is required to replace pitch rate sensor?. A. Access to E/E compartment
. B. Fwd cargo aft end wall removal. C. Aft cargo aft bulkhead panel removal.

(ATA 27) How is visual indication of flight control surfaces movement provided to flight crew during autopilot operation?. A. Only indication in EICAS (Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System) display
. B. Movement of the flight deck controls achieved by signal from PFC through AFDCs to backdrive actuators. C. Movement of the flight deck controls achieved by signal from PFC through ACEs to backdrive actuators.

(ATA 27) What sensor use The FSEUs for to shutdown the primary mode?. A. flap skew sensors. B. flap position sensors. C. The flap/slat priority valve.

(ATA 27) Calculate the green band display for the stabilizer trim indicators to show the safe range of stabilizer trim for takeoff?. A. FPC. B. WEUs. C. MAT.

(ATA 27) When one hydraulic motor operates, What is the the speed of the ballscrew of the speed when both hydraulic motors operate?. A.50 percent. B. 100 percent. C. 75 percent.

(ATA 27) Which spoilers have a lockout function if no faults exists in spoiler system?. A. 4 and 11. B. 1 and 14
. C. 5 and 10.

(ATA 27) What action is necessary to unlatch autoshutdown relay?. A. No action required, relay will autoreset after fault correction. B. Perform stabilizer system ground test
. C. Reset PFC DISC switch at P5.

(ATA 27) Which flight control surface is used for roll control at cruise speed?. A. Flaperons normally and ailerons using limited trim control only. B. Flaperons only, ailerons locked in faired position. C. Ailerons and flaperons.

(ATA 27) During autopilot operation, the aileron trim does not work. What is the problem?. A. No fault - its normal operation of the system. B. The actuator control electronics (ACE) is faulty. C. The Ailerons trim actuator is faulty.

(ATA 27) Which action must be taken to complete elevator PCU replacement?. A. Full elevator system adjustment/tests must be performed. B. Actuator null LVDT required adjustment. C. Elevator cables adjustment must be checked.

(ATA 27) Which information is required to have elevator speed stability function available in flight, during autopilot operation?. A. Computed air speed from ADIR or SAARU and pitch trim signal from ACE and AIMS. B. Speed stability function is not available during autopilot operation. C. Computed air speed from ADIRU and SAARU and pitch trim signal from ACE or AIMS.

(ATA 27) What happens with ailerons/flaperons during flaps extension?. A. Flaperons droop to increase lift, ailerons only used for roll control. B. Flaperons and ailerons droop to increase lift and stays available for roll control. C. Flaperons and ailerons only used for roll control, both stay independent from flap position.

(ATA 27) What positions of the valves will you get by placing tail flight control SOVs to OFF position in the air?. A. Left SOV closed, right SOV open, centre SOV closed. B. Left SOV closed, right SOV closed, centre SOV open. C. Left SOV closed, right SOV closed, centre SOV closed.

(ATA 27) In which modes flaperons PCU may operate?
. A. Normal and bypass only. B. Normal, bypass and blocking/damped. C. Normal and damped only.

(ATA 27) Which PFCS function(s) is(are) designed to improve the quality of the passenger ride in aft section of cabin?. A. Gust suppression function only. B. Modal suppression function and gust suppression function. C. Rudder ratio function only.

(ATA 27) Airplane on the ground. Which conditions are required for the flaps/slats system secondary mode becomes active?. A. Secondary mode not available on ground. B. One lane is faulty. C. Override function on the MAT.

(ATA 27) What cockpit indication is available when single pitch rate sensor fails?. A. FLIGHT CONTROL light comes on. B. FLIGHT CONTROL SYS caution message. C. PFCS INTERFACE status message.

(ATA 27) During normal aircraft operation rudder tab will move: A. Same direction as rudder with twice angle in relation to airplane centerline. B. Opposite direction as rudder with twice angle in relation to airplane centerline. C. Opposite direction with same angles in relation to airplane.

Which of the listed flight controls surfaces skins reinforce graphite/epoxy bonded to core or Nomex honeycomb. A. Slats and rudder. B. Elevator and rudder. C. Elevator and slats.

How visual indication of flight control surfaces movement provide to flight crew during autopilot operation. A. Movement of the flight deck controls archived by signal from PFC through AFDC’s to backdrive actuator. B. Only indication in EICAS (Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System) display. C. Movement of the flight deck control archived by signal from PFC through ACE’s to backdrive actuator.

the function of the alternate Extend hydraulic
Pressure switch is to. A. Turn on the alternate extend power pack when there is a failure in the cantar hydraulic system. B. Supply pressure indication to the airplane information management system (AIMS) . C. Turn off the alternate Extend power pack after the completion of the alternate extend cycle.

During landing gear up operation. A. Gear retract pressure goes through the alternate braking system to reduce the wheel speed. B. The normal brake metering valve supplies brake pressure to reduce the wheel speed. C. The accumulator pressure is used to reduce the wheel speed.

The signal of the pedal position switches. A. Make the BRAKE OFF light come on. B. Deactivate the alternate anti skid system on. C. Make the red BRAKE ON light come on when the brake pedals are applied.

What is the function of the lockup solenoid. A. To will lock the floating piston in the SLG actuator. B. Will lock the SLG in alternate extension. C. Hold the gear in the retracted position and release hyd pressure up actuator.

What does te status message SEMI LEVER GEAR LOCKS. A. The locks have failed. B. One of the gear up lock proximity sensor has failed. C. Un-commanded SLG lock solenoid operation.

(ATA 29) GE 90. Which of the following statements is true about the engine. A. The depressurization solenoid is not part of the engine driven pump (EDP). B. When the Engine drive pump (EDP) is switched OFF, the depressurization solenoid power. C. When the depressurization solenoid is energized, the pump pressure output goes system.

(ATA 29) Send the data to the AIMS for flight deck indication and also control the fault lights and the RAT indication lights on the hydraulic/RAT panel?. A. ACMP. B. HYDIM cards. C. PSEU.

(ATA 29) The overspeed shutdown system has a latching function that keeps the ADP off until it is reset by: A. MAT test. B. Reset On CDU. C. P5 Switch.

(ATA 29) When the depressurization solenoid valve gets electrical power?. A. turn off the pump. B. pump pressure output goes. C. the engine turns.

PW400. Access to the EDP is through which cowling. A. Left thrust reverser half. B. Right thrust reverser half. C. Left fan cowling.

Where is engine drive pump (EDP) on GE 90. A. On the from face of the engine man gearbox on left side of each ENG. B. On the aft face of the engine main gearbox on right side of each ENG. C. On the from face of the engine main gearbox on right side of each ENG.

The RAT pressure indication stay on after ground RAT monitoring unit. A. the RAT monitoring valve will be released back to the flight position. B. The RAT stw valve handle will be set of the stow position. C. The internal leakage in the RAT module causes the pressure to decrease.

GE 90 wich of the following statement is true about the engine drive pump (EDP). A. When EDP is switched OFF the depressurization solenoid gets electrical power. B. The depressurization solenoid is not part of the EDP. C. When the depressurization solenoid is energized the pump pressure output gets to the had system.

What you have to do to keep movement of the fwd btw the right and center hydraulic system to a minimum. A. Pressurize the center hydraulic system first Remove the pressure from the center had sys. B. Dont switch on center and right gym sys ac motor pumps tighter on the ground. C. Pressure the right hydraulic first the pressure from the had sys last.

(ATA 29) RR RB211 Trent 800. Access to the EDP is through which cowling?. A. Left thrust reverser half. B. Right thrust reverser half. C. Right fan cowling.