1. Cuando existe una falla completa de los ADIRU’s 1, 2 & 3, que instrumento de standby proporciona a la tripulación la información referente a attitude (pitch & roll) del avión. a. Standby altimeter. b. Standby airspeed indicator. c. Standby compass. d. Standby horizon.
2. Que componente del sistema de navegación permite sintonizar manualmente las frecuencias (backup tuning) de estaciones de VOR, DME, ILS, etc. cuando existe una falla simultánea de las FMGC’s 1 & 2. a. Los MCDU’s (multipurpose control & display units). b. Las FAC’s (flight augmentation computers). c. Los RMP’s (radio management panels). d. Todos los anteriores.
3. Bajo condiciones normales de operación (todos los ADIRU’s operativos) cual es la fuente normal que proporciona la información desplegada en los diferentes EFIS. a. ADIRU 1 proporciona la información a PFD1, ND1 y DDRMI (digital distance radio magnetic indicator) y ADIRU 3 proporciona información a PFD2 & ND2. b. ADIRU 2 proporciona la información a PFD1, ND1 y DDRMI (digital distance radio magnetic indicator) y ADIRU 3 proporciona información a PFD2 & ND2. c. ADIRU 1 proporciona la información a PFD1, ND1 y DDRMI (digital distance radio magnetic indicator) y ADIRU 2 proporciona información a PFD2 & ND2. d. ADIRU 2 proporciona la información a PFD1, ND1 y DDRMI (digital distance radio magnetic indicator) y ADIRU 1 proporciona información a PFD2 & ND2.
4. Que componente del air data system recibe directamente los valores de presión dinámica (pitot) y estática para proporcionar sus indicaciones en los instrumentos del cockpit. a. El standby altimeter & airspeed indicator. b. Los ADIRU’s. c. El ADM (air data module). d. El AOA (angle of attack) sensor. e. El TAT (total air temp) sensor.
5. Si perdemos las indicaciones de Airspeed, vertical speed y altitud en el PFD del primer oficial (falla del air data reference del ADIRU2), como pueden recobrarse las indicaciones en los instrumentos. a. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch ATT HDG (center pedestal) en la posición F/O 3. b. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch AIR DATA (center pedestal) en la posición F/O 3. c. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch ATT HDG (center pedestal) en la posición CAPT 3. d. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch AIR DATA (center pedestal) en la posición CAPT 3.
6. Que parte del sistema de ILS (instrument landing system) proporciona a la tripulación el alineamiento correcto del avión con el centro de la pista. a. El Localizer LOC. b. El glideslope G/S. c. El VOR. d. El ADF.
7. En que instrumentos se despliega la información proporcionada por el ILS receiver 2 a través del DMC correspondiente. a. En el PFD1 & ND1. b. En el PFD2 & ND2. c. En el PFD1 & ND2. d. En el PFD2 & ND1.
8. Donde se encuentra ubicada la antena dual del sistema de VOR. a. En la parte superior del fuselaje. b. En la parte inferior del fuselaje. c. En el vertical stabilizer. d. En el área del radome.
9. En que instrumentos se despliega la información proporcionada por el WR (weather radar) transceiver a través del DMC correspondiente. a. En los PFD’s 1 & 2. b. En los ND’s 1 & 2. c. En el DDRMI (digital distance radio magnetic indicator). d. En el WR radar display.
10. Que tipo de indicaciones puede generar el sistema TCAS II cuando un avión intruso dentro del volumen RA está equipado solo con transponder mode C o mode S. a. Capacidad de generar RA (resolution advisories) con coordinación de maniobras verticales. b. Capacidad de generar TA (traffic advisories) con coordinación de maniobras verticales. c. Capacidad de generar RA (resolution advisories) sin coordinación de maniobras verticales. d. Capacidad de generar TA (traffic advisories) sin coordinación de maniobras verticales. e. No hay indicaciones si el intruso no está equipado con TCAS II.
11. Cual de los ADIRU’s proporciona normalmente las indicaciones de bearing y heading en el DDRMI (digital distance magnetic indicator). a. ADIRU1. b. ADIRU2. c. ADIRU3.
12. Que parte del sistema de ILS (instrument landing system) proporciona a la tripulación el ángulo correcto de descenso hacia la pista. a. El Localizer LOC. b. El glideslope G/S. c. El VOR. d. El ADF.
13. Cual de los sensores y probes del avión se encarga de sensar la presión utilizada para determinar la altitud del avión y proporcionarla a los ADIRU’s. a. Pitot probes. b. Static ports. c. TAT (total air temp) sensor. d. AOA (angle of attack) sensor.
14. Si se pierden las indicaciones de pitch & roll en el PFD1 (falla del IR1) como puede recobrarse las indicaciones correspondientes. a. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch ATT HDG (center pedestal) en la posición F/O 3. b. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch AIR DATA (center pedestal) en la posición F/O 3. c. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch ATT HDG (center pedestal) en la posición CAPT 3. d. Colocando manualmente el rotary switch AIR DATA (center pedestal) en la posición CAPT 3.
15. Cuando existe una falla completa de los ADIRU’s 1, 2 & 3, que instrumento de standby proporciona a la tripulación la información referente a heading magnético del avión. a. Standby altimeter. b. Standby airspeed indicator. c. Standby compass. d. Standby horizon.
16. Donde se encuentra ubicada la antena de LOC (localizer) del sistema de ILS. a. En la parte superior del fuselaje. b. En la parte inferior del fuselaje. c. En el vertical stabilizer. d. En el área del radome.
17. Que componente del air data system se encarga de convertir los valores de presión dinámica (pitot) y estática en formato digital de entrada para la parte de air data reference de los ADIRU’s. a. El standby altimeter & airspeed indicator. b. El pitot probe. c. El ADM (air data module). d. El AOA (angle of attack) sensor. e. El TAT (total air temp) sensor.
18. Cual es el bearing magnético del avión con respecta a la estación sintonizada en el VOR receiver 1. a. 210°. b. 192°. c. 168°. d. 180°.
19. Cual es el bearing magnético del avión con respecta a la estación sintonizada en el VOR receiver 2. a. 210°. b. 192°. c. 168°. d. 180°.
20. Como ha sido sintonizada la frecuencia de 112.1 Mhz en el VOR receiver 2. a. Automática a través de las FMGC’s. b. Manual a través del MCDU. c. Manual a través del RMP (backup).
21. Que desviación lateral tiene el avión con respecto al curso de 215° seleccionado. a. 1°. b. 2°. c. 5°. d. 10°.
22. Cual es la altitud del avión. a. 1500 ft. b. 1300 ft. c. 1380 ft. d. 4000 ft.
23. Cual es la velocidad vertical del avión.. a. +1300 ft/min (subiendo). b. -1300 ft/min (bajando). c. +700 ft/min (subiendo). d. –700 ft/min (bajando). .
24. Cual es la posición del avión respecto al ángulo de descenso a la pista. a. Por arriba. b. Por abajo. c. En el ángulo correcto.
25. Cual es la posición del avión respecto al centro de la pista. a. A la derecha. b. A la izquierda. c. Centrado.
1. Cual de los siguientes componentes (controlado eléctricamente por el ECB y operado hidráulicamente con presión de combustible) tiene como función liberar la presión producida por el exceso de bleed air entregado a los sistemas de ECS del avión por parte del Load Compressor, y de esta manera evitar la formación de stalls. a. Fuel control unit. b. Load bleed valve c. Surge control valve SCV. d. Inlet guide vanes IGV’s.
2. Que sucede si el electronic control box ECB no recibe la señal de confirmación de FLAP OPEN por parte del intake flap durante la secuencia de arranque del APU. a. La secuencia de arranque continúa. b. La secuencia de arranque se detiene. c. El intake flap tiene que abrirse de manera manual. d. El intake flap se abre de manera automática.
3. En que consiste la power section del APU. a. Engine compressor. b. Turbine. c. Combustion chamber. d. Todos los anteriores.
4. Cual de los siguientes componentes (controlado eléctricamente por el ECB) tiene como función regular la cantidad de combustible entregado al combustion chamber durante la operación del APU. a. Fuel control unit. b. Load control valve LCV. c. Surge control valve SCV. d. Inlet guide vanes IGV’s.
5. Que componente se encarga de convertir la energía del aire a alta temperatura en energía mecánica de rotación transmitida hacia los compresores por medio del eje común. a. Load control valve LCV. b. Surge control valve SCV. c. Inlet guide vanes IGV’s. d. Turbine .
6. Cual de los siguientes componentes (controlado eléctricamente por el ECB y operada neumáticamente) tiene como función interconectar la salida del Load Compressor a los sistemas de ECS del avión para proporcionar el bleed air. a. Fuel control unit. b. Load bleed valve. c. Surge control valve SCV. d. Inlet guide vanes IGV’s.
7. Después de presionar el APU master sw para iniciar el shutdown (si el APU fue cargado solo con eléctrico durante su operación) el proceso de shutdown se lleva a cabo de manera inmediata sin período de cooldown. a. Verdadero. b. Falso.
8. Que componente del sistema de combustible se encarga de atomizar el combustible entregado al APU por el manifold para soportar la combustión en el combustion chamber. a. Ignition unit & igniter plug. b. Flow divider & solenoid valve. c. Fuel nozzles. d. EGT thermocouples.
9. Que componente proporciona el movimiento inicial de rotación durante el proceso del arranque del APU hasta que el motor alcanza las suficientes RPM (50% rpm) para mantenerse por sí mismo. a. Starter motor. b. Starter clutch. c. Speed sensor. d. DMM (data memory module).
10. Que componente del sistema de combustible (normalmente cerrada) es energizada a la posición abierta para permitir el paso de combustible durante la operación del APU con una señal eléctrica de control proveniente del ECB y además se utiliza para interrumpir el paso de combustible durante el proceso de shutdown normal o protectivo. a. Fuel control unit torquemotor. b. Electronic control box c. Fuel control unit d. Fuel shutoff solenoid valve.
1. How is the TLA (thrust lever angle) transmitted to the EEC, when the engine thrust levers are moved in the cockpit a. By means of cables and pushrods between the thrust levers and the fuel metering unit. b. By means of mechanical movement supplied by the thrust lever resolvers. c. By means of electrical signals supplied by the thrust lever resolvers. d. None of the above.
2. Which component from the lubrication system is utilized to monitor if any of the gearbox internal components is suffering from excessive wear. a. The scavenge pump. b. The pressure filter. c. The No. 4 bearing scavenge valve. d. The master magnetic chip detector.
3. What air is used in the turbines Active Clearance Control ACC. a. Fan air. b. Engine core air. c. 7th and 10th compressor stage air. d. 12th compressor stage air.
4. What parameter takes into account the EEC to automatically control the recirculation/return of the fuel, as part of the HMS (Heat management system) a. Fuel temperature. b. Engine oil temperature. c. IDG oil temperature. d. All of the above.
5. What happens if any of the output signal of the EEC channel in control of the engine is lost: a. The channel in control takes the input signal from the standby active channel. b. The EEC uses synthesized values from the healthiest channel. c. There is an automatic switchover to the standby active channel. d. The components controlled by the EEC go to the “FAIL-SAFE” position.
6. What is the purpose of the deoiler in the engine lubrication system. a. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the air to the tank and discharging the oil in the gearbox. b. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the oil to the tank and discharging the air in the gearbox. c. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the air to the tank and discharging the oil to the atmosphere (overboard). d. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the oil to the tank and discharging the air to the atmosphere (overboard).
7. Which thrust reverser actuators keep the reversers locked in the “stowed” position (retracted, forward thrust) by means of integral mechanical locks inside the actuator. a. Upper actuators. b. Lower actuators.
8. In the engine secondary air systems, what air is used to cool both HP turbine stages (make-up air). a. Fan air. b. Booster stage air (LPC). c. 10th stage air (HPC). d. 12th stage air (HPC).
9. Which component energizes the EEC during engine start (N2< 10 % rpm). a. 115 VAC Aircraft electrical network. b. 28 VDC Aircraft electrical network. c. The dedicated alternator located in the accessory gearbox. d. All of the above.
10. Which component energizes the ignition units through the relay box to provide the spark during engine start. a. 115 VAC Aircraft electrical network. b. 28 VDC Aircraft electrical network. c. The dedicated alternator located in the accessory gearbox. d. All of the above.
11. Which of the following components from the engine fuel system cuts off the fuel flow (in conjunction with the LP fuel valve and according to Eng. Master Lever or Eng. Fire PB) to the nozzles, during normal or emergency shutdown of the engine. a. The Fuel Diverter & Return to Tank Valve. b. The Fuel Metering Valve. c. The Overspeed Valve. d. The Pressure Raising & Shutoff Valve.
12. Is it possible to determine from the ECAM engine page which ignition system (A, B or both) is in use during the engine start process. a. Yes. b. No.
13. What happens if the output signals of both EEC channels (channel in control and standby active channel) are lost: a. The channel in control takes the input signal from the standby active channel. b. The EEC uses synthesized values from the healthiest channel. c. There is an automatic switchover to the standby active channel. d. The components controlled by the EEC go to the “FAIL-SAFE” position.
14. What ECAM indications are displayed when the thust reverser is completely deployed. a. The word “REV” boxed amber in the EPR dial. b. The word “REV” boxed green in the EPR dial. c. The word “REV” boxed red in the EPR dial. d. There is no indication on ECAM.
15. When performing an engine manual start, which is the only automatic action carried out by the EEC. a. Opening of the starter valve to turn N2. b. Provide double ignition at 16% N2. c. Provide fuel at 18% N2. d. Closure of the starter valve and ignition cutoff at 43% N2.
16. What pressure is as control parameter (servo pressure) to allow the opening of the 7th and 10th stages handling Under normal operating conditions, which ratio provides the primary thrust indication of the engine (EPR). a. HPT Inlet pressure / HPT outlet pressure. b. Fan Inlet pressure / LPT outlet pressure. c. HPT Outlet pressure / HPC inlet pressure. d. LPT Outlet pressure / Fan inlet pressure.
17. Which compressor airflow system controls the thermal expansion of the turbine case, in order to keep the turbine blade tips clearances within certain limits. a. Heat management system HMS. b. Booster stage bleed system BSBV. c. Variable Stator vane system VSV. d. Active clearance control system ACC.
18. What happens if any of the input signals of the EEC channel in control of the engine is lost. a. The channel in control takes the input signal from the standby active channel. b. The EEC uses synthesized values from the healthiest channel. c. There is an automatic switchover to the standby active channel. d. The components controlled by the EEC go to the “FAIL-SAFE” position.
19. Which component from the engine fuel system regulates the flow of fuel to the engine (according to an electrical signal coming from the EEC) to the nozzles, to satisfy aircraft thrust requirements. a. The Fuel Diverter & Return to Tank Valve. b. The Fuel Metering Valve. c. The Overspeed Valve. d. The Pressure Raising & Shutoff Valve.
20. During an engine manual sequence, which action opens the fuel LP valve and the PRSOV (pressure raising & shutoff valve) to allow fuel into the combustion chamber. a. Set the rotary switch in the IGN/START position (center pedestal). b. Set the ENG MASTER LEVER in the ON position (center pedestal). c. Set the ENG MAN START PB in the ON position(overhead). d. Set the rotary switch in the NORM position (center pedestal).
1. Which component from the lubrication system is utilized to monitor if any of the gearbox internal components is suffering from excessive wear. a. The scavenge pump. b. The pressure filter. c. The No. 4 bearing scavenge valve. d. The master magnetic chip detector.
2. What air is used in the turbines Active Clearance Control ACC. a. Fan air. b. Engine core air. c. 7th and 10th compressor stage air. d. 12th compressor stage air.
3. What parameter takes into account the EEC to automatically control the recirculation/return of the fuel, as part of the HMS (Heat management system) a. Fuel temperature. b. Engine oil temperature. c. IDG oil temperature. d. All of the above.
4. What happens if any of the output signal of the EEC channel in control of the engine is lost: a. The channel in control takes the input signal from the standby active channel. b. The EEC uses synthesized values from the healthiest channel. c. There is an automatic switchover to the standby active channel. d. The components controlled by the EEC go to the “FAIL-SAFE” position.
5. What is the purpose of the deoiler in the engine lubrication system. a. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the air to the tank and discharging the oil in the gearbox. b. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the oil to the tank and discharging the air in the gearbox. c. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the air to the tank and discharging the oil to the atmosphere (overboard). d. Separate the air/oil mixture used to pressurize the bearing compartments, returning the oil to the tank and discharging the air to the atmosphere (overboard).
6. Which thrust reverser actuators keep the reversers locked in the “stowed” position (retracted, forward thrust) by means of integral mechanical locks inside the actuator. a. Upper actuators. b. Lower actuators.
7. In the engine secondary air systems, what air is used to cool both HP turbine stages (make-up air). a. Fan air. b. Booster stage air (LPC). c. 10th stage air (HPC). d. 12th stage air (HPC).
8. Which component energizes the EEC during engine start (N2< 10 % rpm). a. 115 VAC Aircraft electrical network. b. 28 VDC Aircraft electrical network. c. The dedicated alternator located in the accessory gearbox. d. All of the above.
9. Which component energizes the ignition units through the relay box to provide the spark during engine start. a. 115 VAC Aircraft electrical network. b. 28 VDC Aircraft electrical network. c. The dedicated alternator located in the accessory gearbox. d. All of the above.
10. Which of the following components from the engine fuel system cuts off the fuel flow (in conjunction with the LP fuel valve and according to Eng. Master Lever or Eng. Fire PB) to the nozzles, during normal or emergency shutdown of the engine. a. The Fuel Diverter & Return to Tank Valve. b. The Fuel Metering Valve. c. The Overspeed Valve. d. The Pressure Raising & Shutoff Valve.
11. Is it possible to determine from the ECAM engine page which ignition system (A, B or both) is in use during the engine start process. a. Yes. b. No.
12. What happens if the output signals of both EEC channels (channel in control and standby active channel) are lost: a. The channel in control takes the input signal from the standby active channel. b. The EEC uses synthesized values from the healthiest channel. c. There is an automatic switchover to the standby active channel. d. The components controlled by the EEC go to the “FAIL-SAFE” position.
13. What ECAM indications are displayed when the thrust reverser is completely deployed. a. The word “REV” boxed amber in the EPR dial. b. The word “REV” boxed green in the EPR dial. c. The word “REV” boxed red in the EPR dial. d. There is no indication on ECAM.
14. When performing an engine manual start, which is the only automatic action carried out by the EEC. a. Opening of the starter valve to turn N2. b. Provide double ignition at 16% N2. c. Provide fuel at 18% N2. d. Closure of the starter valve and ignition cutoff at 43% N2.
15. What pressure is as control parameter (servo pressure) to allow the opening of the 7th and 10th stages handling bleed valves, and also the 10th stage make-up air valve: a. P2 (Fan inlet pressure). b. P2.5 (LPC exit pressure). c. P3 (HPC exit pressure). d. P4.9 (LPT exit pressure).
16. Under normal operating conditions, which ratio provides the primary thrust indication of the engine (EPR). a. HPT Inlet pressure / HPT outlet pressure. b. Fan Inlet pressure / LPT outlet pressure. c. HPT Outlet pressure / HPC inlet pressure. d. LPT Outlet pressure / Fan inlet pressure.
18. Which component from the engine fuel system regulates the flow of fuel to the engine (according to an electrical signal coming from the EEC) to the nozzles, to satisfy aircraft thrust requirements. a. The Fuel Diverter & Return to Tank Valve. b. The Fuel Metering Valve. c. The Overspeed Valve. d. The Pressure Raising & Shutoff Valve.
19. During the engine manual start sequence, which action opens the starter valve allowing the pneumatic starter to rotate N2 through the gearbox. a. Set the rotary switch in IGN/START position (center pedestal). b. Set the ENG MASTER LEVER in ON position (center pedestal). c. Set the ENG MAN START PB in ON position (overhead). d. Set the rotary switch in NORM position (center pedestal).
20. Inside the ACAC (air cooled air cooler) what air is used to cool down the air utilized to pressurize and cool the No.4 bearing compartment (buffer air). a. Fan air. b. Booster stage air (LPC). c. 10th stage air (HPC). d. 12th stage air (HPC).
21. During an engine manual sequence, which action opens the fuel LP valve and the PRSOV (pressure raising & shutoff valve) to allow fuel into the combustion chamber. a. Set the rotary switch in the IGN/START position (center pedestal). b. Set the ENG MASTER LEVER in the ON position (center pedestal). c. Set the ENG MAN START PB in the ON position (overhead). d. Set the rotary switch in the NORM position (center pedestal).
22. During manual or automatic engine start sequence, which action initially energizes the EEC to begin the start procedure. a. Set the rotary switch in IGN/START position (center pedestal). b. Set the ENG MASTER LEVER in ON position (center pedestal). c. Set the ENG MAN START PB in ON position (overhead). d. Set the rotary switch in NORM position (center pedestal).
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