1. What does the Last Leg Report consist of: a. Failure messages presented to the crew on ECAM during last flight and sent to the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit). b. Failure messages detected by the aircraft computers during their BITE in the last flight and sent to the CFDIU. c. The sum of failure messages presented on ECAM during last flight and the failure messages detected by the aircraft computers and sent to the CFDIU. d. All of the above.
2. What kind of test is required manually by the mechanic through CFDS, to check the integrity of an aircraft system, specially after the replacement of an LRU or for troubleshooting purposes: a. Power-up test. b. In-operation test. c. System test.
3. Which of the following computers generates (produces) the information displayed on EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) and ECAM screens: a. SDAC (Sytem Data Acquisition Concentrator). b. DMC (Display Management Computer). c. FWC (Flight Warning Computer).
4. What happens when there is a simultaneous failure of both FWC’s (FWC 1 + 2 failure): a. The generation of red warnings is lost. b. The generation of amber warnings is lost. c. The attention getters are lost. d. All of the above. e. Nothing happens, this failure does not affect the warning generation.
5. What kind of failures are considered those not having operational consequences on the aircraft and that only have indication on ECAM Status page, and are also dispatchable with no restrictions according to MEL. a. Class 1 b. Class 2. c. Class 3.
6. In what moment is the Current Leg Report transferred to the Last Leg Report:. a. During touchdown. b. After touchdown, when the speed of the aircraft is less than 80 Knots for 30 seconds. c. 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown.
7. Which screen (display unit) from the Electronic instrument system EIS provides the crew with aircraft flight attitude (pitch & roll): a. Engine/Warning Display (upper ECAM). b. Systems/Status Display (lower ECAM). c. Primary Flight Display PFD. d. Navigation display ND.
8. With both ECAM screens operative (dual ECAM display), which screen displays the engine primary parameters., slats/flaps position, fuel on board, etc, and also failure messages: a. Upper ECAM (Engine/Warning Display). b. Lower ECAM System pages. c. Lower ECAM Status page. d. All of the above.
9. What does the Last Leg ECAM Report consist of: a. Failure messages presented to the crew on ECAM during last flight and sent to the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit). b. Failure messages detected by the aircraft computers during their BITE in the last flight and sent to the CFDIU. c. The sum of failure messages presented on ECAM during last flight and the failure messages detected by the aircraft computers and sent to the CFDIU. d. All of the above.
10. What kind of failures are those having operational consequences on the aircraft and also have failure messages (ECAM indications, local lights and attention getters) in the cockpit, MEL reference must be made to dispatch the aircraft. a. Class 1 b. Class 2. c. Class 3.
11. When there is a failure in DMC 1 (Display Management Computer 1) what action must be performed to recover the three display units normally supplied by it: a. Automatic switching to DMC 2. b. Automatic switching to DMC 3. c. Manual switching to DMC 2. d. Manual switching to DMC 3.
12. What does the Post Flight Report PFR consist of: a. Failure messages presented to the crew on ECAM during last flight and sent to the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit). b. Failure messages detected by the aircraft computers during their BITE in the last flight and sent to the CFDIU. c. The sum of failure messages presented on ECAM during last flight and the failure messages detected by the aircraft computers and sent to the CFDIU. d. All of the above.
13. Which of the following computers receives the data and signals coming from aircraft sensors utilized to display ECAM system pages, giving them digital format and also determine the generation of amber warnings: a. SDAC (System Data Acquisition Concentrator). b. DMC (Display Management Computer). c. FWC (Flight Warning Computer).
14. Under normal operating conditions, which DMC’s displays information on captain’s EFIS (PFD1 & ND1) and the Engine/Warning display (upper ECAM): a. DMC1. b. DMC2. c. DMC3.
15. Which CFDS menu allows access to the failure messages from the last 63 flight legs: a. LAST LEG REPORT. b. LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. c. PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT. d. AVIONICS STATUS. e. SYSTEMS REPORT/TEST.
16. Which CFDS menu normally allows access to the information corresponding to class 3 faults: a. LAST LEG REPORT. b. LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. c. PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT. d. AVIONICS STATUS. e. SYSTEMS REPORT/TEST.
17. What actions must be taken by the crew to recover the ND on the captain’s side: a. Press the PFD/ND XFR PB on captain’s side. b. Press the PFD/ND XFR PB on F.O.’s side. c. Set the ECAM/ND XFR SW in NORM position. d. The captain’s ND can not be recovered.
18. What actions must be taken by the crew to display the ECAM bleed page: a. Press the PFD/ND XFR PB on captain’s side. b. Set the ECAM/ND XFR SW in NORM position. c. Press the CLR PB on ECAM control panel. d. Press and hold the BLEED PB on ECAM control panel.
19. Which system observed the failure as an internal failure. a. ECAM 1. b. ECAM 2. c. SDAC 1. d. BCL 1.
20. Which system observed the failure as an external failure. a. ECAM 1. b. ECAM 2. c. SDAC 1. d. BCL 1.
6. What kind of aircraft systems can memorize 64 flight legs, the last leg and 63 previous, and also allow full interrogation of the system’s computers (full availability of CFDS menus). a. Type 1 system. b. Type 2 system. c. Type 3 system.
7. In what moment is the Current Leg Report transferred to the Last Leg Report:. a. During touchdown. b. After touchdown, when the speed of the aircraft is less than 80 Knots for 30 seconds. c. 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown.
8. Which screen (display unit) from the Electronic instrument system EIS provides the crew with aircraft flight attitude (pitch & roll): a. Engine/Warning Display (upper ECAM). b. Systems/Status Display (lower ECAM). c. Primary Flight Display PFD. d. Navigation display ND.
9. With both ECAM screens operative (dual ECAM display), which screen displays the engine primary parameters., slats/flaps position, fuel on board, etc, and also failure messages: a. Upper ECAM (Engine/Warning Display). b. Lower ECAM System pages. c. Lower ECAM Status page. d. All of the above.
10. What does the Last Leg ECAM Report consist of: a. Failure messages presented to the crew on ECAM during last flight and sent to the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit). b. Failure messages detected by the aircraft computers during their BITE in the last flight and sent to the CFDIU. c. The sum of failure messages presented on ECAM during last flight and the failure messages detected by the aircraft computers and sent to the CFDIU. d. All of the above.
11. What kind of aircraft system can not memorize failure messages occurred during last flight, and can only provide operative status (OK or failure) o be reset through CFDS. a. Type 1 system. b. Type 2 system. c. Type 3 system.
12. What kind of failures are those having operational consequences on the aircraft and also have failure messages (ECAM indications, local lights and attention getters) in the cockpit, MEL reference must be made to dispatch the aircraft. a. Class 1 b. Class 2. c. Class 3.
13. When there is a failure in DMC 1 (Display Management Computer 1) what action must be performed to recover the three display units normally supplied by it: a. Automatic switching to DMC 2. b. Automatic switching to DMC 3. c. Manual switching to DMC 2. d. Manual switching to DMC 3.
14. What does the Post Flight Report PFR consist of: a. Failure messages presented to the crew on ECAM during last flight and sent to the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit). b. Failure messages detected by the aircraft computers during their BITE in the last flight and sent to the CFDIU. c. The sum of failure messages presented on ECAM during last flight and the failure messages detected by the aircraft computers and sent to the CFDIU. d. All of the above.
15. What happens with a failure in the CFDIU main channel: a. The Standby channel allows the use CFDS full functions (all menus available). b. The Standby channel allows the use of only some CFDS functions (only SYSTEM REPORT/TEST menu) c. All CFDS functions are lost.
16. Which of the following computers receives the data and signals coming from aircraft sensors utilized to display ECAM system pages, giving them digital format and also determine the generation of amber warnings: a. SDAC (System Data Acquisition Concentrator). b. DMC (Display Management Computer). c. FWC (Flight Warning Computer).
17. The lower ECAM in advisory displays automatically the corresponding page of an specific system, when any of its parameters drifts out of range, but not sufficient enough to trigger a warning: a. True. b. False.
18. In what operational mode available only on ground, the CFDIU (centralized fault display interface unit) interchanges information with just ONE aircraft computer at a time to read its BITE messages and initiate various tests: a. Normal mode. b. Menu mode. c. All of the above. d. None of the above.
19. Under normal operating conditions, which DMC’s displays information on captain’s EFIS (PFD1 & ND1) and the Engine/Warning display (upper ECAM): a. DMC1. b. DMC2. c. DMC3.
20. Which CFDS menu allows access to the failure messages from the last 63 flight legs: a. LAST LEG REPORT. b. LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. c. PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT. d. AVIONICS STATUS. e. SYSTEMS REPORT/TEST.
21. Which CFDS menu normally allows access to the information corresponding to class 3 faults: a. LAST LEG REPORT. b. LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. c. PREVIOUS LEGS REPORT. d. AVIONICS STATUS. e. SYSTEMS REPORT/TEST.
22. What actions must be taken by the crew to recover the ND on the captain’s side: a. Press the PFD/ND XFR PB on captain’s side. b. Press the PFD/ND XFR PB on F.O.’s side. c. Set the ECAM/ND XFR SW in NORM position. d. The captain’s ND can not be recovered.
23. What actions must be taken by the crew to display the ECAM bleed page: a. Press the PFD/ND XFR PB on captain’s side. b. Set the ECAM/ND XFR SW in NORM position. c. Press the CLR PB on ECAM control panel. d. Press and hold the BLEED PB on ECAM control panel.
24. Which system observed the failure as an internal failure. a. ECAM 1. b. ECAM 2. c. SDAC 1. d. BCL 1.
25. Which system observed the failure as an external failure. a. ECAM 1. b. ECAM 2. c. SDAC 1. d. BCL 1.
1. What LGCIU provides the gear and doors position indication on ECAM Wheel page. a. LGCIU 1. b. LGCIU 2. c. Both. d. None.
2. Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to normal extension/retraction operation of gears and nose gear steering. a. Green system. b. Blue system. c. Yellow system.
3. Is it possible to set the landing gear control lever in the UP position when the aircraft completely de-energized and all hydraulic systems de-depressurized. a. True. b. False.
4. What LGCIU provides the gears and doors position indications on landing gear indicator panel (center instrument panel). a. LGCIU 1. b. LGCIU 2. c. Both. d. None.
5. When performing a landing gear gravity extension, why is it necessary to operate first the vent valves in the hydraulic system by turning the gravity extension crank handle. a. To pressurize the extension line of the gear actuators. b. To prevent hydraulic block of the actuators when releasing the gears. c. To mechanically release the gears and doors from the uplock boxes. d. All of the above.
6. Which component provides the longitudinal support to the main gears. a. Drag stay assembly. b. Lock stay assembly. c. Side stay assembly. d. Torque and slave link.
7. Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to operate the alternate brakes. a. Green system. b. Blue system. c. Yellow system.
8. What indications will be displayed in the cockpit after the gears are retracted and are UP & locked. a. The green triangles on landing gear indicator panel. b. The red word UNLK on landing gear indicator panel and wheel page automatically displayed on ECAM. c. The green triangles on landing gear indicator panel only. d. None of the above.
9. Under normal operating conditions when the automatic switchover from the LGCIU (landing gear control interface unit) in control of gear retraction/extension to standby LGCIU going to take place. a. At landing gear control lever selection to the UP position. b. At landing gear control lever selection to the DOWN position. c. When gears are downlocked. d. When gears are uplocked.
10. Which component from the main gears mechanically locks the gears in the retracted position. a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stay actuator. c. The downlock springs. d. The uplock box.
11. Which nose gear steering control is capable of providing 74° (left/right) turn to nose gear. a. The Rudder pedals (captain and F.O.) through ELAC´s. b. The handwheels (captain and F.O.). c. The electrical box (located on nose gear). d. All of the above.
12. Which component provide lateral support to the main gears. a. The drag stay assembly. b. The lock stay assembly. c. The side stay assembly. d. The torque and slave link.
13. What cockpit indications will be displayed when braking with alternate brakes. a. Pressure applied to brakes on ECAM Wheel page. b. Pressure applied to the brakes on the triple indicator (center instrument panel). c. Green DECEL lights on Autobrake panel. d. No indication.
14. Which component from main gears locks the gears in the extended position when there is NO hydraulic pressure available. a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stay actuator. c. The downlock springs. d. The uplock box.
15. Which brake mode has priority over any other mode of braking (all other brake modes become electrically and hydraulically inoperative). a. Normal brakes with antiskid applied by Autobrake system. b. Normal brakes with antiskid manually applied (with rudder pedals). c. Alternate brakes with antiskid manually applied (with rudder pedals). d. Alternate brakes without antiskid manually applied (with rudder pedals). e. Parking brake applied with parking brake control handle.
16. Which component prevents the rotation movement between internal and external cylinders of the main gears shock absorber, without interfering with the reciprocating movement used to absorb the impact during landing. a. The drag stay assembly. b. The lock stay assembly. c. The side stay assembly. d. The torque and slave link.
17. What happens with autobrake system when any of the normal servovalves is inoperative. a. Autobrake system can be armed normally. b. Autobrake system is inoperative (can not be armed). c. Autobrake system can use the alternate servovalve to apply the brakes. d. None of the above.
18. Which component from extension/retraction system shutoffs the flow of hydraulic fluid to the landing gear system when aircraft speed is more than 260 knots. a. The safety valve. b. The cutout valve. c. The Uplock box mechanical release. d. The Door bypass valves.
19. Which component from extension/retraction system cuts off the flow of hydraulic fluid to the landing gear system when performing a gear gravity extension (free fall). a. The safety valve. b. The cutout valve c. The Uplock box mechanical release. d. The Door bypass valves.
20. Which brake system component when energized disables all other brake modes (hydraulically by itself and electrically through the BSCU). a. The Brake selector valve. b. The automatic selector. c. The Parking brake control valve. d. The Dual shuttle valve.
8. Which component from the main gears locks the gears in the extended position with hydraulic pressure available. a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stay actuator. c. The downlock springs. d. The uplock box.
9. What indications will be displayed in the cockpit after the gears are retracted and are UP & locked. a. The green triangles on landing gear indicator panel. b. The red word UNLK on landing gear indicator panel and wheel page automatically displayed on ECAM. c. The green triangles on landing gear indicator panel only. d. None of the above.
10. Under normal operating conditions when the automatic switchover from the LGCIU (landing gear control interface unit) in control of gear retraction/extension to standby LGCIU going to take place. a. At landing gear control lever selection to the UP position. b. At landing gear control lever selection to the DOWN position. c. When gears are downlocked. d. When gears are uplocked.
11. Which component from the main gears mechanically locks the gears in the retracted position. a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stay actuator. c. The downlock springs. d. The uplock box.
12. Which component from the landing gear system provides the force to accomplish the extension/retraction operation of the gears. a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stay actuator. c. The downlock springs. d. The uplock box.
13. With antiskid operative, which component modulates the hydraulic pressure applied to the brakes when a skidding condition of any wheel is detected (normal or alternate brakes). a. The tachometer controlled by BSCU. b. The dual shuttle valve controlled by BSCU. c. The dual valve controlled by BSCU. d. The normal or alternate servovalves controlled by BSCU.
14. Which nose gear steering control is capable of providing 74° (left/right) turn to nose gear. a. The Rudder pedals (captain and F.O.) through ELAC´s. b. The handwheels (captain and F.O.). c. The electrical box (located on nose gear). d. All of the above.
15. Which component provide lateral support to the main gears. a. The drag stay assembly. b. The lock stay assembly. c. The side stay assembly. d. The torque and slave link.
16. What cockpit indications will be displayed when braking with alternate brakes. a. Pressure applied to brakes on ECAM Wheel page. b. Pressure applied to the brakes on the triple indicator (center instrument panel). c. Green DECEL lights on Autobrake panel. d. No indication.
17. Which component from main gears locks the gears in the extended position when there is NO hydraulic pressure available. a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stay actuator. c. The downlock springs. d. The uplock box.
19. Which component prevents the rotation movement between internal and external cylinders of the main gears shock absorber, without interfering with the reciprocating movement used to absorb the impact during landing. a. The drag stay assembly. b. The lock stay assembly. c. The side stay assembly. d. The torque and slave link.
20. In the nose gear steering system, what happens on ground when rudder pedals and/or captain and F.O. handwheels are moved simultaneously. a. The first control moved has priority over the other controls. b. The nose gear steering obeys the captain’s commands, since he has priority. c. The nose gear steering obeys the F.O.’s commands, since he has priority. d. The nose gear steering obeys the algebraic sum of all controls.
21. What happens with autobrake system when any of the normal servovalves is inoperative. a. Autobrake system can be armed normally. b. Autobrake system is inoperative (can not be armed). c. Autobrake system can use the alternate servovalve to apply the brakes. d. None of the above.
22. What conditions will cause the red arrow beside the landing gear control lever to be ON. a. Any gear not in the uplocked condition after the control lever has been set in the UP position. b. Gears in transit. c. Any gear not in the downlocked condition after the control lever has been set in the DOWN position. d. Any gear not in the downlocked position with the aircraft in approach phase.
23. Which component from extension/retraction system shutoffs the flow of hydraulic fluid to the landing gear system when aircraft speed is more than 260 knots. a. The La safety valve. b. The cutout valve. c. The Uplock box mechanical release. d. The Door bypass valves.
24. Which component from extension/retraction system allows the release of fluid in the hydraulic lines of the gear door actuators to return, allowing the opening of gear doors and access to the landing gear bay. a. The safety valve. b. The cutout valve. c. The Uplock box mechanical release. d. The Door bypass valves.
25. Which component from extension/retraction system cuts off the flow of hydraulic fluid to the landing gear system when performing a gear gravity extension (free fall). a. The safety valve. b. The cutout valve c. The Uplock box mechanical release. d. The Door bypass valves.
26. Which brake system component when energized disables all other brake modes (hydraulically by itself and electrically through the BSCU). a. The Brake selector valve. b. The automatic selector. c. The Parking brake control valve. d. The Dual shuttle valve.
27. What happens to the nose gear steering system if alternate brakes are being applied with antiskid available (BSCU 100% operative). a. Steering system works normally. b. Steering system is lost. c. Steering system can only work with the rudder pedals. d. Steering system only obeys commands form autopilot through ELAC’s (elevator aileron computers).
28. Which brake system component (completely mechanical) allows the supply of pressurized hydraulic fluid to normal and alternate brakes (priority to normal brakes). a. The Brake selector valve. b. The Automatic selector. c. The Parking brake control valve. d. The Dual shuttle valve.
29. Which nose gear steering control is capable of providing 6° (left/right) turn to nose gear. a. The rudder pedals (captain and F.O.) through ELAC´s. b. The handwheels (captain and F.O.). c. The electrical box (located on nose gear). d. All of the above.
30. What happens with the nose gear steering system if the gears have been extended by “free fall” (gravity extension). a. The steering system works normally. b. The steering system is lost. c. The steering system can only work with rudder pedals. d. The steering system only obeys autopilot commands through ELAC’s (elevator aileron computers).
1. Que LGCIU proporciona las indicaciones de posición de los trenes y puertas en la Wheel page de ECAM. a. LGCIU 1. b. LGCIU 2. c. Ambas. d. Ninguna.
2. Cual de los sistemas hidráulicos del avión se encarga de proporcionar la presión para la operación normal de extensión y retracción de los trenes, y el nose gear steering. a. Sistema verde. b. Sistema Azul. c. Sistema Amarillo.
3. En tierra es posible colocar en la posición UP la landing gear control lever cuando el avión está completamente desenergizado y con los sistemas hidráulicos despresurizados. a. Verdadero. b. Falso.
4. Que LGCIU proporciona las indicaciones de posición de los trenes y puertas en el landing gear indicator panel (center instrument panel). a. LGCIU 1. b. LGCIU 2. c. Ambas. d. Ninguna.
5. Por qué es necesario operar las vent valves del sistema hidráulico primero cuando se realiza una extensión por gravedad (gravity extension) a través del giro de la gravity extension crank handle. a. Para presurizar el lado de extensión de los actuadores de los trenes. b. Para prevenir un bloqueo hidráulico de las líneas al liberar los trenes. c. Para liberar mecánicamente los trenes y puertas de los uplock boxes. d. Todas las anteriores.
6. Que componente se encarga de proporcionar soporte longitudinal a los main gears. a. El drag stay assembly. b. El lock stay assembly. c. El side stay assembly. d. El torque y el slave link.
7. Que sistema hidráulico proporciona la presión para operar los alternate brakes (frenos alternos). a. Sistema verde. b. Sistema Azul. c. Sistema Amarillo.
8. Que componente de los main gears se encarga de asegurar los trenes en la posición extendida cuando existe presión hidráulica disponible. a. El actuating cylinder. b. El lock stay actuator. c. Los downlock springs. d. El uplock box.
9. Que indicaciones tendremos en el cockpit cuando después de la retracción los trenes aseguren en la posición uplocked. a. Los triángulos verdes en el landing gear indicator panel y la wheel page desplegada automáticamente en ECAM. b. La palabra UNLK de color rojo en el landing gear indicator panel y la wheel page desplegada automáticamente en ECAM. c. Solo los triángulos verdes en el landing gear indicator panel. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.
10. Bajo condiciones normales de operación cuando ocurre el cambio automático de LGCIU (landing gear control interface unit) en control de la retracción y extensión de los trenes hacia la otra LGCIU que estaba en standby. a. Al seleccionar el landing gear control lever en la posición UP. b. Al seleccionar el landing gear control lever en la posición DOWN. c. Cuando los trenes aseguran en la posición Downlocked. d. Cuando los trnes aseguran en la posición uplocked.
11. Que componente de los main gears se encarga de asegurar los trenes mecánicamente en la posición retraida . a. El actuating cylinder. b. El lock stay actuator. c. Los downlock springs. d. El uplock box.
12. Que componente del sistema de landing gear se encarga de proporcionar la fuerza necesaria a través de presión hidráulica para realizar la operación de extensión y retracción de los trenes. a. El actuating cylinder. b. El lock stay actuator. c. Los downlock springs. d. El uplock box.
13. Con el sistema de antiskid operativo, que componente se encarga de modular físicamente la presión aplicada a los frenos cuando se detecta una condición de bloqueo (patinaje) de alguna rueda (frenos normales o alternos). a. Los tacómetros controlados por la BSCU.. b. La dual shuttle valve controlada por la BSCU.. c. La dual valve controlada por la BSCU.. d. Las normal o alternate servovalves controladas por la BSCU.
14. Que control del sistema de nose gear steering es capaz de proporcionar 74° (left/right) de giro al nose gear. a. Los rudder pedals (capitán y F.O.) a través de las ELAC´s. b. Los handwheels (capitán y F.O.). c. El electrical box (ubicada en el nose gear). d. Todas las anteriores.
15. Que componente se encarga de proporcionar soporte lateral a los main gears. a. El drag stay assembly. b. El lock stay assembly. c. El side stay assembly. d. El torque y el slave link.
16. Que indicaciones tendremos en el cockpit cuando se aplican los frenos con alternate brakes. a. Presión aplicada a los frenos en la Wheel page de ECAM. b. Presión aplicada a los frenos por medio del triple indicator (center instrument panel). c. Luces de indicación verdes DECEL en el panel de Autobrake. d. Ninguna indicación.
17. Que componente de los main gears se encarga de asegurar los trenes en la posición extendida cuando NO existe presión hidráulica disponible. a. El actuating cylinder. b. El lock stay actuator. c. Los downlock springs. d. El uplock box.
18. Que modo de aplicación de los frenos tiene prioridad sobre los otros modos (se vuelven inoperativos de manera eléctrica e hidráulica). a. Normal brakes con antiskid aplicados por Autobrake system. b. Normal brakes con antiskid aplicados manualmente (con los rudder pedals). c. Alternate brakes con antiskid aplicados manualmente (con los rudder pedals). d. Alternate brakes sin antiskid aplicados maualmente (con los rudder pedals). e. Parking brake aplicado con parking brake control handle.
19. Que componente se encarga de evitar el movimiento de rotación entre los cilindros interno y externo el shock absorber de los main gears, sin interferir con el movimiento reciprocante utilizado para absorber el impacto durante el aterrizaje. a. El drag stay assembly. b. El lock stay assembly. c. El side stay assembly. d. El torque y el slave link.
20. En el sistema de nose gear steering que sucede en tierra si se mueven simultáneamente los rudder pedals y/o los steering handwheels del capitán y del primer oficial. a. El primer control movido tiene prioridad sobre los otros controles. b. El nose gear steering obedece los comandos del capitán, ya que éste tiene prioridad. c. El nose gear steering obedece los comandos del primer oficial, ya que éste tiene prioridad. d. El nose gear steering obedece la suma algebraica de los comandos de todos los controles.
21. Que sucede con el sistema de autobrake cuando cualquiera de las normal servovalves se encuentra inoperativa. a. El sistema de autobrake puede armarse de manera normal. b. El sistema de autobrake se deshabilita (no puede armarse). c. El sistema de autobrake puede utilizar la alternate servovalve para aplicar los frenos. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.
22. La flecha roja de indicación a la par de la landing gear control lever se enciende bajo las siguientes circumstancias. a. Cualquier tren que no se encuentre en condición uplocked después de colocar el control lever en posición UP. b. Los trenes en tránsito. c. Cualquier tren que no se encuentre en condición downlocked después de colocar el control lever en posición DOWN. d. Cualquier tren que no se encuentre en condición downlocked con el avión en configuración de approach.
23. Que componente del sistema de extensión y retracción permite interrumpir el paso de fluido hidráulico a presión hacia el sistema de landing gear cuando la velocidad del avión es superior a 260 knots. a. La safety valve. b. La cutout valve. c. Uplock box mechanical release. d. Door bypass valves.
24. Que componente del sistema de extensión y retracción permite liberar solo la presión de los actuadores de las puertas hacia el retorno, para permitir la apertura por gravedad de éstas cuando el avión está en tierra y así tener acceso al landing gear bay. a. La safety valve. b. La cutout valve. c. Uplock box mechanical release. d. Door bypass valves.
25. Que componente del sistema de extensión y retracción permite interrumpir el paso de fluido hidráulico a presión hacia el sistema de landing gear al llevar a cabo la extensión por gravedad (free fall) de los trenes. a. La safety valve. b. La cutout valve c. Uplock box mechanical release. d. Door bypass valves.
26. Que componente del sistema de frenos permite al energizarse deshabilitar todos los demás modos de frenado (hidráulicamente a través de ella misma y eléctricamente por medio de la BSCU). a. Brake selector valve. b. Automatic selector. c. Parking brake control valve. d. Dual shuttle valve.
27. Que sucede con el sistema de nose gear steering si los frenos están siendo aplicados por medio de los alternate brakes con antiskid disponible (BSCU 100 % operativa). a. El sistema del steering funciona normal para dirigir al avión en tierra. b. El sistema del steering se pierde. c. El sistema del steering solo puede funcionar con los rudder pedals. d. El sistema del steering solo oberdece órdenes del autopilot a través de las ELAC (elevator aileron computers).
28. Que componente (completamente mecánico) del sistema de frenos permite suministrar fluido a presión de los sistemas hidráulicos hacia los frenos normales y alternos, dando prioridad a la alimentación de los frenos normales. a. Brake selector valve. b. Automatic selector. c. Parking brake control valve. d. Dual shuttle valve.
29. Que control del sistema de nose gear steering es capaz de proporcionar 6° (left/right) de giro al nose gear. a. Los rudder pedals (capitán y F.O.) a través de las ELAC´s. b. Los handwheels (capitán y F.O.). c. El electrical box (ubicada en el nose gear). d. Todas las anteriores.
30. Que sucede con el sistema de nose gear steering si los trenes han sido extendidos por “free fall” (gravity extension). a. El sistema del steering funciona normal para dirigir al avión en tierra. b. El sistema del steering se pierde. c. El sistema del steering solo puede funcionar con los rudder pedals. d. El sistema del steering solo oberdece órdenes del autopilot a través de las ELAC (elevator aileron computers).
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