ASCC 1

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or a via CLI. Which command should be use in CLI? Choose the correct answer. remove database lock. The database feature has one command lock database override. override database lock. The database feature has two commands: lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?. Slow Path. Medium Path. Fast Path. Accelerated Path.

What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?. Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings. Conflict on scope, conflict on settings, and conflict on exception. Conflict on settings, conflict on address, and conflict on exception. Conflict on action, conflict on destination, and conflict on settings.

Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?. show configuration all. show confd configuration. show confd configuration all. show configuration.

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and remote locations, which are managed centrally by R80 Security Management Server. One central location has an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570 series appliance with R71. Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central management and firewall on each location?. On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC. On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256. The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC. On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC.

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?. Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard. Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy. Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy. Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy.

As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?. Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4. Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic. Nothing at all. Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4.

Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections. 675, 389. 389, 636. 636, 290. 290, 675.

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and: assign privileges to users. edit the home directory of the user. add users to your Gaia system. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called: SmartView Monitor. SmartEventWeb. There is no Web application for SmartEvent. SmartView.

How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?. 12. 1. 3. 6.

Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?. Password. Certificate. Token. Pre-shared secret.

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?. SandBlast Threat Emulation. SandBlast Agent. Check Point Protect. SandBlast Threat Extraction.

Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority? choose 2. Machine Hide NAT. Address Range Hide NAT. Network Hide NAT. Machine Static NAT.

You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?. The POP3 rule is disabled. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties. The POP3 rule is hidden. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?. Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties. Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base. Track log column is set to none. Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules. To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall. Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change. You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule. You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don't have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9. fw ctl multik set_mode 9. fw ctl miltik pq enable.

Which of the following are types of VPN communicates?. Pentagon, star, and combination. Star, octagon, and combination. Combined and star. Meshed, star, and combination.

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain. Why does it not detect the windows domain?. Security Gateways is not part of the Domain. SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain. SMS is not part of the domain. Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties.

Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the iPad is not a member of the Active IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 7 Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must: 1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources. 2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected. 3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action. 4) Install policy. Ms McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?. Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule "Redirect HTTP connections to an authentication (captive) portal". Have the security administrator reboot the firewall. Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role. Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad.

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?. Application Control. Threat Emulation. Anti-Virus. Advanced Networking Blade.

In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?. From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server. From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server. From an 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance. From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance.

Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the_____________. DLP shared policy. Geo policy shared policy. Mobile Access software blade. HTTPS inspection.

Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security. Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management. Two; security management and endpoint security. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway.

Which icon indicates that read/write access is enabled?. Pencil. Padlock. Book. Eyeglasses.

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are: Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment. Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment. Dropped with negative acknowledgment. Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment.

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?. Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller. Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet. Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet. Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager's tablet.

You can see the following graphic: What is presented on it?. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John. Shared secret properties of John's password. VPN certificate properties of the John's gateway. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?. 3 month. 4 weeks. 12 months. 6 months.

What are the advantages of a "shared policy" in R80?. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server. Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package. Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway.

2 If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer. Publish or discard the session. Revert the session. Save and install the Policy. Delete older versions of database.

Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed. When you upgrade to R80 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.

What SmartEvent component creates events?. Consolidation Policy. Correlation Unit. SmartEvent Policy. SmartEvent GUI.

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself. SmartConsole. SecureClient. SmartEvent.

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?. Manage & Settings. Security Policies. Gateway & Servers. Logs & Monitor.

Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ . Software container; software package. Software blade; software container. Software package; signature. Signature; software blade.

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?. Always delivers a file to user. Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files. Can take up to 3 minutes to complete. Delivers file only if no threats found.

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?. Threat Emulation. Access Control. Desktop Security. Threat Prevention.

Fill in the blank: The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access based on user, group, and machine identities. Application Control. Data Awareness. URL Filtering. Threat Emulation.

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored. Security Gateway. Check Point user center. Security Management Server. SmartConsole installed device.

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error 'no proposal chosen' is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related log entries are present. Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?. IKE Phase 1. IPSEC Phase 2. IPSEC Phase 1. IKE Phase 2.

What are the three authentication methods for SIC?. Passwords, Users, and standards-based SSL for the creation of security channels. Certificates, standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption. Packet Filtering, certificates, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption. Certificates, Passwords, and Tokens.

Joey is using the computer with IP address 192.168.20.13. He wants to access web page "www.CheckPoint.com", which is hosted on Web server with IP address 203.0.113.111. How many rules on Check Point Firewall are required for this connection?. Two rules - first one for the HTTP traffic and second one for DNS traffic. Only one rule, because Check Point firewall is a Packet Filtering firewall. Two rules - one for outgoing request and second one for incoming replay. Only one rule, because Check Point firewall is using Stateful Inspection technology.

Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed?. Bridge. Load Sharing. High Availability. Fail Open.

Fill in the blank: The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration. upgrade_import. cpconfig. fwm dbimport -p <export file>. cpinfo -recover.

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user. Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user. Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?. Distributed. Standalone. Bridge Mode. Targeted.

You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?. backup. Database Revision. snapshot. migrate export.

Jack works for a managed service provider and he has been tasked to create 17 new policies for several new customers. He does not have much time. What is the BEST way to do this with R80 security management?. Create a text-file with mgmt_cli script that creates all objects and policies. Open the file in SmartConsole Command Line to run it. Create a text-file with Gaia CLI -commands in order to create all objects and policies. Run the file in CLISH with command load configuration. Create a text-file with DBEDIT script that creates all objects and policies. Run the file in the command line of the management server using command dbedit -f. Use Object Explorer in SmartConsole to create the objects and Manage Policies from the menu to create the policies.

Fill in the blanks: The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ . Log server; security management server. Log server; Security Gateway. Security management server; Security Gateway. Security Gateways; log server.

Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?. SmartConsole Wizard. Online Activation. License Activation Wizard. Offline Activation.

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________. User Center. Package repository. Download Center Web site. License and Contract repository.

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?. Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose. Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules. To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed. Used to better optimize a policy.

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?. Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway. Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy.

Message digests use which of the following?. DES and RC4. IDEA and RC4. SSL and MD4. SHA-1 and MD5.

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?. cpconfig. Management Command Line. SmartConsole. SmartUpdate.

What is the default shell for the command line interface?. Expert. Clish. Admin. Normal.

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast. New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results. SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway. The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions.

Examine the following Rule Base. What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?. Rule 7 was created by the 'admin' administrator in the current session. 8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation. The rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the 'admin' administrator. Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator.

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?. It provides remote access to SmartConsole. It manages user permission in SmartConsole. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS.

Harriet wants to protect sensitive information from intentional loss when users browse to a specific URL: https://personal.mymail.com, which blade will she enable to achieve her goal?. DLP. SSL Inspection. Application Control. URL Filtering.

Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?. There is no traffic queue to be handled. Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU. Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores. Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU.

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?. Remove the installed Security Policy. Remove the local ACL lists. No effect. Reset SIC on all gateways.

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself. SmartConsole. SecureClient. Security Gateway.

Fill in the blanks: A security Policy is created in _________ , stored in the _________ , and Distributed to the various __________ . Rule base, Security Management Server, Security Gateways. SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways. The Check Point database, SmartConsole, Security Gateways.

You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?. IPS and Application Control. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security. SandBlast.

The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMPT, and rlogin services. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.

Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?. Run cpconfig, and click Reset. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig on the gateway and type a new activation key. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?. Smart Cloud Services. Load Sharing Mode Services. Threat Agent Solution. Public Cloud Services.

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?. SmartView Monitor. SmartEvent. SmartUpdate. SmartDashboard.

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________. Server Units. Administrator Units. Account Units. Account Servers.

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication. Shared secret. Token. Username/password or Kerberos Ticket. Certificate.

What is UserCheck?. Messaging tool user to verify a user's credentials. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access. Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network. Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19. John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his desktop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator: 1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy. 2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location. 3) Changes from static IP address to DHCP for the client PC. What should John request when he cannot access the web server from his laptop. John should lock and unlock his computer. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue. The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC. John should install the Identity Awareness Agent.

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?. Save Policy. Install Database. Save session. Install Policy.

Fill in the blank: The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period. Block Port Overflow. Local Interface Spoofing. Suspicious Activity Monitoring. Adaptive Threat Prevention.

The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?. Phase two key negotiation. Address translation. Log Consolidation Engine. User data base corruption.

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?. SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless. SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not. IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this. IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter, SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

Office mode means that: SecureID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client. Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection. Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user. Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor. Unfortunately, you get the message: "There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor". What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.

To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?. Protections. IPS Protections. Profiles. ThreatWiki.

You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard?. A group with generic user. All users. LDAP Account Unit Group. Internal user Group.

What is the order of NAT priorities?. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT.

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ forencryption. AES-128. AES-256. DES. 3DES.

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT. Upgrade the software version. Open WebUI. Open SSH. Open service request with Check Point Technical Support.

8 In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?. Limit. Resource. Custom Application / Site. Network Object.

As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorized time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting: in the user object's Authentication screen. in the Gateway object's Authentication screen. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R77 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration of your Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf. upgrade_export command. Database Revision Control. GAiA backup utilities.

Which command shows the installed licenses?. cplic print. print cplic. fwlic print. show licenses.

What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate. Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Lof Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.

What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?. The SMS can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication. SIC activation key requires a reset. The SIC activation key is not known by any administrator. There is no connection between the Security Gateway and SMS.

On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port: 18210. 18184. 257. 18191.

Which policy type has its own Exceptions section?. Thread Prevention. Access Control. Threat Emulation. Desktop Security.

Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?. set web ssl-port <new port number>. set Gaia-portal <new port number>. set Gaia-portal https-port <new port number>. set web https-port <new port number>.

Fill in the blank: Each cluster has __________ interfaces. Five. Two. Three. Four.

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?. Auditor. Read Only All. Super User. Full Access.

AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a locked icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer. Rule is locked by AdminA, because the save bottom has not been press. Rule is locked by AdminA, because an object on that rule is been edited. Rule is locked by AdminA, and will make it available if session is published. Rule is locked by AdminA, and if the session is saved, rule will be available.

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?. Capsule Enterprise. Capsule Cloud. Capsule Workspace. Capsule Docs.

When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file. User Name, Password, Management Server IP. Password, Management Server IP. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP.