ATP 2020

9350. Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?. A—When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. B—When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. C—When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

9350-1. The second-in-command of an aircraft in domestic operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold. A—an airline transport pilot certificate and a first class medical. B—an airline transport pilot certificate with an SIC aircraft type rating. C—a commercial pilot certificate with instrument rating, a second-class medical, and a type rating appropriate for the aircraft being flown.

9328. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?. A—Commercial – B-737; ATP – B-727 and B-747. B—ATP – B-747; Commercial – B-727 and B-737. C—ATP – B-747, B-727, and B-737.

9329. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised. A—ATP – B-727 and DC-3; Commercial – DC-9. B—ATP – B-727 only; Commercial – DC-9 and DC 3. C—ATP – B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

9329-1. The lowest CAT II minimums are. A—DH 100 and RVR 1200. B—DH 150 and RVR 1600. C—DH 50 and RVR 1200.

9329-2. The lowest authorized ILS minimums associated with CAT II approaches are. A—Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet). B—DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C—No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than 700 feet but not less than 150 feet.

9330. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. A—6 hours. B—8 hours. C—10 hours.

9331. The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. A—30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. B—7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. C—36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

9351. When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid. A—30 days. B—60 days. C—90 days.

9332. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?. A—No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. B—No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. C—Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

Which is a definition of the term “crewmember”?. A—Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B—A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C—Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

9349. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. A—required to have a least a current third-class medical certificate. B—required to have a current first-class medical certificate. C—not required to hold a medical certificate.

9335. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is. A—required to have a first-class medical certificate. B—required to have a second-class medical certificate. C—not required to have a medical certificate.

9333. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. A—required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B—not required to have a medical certificate. C—required to have a first-class medical certificate.

9343. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. A—required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B—is not required to have a medical certificate. C—required to have a first-class medical certificate.

9340. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. A—a first-class medical certificate. B—at least a current third-class medical certificate. C—a second-class medical certificate.

8191. The “age 65 rule” of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to. A—any required pilot crewmember. B—any flight crewmember. C—the pilot in command only.

8189. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations. A—If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B—If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C—If required by the airplane’s type certificate.

8190. When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. A—80,000 pounds. B—more than 80,000 pounds. C—300,000 pounds.

8212. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated. A—at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B—one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C—one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

8213. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. A—one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B—the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified. C—at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

8188. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer’s duties?. A—The second in command only. B—Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C—Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

8192. An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard. A-4. B- 3. C- 2.

8193. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. A- 5. B-4. C-3.

8201. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. A- 5. B- 4. C- 3.

8202. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. A-7. B- 6. C- 5.

9339. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. A—12 months. B—90 days. C—6 months.

9344. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. A—six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B—six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C—six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

9342. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. A—All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B—One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C—One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

9342-1. An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC. A—in Part 121 operations. B—in Part 91, subpart K operations. C—in Part 135 operations.

9342-2. The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as. A—a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier. B—a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a Part 121 SIC. C—an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.

9334. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. A—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B—Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

9345. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. A—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C—Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

9346. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. A—When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B—When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C—120 days after issue or renewal.

9347. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. A—Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B—pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C—Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

9348. What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization. A—100 feet AGL. B—150 feet AGL. C—200 feet AGL.

8215. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. A—upgrade training. B—transition training. C—initial training.

8216. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. A—Upgrade training. B—Recurrent training. C—Initial training.

8217. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. A—difference training. B—transition training. C—upgrade training.

8205. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

8207. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

8210. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?. A—The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B—The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C—The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

8214. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. A—November 2010. B—December 2011. C—January 2011.

8208. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. A—At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B—At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C—At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

8209. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience. A—At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B—At least one full stop landing must be made. C—At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

8289. When a pilot’s flight time consists of 80 hours’ pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. A—Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. B—Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. C—Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

8285. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. A—logged 90 hours’ flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B—made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C—logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

8230. To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a person must, in addition to other requirements,. A—within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend 2.5 hours observing flight deck operations, plus two additional takeoff and landings, in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. B—within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. C—within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in each type of airplane, in each group that he/she is to dispatch.

8082. What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a multiengine airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier?. A—Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class. B—Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if required. C—Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; airplane type rating, if required.

8083. What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot-in-command of a multiengine airplane in commuter air carrier service under IFR?. A—Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine class rating. B—Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if required. C—Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class and instrument rating.

8094. Which takeoff computation must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of the stopway for a turbine-engine-powered small transport category airplane?. A—Takeoff distance. B—Acceleration-stop distance. C—Acceleration-climb distance.

8100. A person is assigned as pilot in command to fly both single-engine and multiengine airplanes and has passed the initial instrument proficiency check in a multiengine airplane. Which requirement applies regarding each succeeding instrument check?. A—The instrument check must be taken every 6 calendar months in both a single-engine and a multiengine airplane. B—The instrument check must be taken alternately in single-engine and multiengine airplanes every 6 calendar months. C—The instrument check may be taken in either a single-engine or multiengine airplane if taken at intervals of 6 calendar months.

8103. A person is acting as pilot in command of a multiengine, turboprop-powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If eight takeoffs and landings are accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as pilot in command. A—7 hours, and two takeoffs and landing. B—10 hours, and three takeoffs and landings. C—10 hours, and two takeoffs and one landings.

8107. What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a turbojet airplane with two engines being operated by a Commuter Air Carrier. A—Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if required. B—Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine class rating; airplane type rating. C—Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class rating; instrument rating; airplane type rating.

8108. A person is acting as pilot in command of a multiengine, reciprocating engine powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If five takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as the pilot in command?. A—Two takeoffs and landings, and 8 hours. B—Five takeoffs and landings, and 5 hours. C—Three takeoffs and landings, and 7 hours.

8109. A person is acting as pilot in command of a turbojet powered airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If 10 takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as pilot in command?. A—10 hours. B—15 hours. C—10 hours, and five takeoffs and landings.

8110. A pilot’s experience includes 8 hours in a particular make and basic model multiengine, turboprop airplane while acting as pilot-in-command. Which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirements for designation as pilot in command of that airplane when operated by a commuter air carrier in passenger-carrying service?. A—Twelve takeoffs and landings. B—Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. C—Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours.

8111. A person is acting as pilot in command of a single-engine airplane operated in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If six takeoffs and landings have been accomplished in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command experience meets the requirement for designation as pilot in command?. A—4 hours. B—5 hours. C—6 hours.

9618. (Refer to Figure 301.) The PIC (single pilot 135 with A/P) of PTZ 70 has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow, which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and received clearance to SYR, the filed alternate. Under Part 135, what are the PIC’s minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10?. A—800/2. B—719/42. C—619/50.

8018. Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the flight controls. A—A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for the aircraft. B—An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations. C—A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight tests.

8026. A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of. A—15 or more. B—19 or more. C—20 or more.

8027. Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the. A—location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers. B—use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking. C—use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.

8028. Before takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency use of oxygen. A—if the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet MSL. B—regardless of the altitude at which the flight will operate. C—if the flight involves operations at or above 12,000 feet MSL for more than 30 minutes.

8029. The oral before flight briefing required on passenger-carrying aircraft shall be. A—supplemented by an actual demonstration of emergency exit door operation by a crewmember. B—presented by the pilot in command or another flight crewmember, as a crewmember demonstrates the operation of the emergency equipment. C—conducted by a crewmember or the pilot in command and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger.

8034. A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and no second in command?. A—100 hours as pilot in command in the category, class, and type. B—50 hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model. C—100 hours as pilot in command in the make and model.

8035. Which is a condition that must be met by a commuter air carrier certificate holder to have an aircraft approved for operation with an autopilot system and no second in command?. A—The passenger seating configuration is 10 or more, including any pilot seat. B—The autopilot system is capable of operating the controls to maintain flight and to maneuver the aircraft about the three axes. C—The operation is restricted to VFR or VFR over-the-top.

8036. An autopilot may not be used in place of a second in command in any aircraft. A—being operated in commuter air carrier service. B—having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot’s seat, of 10 seats or more. C—having a total seating capacity of 10 or more seats and being operated in commuter air service.

8044. What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command?. A—15 seats. B—12 seats. C—10 seats.

8076. When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a pilot station. A—When operating an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or less. B—When the pilot cannot perform the required duties with the shoulder harness fastened. C—When serving as pilot in command or second in command of an aircraft having a total seating capacity of eight seats or less.

8095. To serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line check. A—consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at representative airports, within the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. B—within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. C—since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least one flight over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.

8096. What are the minimum requirements for the line check required of each pilot in command authorized for IFR air taxi operations? The line check shall be given over. A—one route segment in each type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports. B—a civil airway or an approved off-airway route, or a portion of either of them, in one type of airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports. C—a civil airway or an approved off-airway route in each make and model airplane the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or more representative airports.

8097. No certificate holder may use a person as pilot in command unless that person has passed a line check. A—since the beginning of the 12th month before serving as pilot in command. B—since the beginning of the 6th month before serving as pilot in command. C—within the past 6 months.

8098. A person may act as pilot in command of both type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an instrument proficiency check has been passed in. A—either type A or B since the beginning of the 12th month before time to serve. B—type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and in type B since the beginning of the 6th month before time to serve. C—type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and in type B since the beginning of the 24th month before time to serve.

8099. A pilot in command is authorized to use an autopilot system in place of a second in command. During the instrument proficiency check, that person is required to demonstrate (without a second in command) the ability to. A—comply with complex ATC instructions with, but not without, the autopilot. B—properly conduct air-ground communications with, but not without, the autopilot. C—properly conduct instrument operations competently both with, and without, the autopilot.

8101. A person may not serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation unless that person has passed an. A—aircraft competency, an instrument proficiency, and autopilot check within the previous 6 calendar months prior to the date to serve. B—instrument proficiency check in the airplane in which to serve, or in an approved aircraft simulator, within the previous 12 calendar months. C—instrument proficiency check under actual or simulated IFR conditions, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.

8102. A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may take the autopilot check. A—concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 month intervals. B—in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month intervals. C—concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.

8104. Pilot flight time limitations under 14 CFR Part 135 are based. A—on the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying. B—solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations. C—solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30 day and/or 12 month period.

8105. No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of. A—using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches and holding. B—using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches. C—holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.

8106. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the “critical phase of flight”?. A—All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. B—Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C—All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

8113. Other than in cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew-members prohibited?. A—12,000 feet. B—10,000 feet. C—8,000 feet.

8706. Fatigue can be evident in others if they. A—talk more than usual. B—yawn excessively. C—are overly helpful.

8707. You did not get a good night’s rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is. A—improved dexterity. B—decreased short term memory. C—mental acuteness.

8708. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive. A- 48. B- 52. C- 32.

8709. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month period. A—120. B—100. C—80.

8227. How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. A—considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. B—considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. C—not considered to be part of a rest period.

8228. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. A—190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. B—180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. C—170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

8220. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. A—180 hours in any 28 consecutive days. B—190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. C—170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

8221. “Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between. A—0100 – 0500. B—1200 – 0459. C—0200 – 0559.

8219. For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed. A—12 hours. B—14 hours. C—16 hours.

8222. If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder?. A—No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest. B—No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 8 hours rest. C—Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours free from duty.

8223. “Airport standby reserve” means. A—a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. B—being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hours duration. C—a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.

9714. Each flightcrew member must report. A—in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish all assignments. B—to the airport on time and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duty. C—for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.

8211. You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven’t slept well. What is a warning sign that you are fatigued?. A—Improved dexterity. B—Head bobbing. C—Mental acuteness.

8224. No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given. A—10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. B—12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. C—8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.

8229. You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment?. A—At any time during your required rest period. B—At the end of your required rest period. C—No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.

8231. “Rest period” means. A—an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. B—a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. C—a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

8238. “Theater” means. A—a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 90 degrees longitude. B—a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 75 degrees longitude. C—a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.

9837. “Physiological night’s rest” means. A—9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. B—10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. C—12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or disturbed rest.

9838. In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report. A—on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. B—to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties. C—for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.

9839. Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training. A—with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. B—annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. C—annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew members and dispatchers.

9840. In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight crew of two, your flight time may not exceed. A—9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. B—9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. C—9 hours if assigned to report at 2030.

9841. For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is. A—13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. B—13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight segments. C—10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight segments.

9842. In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is. A—17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a Class 3 rest facility available. B—16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a Class 1 rest facility available. C—15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a Class 2 rest facility available.

9843. The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least. A—3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. B—4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. C—4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.

9844. Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be. A—given before the next to last flight segment. B—given before the beginning of the flight duty period. C—provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.

9845. If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the. A—maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. B—flight duty period assignment must be reduced15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location. C—minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.

9846. The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as. A—2 hours. B—1 hour. C—30 minutes.

9847. After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as. A—2 hours. B—necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport. C—necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

9847-1. “Unforeseen operational circumstance” means an. A—unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules. B—unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. C—event of sufficient duration to create increased flight times for the certificate holder’s operation.

9847-2. For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if. A—immediately followed by 11 hours of rest. B—unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff. C—known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.

9848. For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is. A—not part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period. B—part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period. C—part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.

9849. Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include. A—instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and flying for any certificate holder. B—any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. C—flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager and any other commercial flight time.

9850. Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to. A—60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. B—70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. C—60 hours in any 7 days.

9851. A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of. A—24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the past 7 consecutive calendar days. B—36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. C—30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours.

9852. No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for. A—more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low. B—more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period. C—consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time.

8194. Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than. A—10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours. B—8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours. C—10 consecutive hours of duty.

8724. What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period?. A—8 consecutive hours rest. B—10 consecutive hours rest. C—12 consecutive hours rest.

9326. “Operational control” of a flight refers to. A—the specific duties of any required crewmember. B—exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C—exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

8003. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area. A—Operations Specifications. B—Operating Certificate. C—Dispatch Release.

9745. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. A—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator’s manual available. B—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. C—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19.

8429. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an. A—destination airport. B—provisional airport. C—alternate airport.

8430. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. A—obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B—having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C—providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

8767. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued. A—an Air Carrier Certificate. B—a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. C—an Operating Certificate.

8768. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. A—certificate holder’s operations specifications. B—application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C—Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

9782. All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report. A—accident and incident data annually. B—noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway. C—declared distances for each runway.

8243. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. A—pilot in command and chief pilot. B—pilot in command and director of operations. C—pilot in command and the flight follower.

8290. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. A—Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B—Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C—Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

8292. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight. A—Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B—Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C—Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

8293. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. A—Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B—Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C—Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

8294. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it. A—minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B—trip number and weight and balance data. C—weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

8280. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?. A—The aircraft dispatcher. B—Air route traffic control center. C—Director of operations.

8283. Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?. A—Any company dispatch facility. B—Notices To Airmen publication. C—Chart Supplements U.S.

8284. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. A—Company meteorologist. B—Aircraft dispatcher. C—Director of operations.

8232. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. A—Not more than 1 hour. B—Not more than 2 hours. C—More than 6 hours.

8260. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. A—1945Z. B—1915Z. C—1845Z.

8259. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is. A—2005Z. B—1905Z. C—0005Z.

8266. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. A—1922Z. B—1952Z. C—0022Z.

8267. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. A—1945Z. B—2015Z. C—0045Z.

8226. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. A—Cargo and passenger distribution information. B—Copy of the flight plan. C—Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

8286. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?. A—Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B—Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C—Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

8288. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. A—3 months. B—6 months. C—30 days.

8296. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. A—Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B—Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C—Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

8287. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. A—1 month. B—3 months. C—12 months.

8291. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. A—supplemental and commercial. B—supplemental and domestic. C—flag and commercial.

8295. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. A—weather reports and forecasts. B—names of all crewmembers. C—minimum fuel supply.

9746. Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS. A—preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. B—pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. C—pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.

9746-1. An ETOPS entry point means. A—the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. B—the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 200 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. C—the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

9746-2. For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport. A—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. B—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. C—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.

9761. What is considered “north polar”?. A—north of 60° N latitude. B—north of 68° N latitude. C—north of 78° N latitude.

9762. What is considered “south polar”?. A—south of 60° S latitude. B—south of 68° S latitude. C—south of 78° S latitude.

8281. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. A—Aircraft dispatcher. B—Director of operations or flight follower. C—Pilot in command.

8282. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. A—Aircraft dispatcher. B—Pilot in command. C—Director of operations or flight follower.

8268. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. A—30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition. B—45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C—45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

8269. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. A—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B—2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

8271. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. A—at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B—for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—back to the departure airport.

8272. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel. A—is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B—is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

8276. A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. A—2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B—2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C—30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

8273. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is. A—30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B—30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C—2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

8270. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. A—30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. B—to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8277. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is. A—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B—the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C—3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8274. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. A—90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B—45 minutes at holding altitude. C—30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

8275. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. A—3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. B—3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

8131. A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?. A—Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator. B—A minimum of 1 hour. C—A minimum of 2 hours.

8137. When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?. A—The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew com-partment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. B—The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. C—The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

9763. What is meant by “sterile cockpit”?. A—All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. B—Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. C—Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations.

8132. When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?. A—They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. B—They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. C—They shall board and depart before the other passengers.

8136. Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel. A—The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. B—No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. C—The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

8225. Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight?. A—Clearly explain the location of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits. B—Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated. C—Passengers are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off.

8181. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. A—FL 200. B—FL 240. C—FL 250.

8153. When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. A—When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. B—Only during the en route flight. C—During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

8244. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. A—except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B—in the interest of safety. C—except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

8233. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. A—7 days. B—5 days. C—48 hours.

8234. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. A—The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B—The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C—Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

8139. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?. A—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C—The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

8175. Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin. A—may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. B—must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. C—must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

8138. What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?. A—All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. B—All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. C—Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

8007. Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for what period of time?. A—1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the Administrator. B—30 days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and approved by the Administrator. C—30 days, at the flight’s destination.

8008. Which is NOT a required item on the load manifest?. A—List of passenger names and the weight of each. B—Aircraft registration number or flight number. C—Identification of crewmembers and their crew position.

8009. Who is responsible for the preparation of a required load manifest?. A—PIC or the Dispatcher. B—Company official designated by the Administrator. C—The certificate holder.

8032. Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?. A—It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. B—All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft. C—Cargo carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers.

9720. A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an approved training program established by the certificate holder within the previous. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

8039. In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded. A—so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments. B—in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all occupants. C—in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs.

8040. Which is a requirement governing the carriage of cargo, on a scheduled passenger flight?. A—Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin, or compartment. B—Cargo not stowed in an approved bin must be secured by a safety belt or approved tiedown device. C—All cargo carried in the passenger compartment must be packaged and stowed ahead of the foremost seated passenger.

8041. Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage?. A—All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence. B—Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner. C—Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.

8042. If carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the passenger compartment, it must be. A—stowed ahead of the foremost seated passengers and secured by approved means. B—placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment installed in the aircraft. C—so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.

8043. The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for. A—any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more. B—any aircraft with more than one engine. C—all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.

9636. (Refer to Legend 12.) Newport News/Williamsburg Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously A/FD) contains the following entry: ARFF Index A. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. A—Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. B—One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. C—One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

9668. (Refer to Legend 12 and Figure 185A.) McCar-ran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have. A—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or HALON 1211, or 450 pounds of DC and 100 gallons of water plus 6,000 gallons of water. B—Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water. C—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.

9379. During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. A—To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. B—To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. C—Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

9388. When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. A—When priority has been given. B—Anytime an emergency occurs. C—When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

8177. Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. A—All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. B—Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. C—Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

8176. Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?. A—Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. B—Number of passenger cabin occupants. C—Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

8160. Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. A—The most forward location in the passenger cabin. B—In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. C—The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

8161. How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. A—Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. B—Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C—Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

8162. How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?. A—Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. B—Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C—Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

8144. The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. A—taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. B—taxiing, takeoff, and landing. C—takeoff, cruise, and landing.

8159. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must. A—operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. B—be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. C—be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

8157. If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. A—For taxi, takeoff, and landing. B—Only for takeoff and landing. C—During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

8158. If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. A—unlocked during takeoff and landing. B—locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. C—latched open during takeoff and landing.

8178. A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A—A large airplane. B—A turbojet airplane. C—An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

8179. An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. A—has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. B—has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. C—weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

8235. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a. A—key to the flight deck door. B—certificate holder’s manual. C—flashlight in good working order.

8173. How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A—A minimum of 2-hours’ supply. B—Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. C—Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

8183. Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. A—of FL 260. B—of FL 250. C—above FL 250.

8184. A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. A—5 seconds. B—10 seconds. C—15 seconds.

8155. If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. A—and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. B—shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. C—must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

8156. If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. A—FL 200. B—FL 300. C—FL 250.

8187. What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. A—FL 240. B—FL 250. C—Above FL 250.

8174. What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. A—each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. B—30 percent of the passengers. C—10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

8186. For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. A—15,000 feet. B—16,000 feet. C—14,000 feet.

8185. For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. A—30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. B—10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. C—each passenger for 30 minutes.

8182. The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. A—10,000 feet within 4 minutes. B—14,000 feet within 4 minutes. C—12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

8180. What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. A—Two. B—Four. C—Three.

8164. Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A—A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. B—An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. C—A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival- type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

8166. Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. A—aircraft occupant. B—seat on the aircraft. C—passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

8169. Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. A—within easy reach of each passenger. B—under each occupant seat. C—within easy reach of each seated occupant.

8167. For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. A—all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. B—all aircraft occupants. C—all passenger seats.

8168. When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. A—One for each passenger seat. B—One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. C—One for each occupant of the aircraft.

8170. An airplane operated by a supplemental air car­rier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A—Survival kit for each passenger. B—Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. C—Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

8171. An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A—A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. B—Survival kit for each passenger. C—An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

8172. An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A—Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. B—Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. C—Survival kit for each passenger.

8245. If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should. A—take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. B—comply with the company’s lost aircraft plan. C—phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

8198. Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. A—Airplane Flight Manual. B—Certificate holder’s manual. C—Pilot’s Emergency Procedures Handbook.

8200. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. A—pilot in command. B—air carrier’s chief pilot. C—certificate holder.

8204. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. A—FL 180. B—FL 200. C—FL 250.

8218. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

8236. If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. A—appropriate ground radio station. B—nearest FAA district office. C—operations manager (or director of operations).

8237. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. A—must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B—may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C—may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

8241. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane. A—Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B—Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C—Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

8163. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is. A—encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. B—required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. C—required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

8240. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. A—10 days after the deviation. B—10 days after returning home. C—10 days after returning to home base.

8246. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. A—Pilot in command. B—Dispatcher. C—Person who declares the emergency.

8239. An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the. A—dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. B—certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. C—pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

8725. Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the. A—nearest state or federal wildlife office on company letterhead. B—FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. C—nearest FSS via telephone.

8020. Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxygen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane. A—Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen masks above FL 350. B—At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining. C—At altitudes above FL 250, one of the two pilots at the controls shall use an oxygen mask continuously.

8022. Which is a requirement for pilot use of oxygen in a pressurized airplane?. A—The pilot at the controls shall use oxygen continuously any time the cabin pressure altitude is more than 12,000 feet MSL. B—At FL 250 and above, each pilot shall have an approved quick-donning oxygen mask. C—At FL 250 and above, the pilot at the controls must have an approved oxygen mask any time the other pilot is away from the duty station.

8055. The two pilot stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved quick-donning oxygen masks. What is the maximum altitude authorized if one pilot is not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen?. A—41,000 feet MSL. B—35,000 feet MSL. C—25,000 feet MSL.

8056. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of a duration of more than. A—20 minutes. B—30 minutes. C—45 minutes.

8072. A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?. A—60 minutes. B—45 minutes. C—30 minutes.

8073. At what altitude, in an unpressurized airplane, must all passengers be supplied oxygen?. A—Above 12,000 feet MSL. B—Above 14,000 feet MSL. C—Above 15,000 feet MSL.

8074. Between what altitudes must oxygen be available to at least 10 percent of the occupants, in an unpressurized airplane, other than the pilots?. A—Above 12,000 feet through 16,000 feet MSL, for any time period. B—Above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration. C—10,000 feet to 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration.

8080. The oxygen requirements for occupants of a pressurized airplane operated at altitudes above FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to descend safely to an altitude of. A—10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes. B—12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min. C—15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.

8021. Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?. A—FL 300. B—FL 350. B—FL 350.

8023. Which is a pilot requirement for oxygen?. A—Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft operating at FL 180 and above shall have an approved quick-donning type oxygen mask. B—On pressurized aircraft requiring a flightcrew of two pilots, both shall continuously wear oxygen masks whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet MSL. C—On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12,000 feet MSL, pilots shall use oxygen continuously.

8024. Which requirement applies when oxygen is stored in liquid form?. A—Smoking is not permitted within 50 feet of stored liquid oxygen. B—Liquefied oxygen is a hazardous material and must be kept in an isolated storage facility. C—The equipment used to store liquid oxygen must be covered in the certificate holder’s approved maintenance program.

8025. Which is a condition that must be met when a person is administered medical oxygen in flight?. A—The distance between a person using medical oxygen and any electrical unit must not be less than 5 feet. B—A person using oxygen equipment must be seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of, any required exit. C—A person being administered oxygen must be monitored by equipment that displays and records pulse and respiration.

8030. Which is a requirement regarding the carriage and operation of oxygen equipment for medical use by passengers?. A—No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment. B—When oxygen equipment is used for the medical treatment of a patient, the rules pertaining to emergency exit access are waived. C—No person may connect oxygen bottles or any other ancillary equipment until all passengers are aboard the aircraft and seated.

8031. If a certificate holder deviates from the provisions of regulations which pertain to medical use of oxygen by passengers, a complete report of the incident shall be sent to the FAA within. A—7 working days. B—10 working days. C—10 days of the deviation.

8081. An unpressurized aircraft with 20 occupants other than the pilots will be cruising at 14,000 feet MSL for 25 minutes. For how many, if any, of these occupants must there be an oxygen supply?. A—Five. B—Two. C—None.

9819. What are the oxygen requirements for passengers if operating at 14,000 feet?. A—30 minutes for each passenger. B—available for 10% of the occupants. C—available for 10% of the occupants other than the pilots.

9638. (Refer to Figures 186, 187, 188, and 188A.) What are the passenger oxygen requirements on this 14 CFR Part 135 flight from Las Vegas to Provo?. A—When above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet, oxygen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, including the pilots. B—Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants until reaching cruise at 15,000 feet then all occupants must be supplied oxygen until descending below 15,000 feet, then 10 percent down to 10,000 feet. C—Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000 feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except pilots, must be supplied oxygen until descending below 10,000 feet.

8317. What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?. A—72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. B—48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. C—10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

8319. Which of the following constitutes “substantial damage” according to NTSB Part 830?. A—Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. B—Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter). C—Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

8320. Which of the following meets the requirements of a “serious injury” as defined by the NTSB. A—A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. B—An injury which caused severe tendon damage. C—First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body.

8318. Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage. A—Immediately. B—7 calendar days. C—10 days.

8321. Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?. A—Aircraft colliding on the ground. B—Flight control system malfunction. C—Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10.

8322. Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?. A—3 days. B—7 days. C—10 days.

8323. When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?. A—Within 7 days. B—Within 10 days. C—Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

9836. Pilots and/or flightcrew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately. A—by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. B—to local law enforcement. C—by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

8053. What aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135 are required to have a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator installed?. A—All airplanes that are turbojet powered. B—All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot flightcrew. C—All turbine powered aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of 30 seats or more.

8054. In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator is required, that instrument must. A—continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes after the output of the airplane’s electrical generating system falls below an optimum level. B—be operable by a selector switch which may be actuated from either pilot station. C—continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system.

8069. In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS required. A—All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. B—Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. C—Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.

8075. Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station?. A—All airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat. B—All airplanes operating under 14 CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons. C—All turbojet-powered airplanes.

8165. What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?. A—A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft. B—A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. C—A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

8088. If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and. A—make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed. B—fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C—fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed.

8089. If the weather forecasts require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate, and fly thereafter for a minimum of. A—45 minutes at normal holding speed. B—45 minutes at normal cruise speed and then complete an approach and landing. C—45 minutes at normal cruise speed.

8115. When computing the takeoff data for reciprocating powered airplanes, what is the percentage of the reported headwind component that may be applied to the “still air” data?. A—Not more than 150 percent. B—Not more than 100 percent. C—Not more than 50 percent.

8116. When computing takeoff data, what is the percentage of the effective tailwind component which may be applied to the “still air” data?. A—Not less than 150 percent. B—Not less than 100 percent. C—Not more than 50 percent.

8050. Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over water?. A—Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at 1,500 feet above the surface. B—Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in case of engine failure. C—Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at 1,000 feet above the surface.

8051. What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions?. A—Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher. B—Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher. C—Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.

8792. The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet-powered airplane provides a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system from that station. A—are always visible, from within the airplane. B—are able to avoid the intake areas of the engines. C—may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.

8831. For which of these aircraft may part of the “clear-way” distance, for a particular runway, be considered in computing the takeoff distance?. A—Passenger-carrying transport aircraft. B—Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes, certificated after September 30, 1958. C—U.S. certified transport airplane, certificated before August 26, 1957.

8832. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of a commuter air carrier airplane?. A—Cargo may not be carried anywhere in the rear of the passenger compartment. B—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment. C—The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

8833. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a multiengine turbine powered airplane. A—may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. B—may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C—may all be erased, prior to each flight, unless the NTSB has requested that it be kept for 60 days.

8842. An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with. A—one approved pyrotechnic signaling device. B—colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. C—one fishing kit for each person the raft is rated to carry.

8001. A certificate holder must have “exclusive use” of. A—at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the Operations Specifications. B—at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications. C—at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.

8005. Where is the certificate holder required to list the name and title of each person authorized to exercise operational control for a particular flight?. A—Operations Specifications. B—Attached to the load manifest. C—Certificate holder’s manual.

8010. An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply with. A—the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air. B—regulations of the foreign country. C—rules of the U.S. State Department and the foreign country.

8011. Who is responsible for keeping copies of the certificate holder’s manual up to date with approved changes or additions?. A—Each of the certificate holder’s employees who are furnished a manual. B—An employee designated by the certificate holder. C—A representative of the certificate holder approved by the Administrator.

9807. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. A—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator’s manual available. B—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. C—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).

8013. What is the lowest altitude above the terrain that an autopilot may be used during en route operations, if the Airplane Flight Manual specifies a malfunction under cruise conditions?. A—1,000 feet. B—500 feet. C—100 feet.

8033. Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon on board an aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 135?. A—Official bodyguards attached to foreign legations. B—Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the certificate holder. C—Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the United States.

8038. Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft without complying with the passenger-carrying requirements of 14 CFR Part 135?. A—An individual who is necessary for the safe handling of hazardous material on the aircraft. B—A representative of the Administrator, traveling to attend a meeting. C—A member of the United States diplomatic corps on an official courier mission.

8004. If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing the aircraft be found?. A—Certificate holder’s maintenance manual. B—Certificate holder’s manual. C—Pilot’s Handbook.

8006. Who is directly responsible for determining the status of each mechanical irregularity previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log?. A—Aircraft dispatcher. B—Line maintenance supervisor. C—The next pilot in command.

8012. What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have been met?. A—Maintenance manual. B—Pilot’s Handbook. C—Certificate holder’s manual.

8019. Procedures for keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log in the aircraft and available to appropriate personnel shall be set forth in. A—the certificate holder’s manual. B—the maintenance procedures handbook. C—the Operations Specifications.

8093. If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the. A—certificate holder’s manual and 14 CFR Parts 43, 91, and 135. B—provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA district office. C—provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder’s manual.

8112. Who is responsible for submitting a Mechanical Reliability Report?. A—Each certificate holder. B—Director of maintenance at the facility that discovers the reportable condition. C—Chief inspector at the facility where the condition is found.

8014. The maximum altitude loss specified for malfunction of a certain autopilot under cruise conditions is 50 feet. What is the lowest altitude this autopilot may be used en route?. A—500 feet AGL. B—550 feet AGL. C—600 feet AGL.

8015. The maximum altitude loss for a particular malfunctioning autopilot under approach conditions is 55 feet. If the TDZE is 571 feet and the MDA is 1,100 feet, to which minimum altitude may you use this autopilot?. A—626 feet MSL. B—990 feet MSL. C—1,050 feet MSL.

8016. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning autopilot with an approach coupler is 40 feet. To which minimum altitude may the autopilot be used during an ILS approach in less than basic VFR conditions?. A—40 feet AGL. B—50 feet AGL. C—80 feet AGL.

8017. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning autopilot without an approach coupler is 45 feet. If the MDA is 1,620 feet MSL and the TDZE is 1,294 feet, to which minimum altitude may you use the autopilot?. A—1,510 feet MSL. B—1,339 feet MSL. C—1,570 feet MSL.

8037. The altitude loss for a particular malfunctioning autopilot with an approach coupler is 60 feet. If the reported weather is below basic VFR minimums and an ILS approach using the approach coupler is to be used, what minimum altitude may be used?. A—50 feet AGL. B—55 feet AGL. C—60 feet AGL.

8045. During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be continuously operated?. A—From the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll. B—From engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport. C—From the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check at the end of the flight.

8046. An approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in. A—large turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more seats. B—multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats. C—all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats or more.

8047. IInformation recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large turbine powered airplane. A—may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B—may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. C—may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

8048. Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone system?. A—All turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a seating configuration of more than 19 seats. B—Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats. C—Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or more.

8052. To operate an aircraft with certain equipment inoperative under the provisions of a minimum equipment list, what document authorizing it must be issued to the certificate holder?. A—Letter of Authorization from the Regional Airworthiness Office authorizing such an operation. B—Operations specifications issued by the FAA district office having certification responsibility. C—Letter of Authorization issued by the FAA district office having certification responsibility.

8058. When a crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located?. A—In the flight crew compartment. B—At a location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations. C—At a location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal operations.

8059. How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14?. A—None. B—One. C—Two.

8060. An aircraft has a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats, excluding any pilot seats. How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required?. A—One. B—Two. C—None.

8061. Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the conterminous 48 United States. A—that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations. B—that are engaged in either cargo or passenger- carrying operations. C—and be fully operational, although weather forecasts indicate no hazardous conditions.

8062. In which aircraft, or under what conditions, is airborne thunderstorm detection equipment required. A—Large multiengine turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats or more being operated by a commuter air carrier. B—Any aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 19 seats or more that is engaged in passenger-carrying operations under IFR or at night. C—Small aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or more, excluding any pilot seat, that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations.

8070. When a ground proximity warning system is required under 14 CFR Part 135, it must. A—convey warnings of any deviation below glide slope and of excessive closure rate with the terrain. B—convey warnings for excessive closure rates with the terrain but not for deviation from an ILS glide slope. C—alert the pilot by an audible and visual warning signals when deviation above or below glide slope occurs.

8071. When a ground proximity warning system is required, it must. A—apply corrective control pressure when deviation below glide slope occurs. B—incorporate a means of alerting the pilot when a system malfunction occurs. C—incorporate a backup feature that activates automatically upon total failure of the aircraft’s electrical generating system.

8077. Which group of aircraft must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station?. A—Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. B—All passenger-carrying aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons. C—Large aircraft being operated in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat.

8078. Which is a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each life preserver must be equipped with. A—a dye marker. B—an approved survivor locator light. C—one flashlight having at least two size “D” cells or equivalent.

8079. In addition to fully-equipped liferafts and life preservers, what emergency equipment must be provided during extended overwater operations?. A—One water resistant, self-buoyant, portable survival-type emergency radio transmitter for each liferaft. B—Each aircraft must have at least one liferaft, equipped with a survival-type emergency locator transmitter. C—One pyrotechnic signaling device for each aircraft.

8057. A pilot may make an IFR departure from an airport that does not have an approved standard instrument approach procedure if. A—there is a departure alternate within 60 minutes and the weather there is above landing minimums. B—the Administrator has issued Operations Specifications to the certificate holder approving the procedure. C—the departure airport is within 30 minutes flying time of another airport that has an approved standard instrument approach procedure.

8063. Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not required under 14 CFR 135 if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast visibility is at least. A—5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. B—3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. C—3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be used, which ever is greater.

8064. A pilot may not designate an airport as an alternate unless the weather reports, or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate that it will be at or above alternate airport landing minimum at the. A—time of departure. B—estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour. C—estimated time of arrival.

8065. A takeoff may not be made from an airport that is below the authorized IFR landing minimums unless. A—there is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time, at normal cruising speed in still air. B—the departure airport is forecast to have the required IFR landing minimums within 1 hour. C—there is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time, at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

8066. A pilot may not begin an IFR operation unless the next airport of intended landing is forecast to be at or above authorized IFR landing minimums at. A—the estimated time of arrival, ±1 hour. B—the estimated time of arrival. C—the estimated time of arrival, ±30 minutes.

8068. Which condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location where weather observations are made?. A—An “Authorization Letter” permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA district office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder. B—A “Letter of Waiver” authorizing the procedure must be issued by the Administrator, after an investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to be satisfactory. C—The Administrator must issue Operations Specifications that permit the procedure.

8084. Which is an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces?. A—A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating. B—If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane’s lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made. C—A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.

8085. Which is one required condition for a pilot to take off under IFR with less-than-standard takeoff minimums at an airport where a straight-in instrument approach procedure is authorized and there is an approved weather reporting source?. A—The pilot must have at least 100 hours as pilot in command in the type airplane to be flown. B—The certificate holder has been approved for such operation and the visibility at the time of takeoff must be at least RVR 16. C—Wind direction and velocity must be such that a straight-in approach can be made to the runway served by the procedure.

8086. After passing the final approach fix on a VOR approach, a weather report is received indicating the visibility is below prescribed minimums. In this situation, the pilot. A—may continue the approach and land, if at the MDA, the actual weather conditions are at least equal to the minimums prescribed for the procedure. B—may continue the approach and land regardless of the visibility observed at the MDA, if prior to beginning the approach, the visibility was reported at or above minimums. C—should leveloff and continue to fly the approach to the MAP, and execute the missed approach.

8087. An alternate for a destination airport (circling not authorized) is not required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the required visibility exists, and the forecast ceiling is at least. A—1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher. B—1,500 feet above the lowest MDA or 2,000 feet above the runway touchdown zone elevation, whichever is higher. C—1,000 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 1,500 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher.

8090. At a military airport, a pilot may not take off under IFR unless the reported weather conditions indicate that the. A—visibility is at least 1 mile. B—ceiling is at least 500 feet and the visibility is 1 mile or more. C—airport has landing minimums.

8091. A pilot may not take off under IFR at a foreign airport unless the visibility is. A—1/2 mile or more above landing minimums. B—1 mile or more and the ceiling is 500 feet or more. C—at least 1 mile.

8092. An instrument approach procedure to an airport may not be initiated unless the latest weather report issued by an authorized weather reporting facility indicates that weather conditions. A—are at or above the circling minimums for the runway the pilot intends to use. B—are at or above the authorized IFR landing minimums for that procedure. C—exceed the straight-in minimums for all nonprecision approaches.

8114. What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for an airplane to operate under VFR in Class G airspace?. A—2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile visibility. B—2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile flight visibility. C—1,000-foot ceiling; 2-miles flight visibility.

8807. Which document would constitute an approved change to the type design without requiring a recertification?. A—An approved Minimum Equipment List. B—The Operations Specifications as approved by the Administrator. C—A special flight permit.

8808. No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at night, unless. A—each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size “D” batteries or the equivalent. B—it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size “D” cell or the equivalent. C—each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size “D” cells and a spare bulb.

8809. For operations during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the Air Almanac), no certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless that person has made three takeoffs and three landings, within the preceding 90 days. A—as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve. B—as pilot in command of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve. C—as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same type in which that person is to serve.

8813. An employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the accident shall not use alcohol. A—until 4 hours after the accident. B—within 8 hours of the accident. C—until given a release by the NTSB or FAA.

8814. What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?. A—32 hours. B—34 hours. C—35 hours.

8815. What is the maximum number of hours that a commuter air carrier may schedule a flight crewmember to fly in scheduled operations and other commercial flying in any calendar month?. A—100. B—110. C—120.

8819. The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of persons or property only. A—after ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required. B—to the extent required to meet that emergency. C—if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.

8820. The training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft is. A—upgrade training. B—transition training. C—initial training.

8821. A crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular aircraft type (e.g., BE-1900), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program?. A—Upgrade training. B—Transition training. C—Initial training.

8827. The training required for crewmembers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft is. A—difference training. B—transition training. C—upgrade training.

8828. The certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas expansion, and decompression to crewmembers who serve in operations above. A—FL 180. B—FL 200. C—FL 250.

8829. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as gas bubble formation, hypoxia, decompression, and length of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude to crewmembers serving on aircraft operated above. A—FL 250. B—FL 200. C—FL 180.

8830. What is one of the requirements that must be met by a pilot in command to re-establish recency of experience?. A—At least one full stop landing must be made from a circling approach. B—Three takeoffs and landings must be made as the sole manipulator of the controls, in the type, if a type rating is required, if not in the same category and class aircraft that the person is to serve. C—At least one nonprecision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

8834. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to. A—operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. B—be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment. C—be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

8838. What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?. A—A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each life raft. B—A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. C—A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

8840. Each aircraft being operated in extended overwater operations, must have a life preserver for each. A—aircraft occupant. B—seat on the aircraft. C—passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

8841. Life preservers required for extended overwater operations are stored. A—within easy reach of each passenger. B—under each occupant seat. C—within easy access of each seated occupant.

8843. No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within. A—1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport. B—1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport. C—1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

9407. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment. A—to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. B—to be inoperative anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed. C—to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.

9380. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. A—Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B—If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. C—Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

9381. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. A—Notify ATC immediately. B—Squawk 7600. C—Monitor the VOR receiver.

9386. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. A—No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B—Advise ATC immediately. C—Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

9387. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. A—Descend below Class A airspace. B—Advise dispatch via company frequency. C—Notify ATC immediately.

8278. If a required instrument on a multi-engine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route?. A—A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. B—Original dispatch release. C—Certificate holder’s manual.

9174. Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. A—Altimeter setting. B—Actual pressure at field elevation. C—Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

9164. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. A—Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B—Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C—Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

9099. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. A—effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. B—corrections for static pressure systems. C—corrections for instrument error.

9173. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. A—They are both the same, 31,000 feet. B—True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. C—Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.

9173-1. When the temperature is -20°C at 15,000 feet indicated, you know that. A—altimeters automatically compensate for temperature variations. B—the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude. C—the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.

9172. If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?. A—Lower than pressure altitude. B—Higher than pressure altitude. C—Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.

9813. Given Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,000 ft True air temperature............................................ 10°C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is. A—1,000 feet MSL. B—650 feet MSL. C—450 feet MSL.

9163. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. A—585 feet. B—1,300 feet. C—Sea level.

9080. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. A—Increase in indicated airspeed. B—Decrease in indicated airspeed. C—Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.

9081. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. A—The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B—The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. C—No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

9082. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. A—No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. B—Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. C—Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

9222. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. A—Indication will drop to zero. B—Indication will rise to the top of the scale. C—Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

9934. During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the. A—aircraft is in an unusual attitude. B—gyroscopic instruments have failed. C—pitot-static system has malfunctioned.

8206. (See Figure shown below.) You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the. A—pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. B—standby indicator is defective because there is no red ‘X’ on the speed tape display. C—airspeed means attitude is incorrect.

9769. Automated flight decks or cockpits. A—enhance basic pilot flight skills. B—decrease the workload in terminal areas. C—often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.

9769-1. Automated flight decks or cockpits. A—improve basic flight skills. B—decrease the workload in terminal areas. C—sometimes hide errors.

9769-2. When flying an aircraft with electronic flight displays (EFDs), risk increases. A—if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance flight safety and remove pilot error. B—when the pilot expects the equipment to malfunction on occasion. C—if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for lack of skill and knowledge.

9830. Automation has been found to. A—create higher workloads in terminal areas. B—improve crew situational awareness skills. C—substitute for a lack of aviation experience.

9853. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits. A—greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved. B—risk is increased. C—risk is decreased.

9854. Automation in aircraft has proven. A—to present new hazards in its limitations. B—that automation is basically flawless. C—effective in preventing accidents.

9855. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation. A—are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. B—have proven to increase safety in operations. C—may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

9857. Humans are characteristically. A—disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. B—disposed to expect automation to fail often. C—poor monitors of automated systems.

8711. Reliance on automation can translate to. A—decreased cockpit workload. B—increased error awareness. C—lack of manual handling skills.

9941. Risk is increased when flightcrew members. A—fail to monitor automated navigation systems. B—allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems. C—question the performance of each other’s duties.

9410. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. A—who was responsible for any accident or incident. B—evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. C—possible causes of accidents or incidents.

9356. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?. A—Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. B—Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. C—Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.

9357. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. A—60 days. B—90 days. C—30 days.

9428. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. A—maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B—request ATC clearance for the deviation. C—notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

9425. TCAS I provides. A—traffic and resolution advisories. B—proximity warning. C—recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

9426. TCAS II provides. A—traffic and resolution advisories. B—proximity warning. C—maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

9427. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and. A—maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B—request a new ATC clearance. C—expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

9427-1. With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you. A—can rest assured that no other aircraft is near. B—must continually scan for other traffic. C—must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.

8150. If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only. A—when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. B—in VFR conditions. C—in day VFR conditions.

8151. An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be. A—conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. B—carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo”. C—conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.

8148. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?. A—Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. B—Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. C—Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

8154. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?. A—All turbine powered airplanes. B—Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. C—Large turbine-powered airplanes only.

8140. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines. A—may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. B—may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C—may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

8141. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?. A—All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B—Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. C—All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.

8143. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated. A—from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. B—from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. C—when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

8142. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A—a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. B—a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. C—a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.

9258. ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure. A—wake turbulence avoidance. B—traffic separation only. C—wind shear avoidance.

8135. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?. A—ARINC. B—Any FSS. C—Appropriate dispatch office.

9783. When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing?. A—Only when ATC specifically requests that the transponder to be activated. B—Any time the airport is operating under IFR. C—All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.

9783-1. If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect. A—your VHF receiver is inoperative. B—your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone. C—the radio is performing a self-test function.

9784. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should. A—operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi. B—operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. C—be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.

9019. What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A—A test signal, “TESTING,” is sent every 30 seconds. B—Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent “OFF” flag would appear. C—The identifier would be removed.

9020. Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A—Coded identification T-E-S-T. B—Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent “OFF” flag might appear. C—An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

9375. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. A—4° on the ground and in flight. B—6° on the ground and in flight. C—6° in flight and 4° on the ground.

9405. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. A—be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and subtracted from all VOR courses. B—be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. C—not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/FROM should read TO.

9406. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. A—plus or minus 6°. B—plus 6° or minus 4°. C—plus or minus 4°.

9376. Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?. A—Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. B—Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. C—Date, place, bearing error, and signature.

9404. What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. A—The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. B—The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. C—The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent record.

9377. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. A—VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months. B—ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. C—Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.

9408. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?. A—At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. B—In terminal radar service areas. C—Above 12,500 feet MSL.

9023. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. A—0 DME miles. B—2 DME miles. C—2.3 DME miles.

9024. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. A—High altitudes close to the VORTAC. B—Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. C—Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

8145. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on “victor airways,” which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?. A—VOR. B—ADF. C—VOR and DME.

8195. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?. A—VOR. B—VOR and ILS. C—VOR and DME.

8195-1. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio navigation equipment is required?. A—single VOR and DME installed. B—dual approved independent navigation systems. C—dual VOR, ILS’s, and DME.

8149. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to. A—proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B—continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. C—proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies?. A—The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B—continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. C—proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies?. A—The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B—The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds. C—The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.

8146. When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suit-able RNAV system equipped?. A—In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. B—Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. C—For flights at or above FL 180.

8152. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. A—One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. B—Airborne radar. C—DME.

9751. (See Figure shown at right.) The moving map below reflects a loss of. A—position information. B—the AHRS. B—the AHRS.

8999. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?. A—4. B—15. C—17.

9000. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “E” correspond?. A—5. B—6. C—15.

9001. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?. A—10. B—14. C—16.

9002. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?. A—1. B—8. C—11.

9003. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “B” correspond?. A—9. B—13. C—19.

9004. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?. A—6. B—7. C—12.

8984. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?. A—5.0 NM. B—7.5 NM. C—10.0 NM.

8985. (Refer to Figure 139.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?. A—R-175. B—R-165. C—R-345.

8986. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. A—175. B—165. C—345.

8987. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?. A—1°. B—2°. C—4°.

8988. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?. A—174. B—166. C—335.

8989. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. A—166. B—346. C—354.

8990. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond?. A—9 and 6. B—9 only. C—6 only.

8991. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond?. A—11. B—5 and 13. C—7 and 11.

8992. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?. A—9. B—4. C—12.

8993. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?. A—1. B—10. C—2.

8994. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond?. A—8 only. B—8 and 3. C—3 only.

8995. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?. A—4. B—11. C—5.

8996. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond?. A—4 only. B—11 only. C—12 only.

8998. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “I” correspond?. A—12 only. B—9 only. C—4 only.

9932. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which HSI presentation does aircraft 8 correspond, if on a back course to the Runway 9 approach?. A—Figure H. B—Figure I. C—Figure E.

9352. Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA)?. A—14 CFR Part 121. B—ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2. C—14 CFR Part 91.

9353. How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the minimum navigation capability required by 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix C?. A—By operating under VFR conditions only. B—By requesting a deviation from the Administrator. C—By operating only between 2400Z and 0600Z.

8196. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the. A—Airplane Flight Manual. B—International Flight Information Manual. C—Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.

8197. Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?. A—Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications. B—International Flight Information Manual. C—Airplane Flight Manual.

8197-1. What would authorize an air carrier to conduct a special instrument approach procedure?. A—Operations specifications. B—Compliance statement. C—Training specifications.

9811. What document(s) must be in a person’s possession for that person to act as a flight navigator?. A—Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight Navigator Certificate. B—Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current Second-Class (or higher) Medical Certificate. C—Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid passport.

8199. A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when. A—operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. B—operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. C—the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.

8961. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. A—108.10 to 118.10 MHz. B—108.10 to 111.95 MHz. C—108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

8966. What functions are provided by ILS?. A—Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B—Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C—Guidance, range, and visual information.

8958. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. A—Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C—Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

8959. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. A—Continuous dots at the rate of six per second, identified as a high pitch tone. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second, identified as a low-pitched tone. C—Alternate dots and dashes identified as a low-pitched tone.

8960. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. A—Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C—Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

8962. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?. A—A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. B—Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light. C—A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.

8956. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. A—Inner marker. B—Middle compass locator. C—Outer compass locator.

8957. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. A—Inner marker. B—Middle compass locator. C—Outer compass locator.

9403. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. A—VOR/DME FIX. B—Surveillance radar. C—Compass locator.

8970. If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative. A—the RVR required to begin the approach in increased by 20%. B—the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet. C—the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

8968. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?. A—When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. B—When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C—When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

8969. Which “rule-of-thumb” may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. A—5 times groundspeed in knots. B—8 times groundspeed in knots. C—10 times groundspeed in knots.

9749. The rate of descent for a 3.5º angle of descent glidescope is. A—740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed. B—740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed. C—740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.

8963. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. A—DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B—DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. C—DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

9411. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. A—Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR. B—RCLS and REIL. C—All of the required ground components.

9412. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. A—After passing the visual descent point (VDP. B—When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C—When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.

9413. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?. A—RCLS and REIL. B—Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR. C—Each required ground component.

8967. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. A—LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. B—LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS – aligned with runway. C—LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°.

8965. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. A—SDF – 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. B—SDF – offset from runway plus 4°, ILS – aligned with runway. C—SDF – 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°.

9794. (Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you. A—should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. B—can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach tominimums. C—must know ahead of time whether or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

9795. (Refer to Figure 253.) You are cleared to LXV in your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY16 approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums will be. A—11,360' MDA and 3/4 mi. B—11,360' MDA and 1-1/4 mi. C—11,360' MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1-1/2 mi.

9796. (Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. The preflight briefer issued an unreliable advisory before takeoff. Your avionics are good and you have full GPS service. You. A—can descend to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and 2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory. B—descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400 RVR in your CAT B aircraft. C—can descend to the LNAV MDA of 518 feet due to the FSS advisory.

9796-1. (Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you an “unreliable” advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signal. You. A—know you can only fly the approach down to LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS advisory. B—can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 RVR in your CAT B airplane. C—can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA of 560.

8703. (Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below the DA indicate?. A—The visual segment below the DA is not clear of obstacles. B—The approach does not have a visual glide slope landing aid. C—The visual segment is clear.

9429. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should. A—continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. B—proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory. C—select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.

9430. Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived. A—altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B—position is not affected. C—velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed.

9431. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will. A—cancel the approach mode annunciation. B—require flying point-to-point on the approach to comply with the published approach procedure. C—have no affect if the approach is flown manually.

9432. If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it. A—will be coded in the waypoint sequence and identified using ATD. B—will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. C—must be included in the normal waypoints.

9722. GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by. A—the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. B—a sovereign country or governmental unit. C—the FAA Administrator only.

9723. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. A—the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. B—the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. C—air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications.

9812. What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate?. A—Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the runway. B—A 20:1 glideslope. C—A 60:1 glideslope.

9812-1. (Refer to Figure 252.) In reviewing the RNAV/GPS procedure RWY 4 LEW, the lack of shaded fan from the 1.6 NM point to the runway indicates. A—the visual segment below the MDA/DA is not clear of obstacles on a 34-to-1 slope. B—it does not have VASI. C—you can descend on a 20-to-1 slope and remain clear of all obstacles.

9742. A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or commercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument approaches. A—if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual and the flight manual supplement. B—only if approved in their air carrier/commercial operator operations specifications. C—only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS approach procedures during their most recent proficiency check.

9724. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. A—the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. B—air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. C—the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.

9725. When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have. A—an approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. B—a GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. C—authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics.

9727. A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. A—over the MAWP. B—after the MAWP. C—just prior to the MAWP.

9728. If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display. A—an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP. B—an extension of the outbound final approach course. C—an extension of the inbound final approach course.

9739. “Unreliable,” as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means. A—within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches. B—satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches. C—within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support RNAV and MLS approaches.

9743. What does “UNREL” indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/ VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700 -0305231815?. A—Satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the Boston airport. B—The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV approaches. C—The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/VNAV and MLS approaches.

9917. It is important for a pilot to ask for site-specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS for your destination airport before a flight because. A—Air Traffic Control will not advise pilots of site-specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS. B—Air Traffic Control will confirm that you have site-specific information from a pre-flight briefing. C—this provides for a second level of safety in the National Airspace System.

9729. If flying a published GPS departure. A—the data base will contain all of the transition or departures from all runways. B—and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required. C—the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity.

9729-1. To use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must. A—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of takeoff roll. B—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization point. C—ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.

9730. Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires. A—that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the missed approach portion of the procedure. B—manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be required, if RAIM is available. C—additional action by the operator to set the course.

9721. Obstacles in most areas where “Copter GPS” instrument approaches are needed, require the approach speed must be limited to. A—80 knots on initial and final segments. B—60 knots on all segments except the missed approach. C—70 knots on final and missed approach segments.

9726. The maximum speed and obstacle clearance surface (OCS) that a “Copter GPS” standard instrument departure (SID) or departure procedure (DP) is based upon is. A—70 knots and 20:1 OCS. B—70 knots and 10:1 OCS. C—60 knots and 20:1 OCS.

8905. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. A—Green, yellow, and white beacon light. B—White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. C—Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

8906. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. A—Green, yellow, and white beacon light. B—White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. C—Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

9421. Holding position signs have. A—white inscriptions on a red background. B—red inscriptions on a white background. C—yellow inscriptions on a red background.

9421-1. The most important markings on an airport are. A—ILS critical area. B—hold markings. C—taxiway identification markings.

9421-2. In the United States, there is an average of. A—2 runway incursions every week. B—3 runway incursions every day. C—4 runway incursions every month.

9421-3. Detailed investigations of runway incursions have identified. A—2 major areas of contributing factors. B—3 major areas of contributing factors. C—4 major areas of contributing factors.

9422. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. A—yellow inscriptions on a black background. B—white inscriptions on a black background. C—black inscriptions on a yellow background.

9735. (Refer to Figure 223.) The “runway hold position” sign denotes. A—an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway. B—an entrance to runway from a taxiway. C—intersecting runways.

9735-1. (Refer to Figure 228.) What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?. A—Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. B—Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. C—Denotes intersecting runways.

9735-2. (Refer to Figure 225.) What is the purpose of No Entry sign?. A—Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering. B—Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection. C—Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

9735-3. (Refer to Figure 226.) What does the outbound destination sign identify?. A—Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B—Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. C—Identifies direction to take-off runways.

8901. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. A—Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights. B—Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. C—Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

8902. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). A—Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. B—Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone. C—Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

8722. When approaching a holding position sign for a runway approach area you must. A—obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing. B—hold only when specifically instructed by ATC. C—hold only when the weather is below 800 feet and 2 miles visibility.

8903. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. A—Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. B—Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. C—Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

8904. Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. A—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. B—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway. C—Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.

8907. Identify the runway distance remaining markers. A—Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. B—Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. C—Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

8922. (Refer to Figure 129.) What is the runway distance remaining at “A” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 1,000 feet. B— 1,500 feet. C— 2,000 feet.

8923. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at “A” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. — 1,000 feet. B— 2,000 feet. C— 2,500 feet.

8924. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at “B” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 2,000 feet. B— 2,500 feet. C— 3,000 feet.

8925. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at “C” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 2,500 feet. B— 2,000 feet. C— 1,500 feet.

8926. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at “D” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 500 feet. B— 1,000 feet. C— 1,500 feet.

8927. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at “E” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 1,500 feet. B— 2,000 feet. C— 2,500 feet.

8928. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at “A” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 2,000 feet. B— 3,000 feet. C— 3,500 feet.

8929. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at “D” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 3,000 feet. B— 2,500 feet. C— 1,500 feet.

8930. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at “B” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 1,000 feet. B— 2,000 feet. C— 2,500 feet.

8931. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at “F” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 2,000 feet. B— 1,500 feet. C— 1,000 feet.

8932. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at “C” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. A— 1,000 feet. B— 1,500 feet. C— 1,800 feet.

8914. What is the purpose of REIL?. A— Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B— Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C— Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

8915. Identify REIL. A— Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B— Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C— Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

9731. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A— of an intersecting taxiway only. B— of some designated point on the runway. C— only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

9732. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A— must result in a landing. B— does not preclude a rejected landing. C— precludes a rejected landing.

9733. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A— the published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B— the published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C— the landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

9734. The airport markings, signage and lighting associated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) consists of: A— yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and in-pavement lights. B— red and white signage, yellow hold-short markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights. C— red and black signage, in-pavement lights, andyellow hold-short markings.

9416-1. (Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area markings denote. A— where you are clear of the runway. B— where you must be to start your ILS procedure. C— where you are clear of the ILS critical area.

9416-2. The ILS critical area sign indicates. A— where aircraft are prohibited. B— the edge of the ILS critical area. C— the exit boundary.

9423-1. (Refer to Figure 227.) The “taxiway ending” marker. A— identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. B— indicates taxiway does not continue. C— provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

9423. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. A— white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. B— yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. C— yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

8203. All runway hold markings consist of. A— 2 dashed and 1 solid yellow line. B— 2 dashed and 2 solid yellow lines. C— 1 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.

9436. (Refer to Figure 156.) This sign, which is visible to the pilot on the runway, indicates. A— a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower. B— a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway. C— the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.

9417. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. A— the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. B— the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. C— all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

9764. Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color coded to warn pilots that. A— they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area. B— they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area. C— they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS critical area.

9785. THL is the acronym for. A— Takeoff hold lights. B— Taxi holding lights. C— Terminal holding lights.

9785-1. Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the. A— automatic runway status light system. B— tower operated runway stop light system. C— ground controller operated ramp status holding light system.

9786. REL is the acronym for. A— Runway exit lights. B— Runway entrance lights. C— Ramp entry lights.

9786-1. Runway Status Lights (REL) are. A— an independent light system. B— automatically activated. C— ATC tower controlled.

9786-2. A runway status light (RWSL) system at an airport. A— relies on ASDE-X/airport surface surveillance capability (ASSC). B— allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications. C— does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing a go-around.

9787. (Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as. A— squares or rectangles around “HS” and a number. B— circles or polygons around “HS” and a number. C— triangles or blocks filled with “HS” and a number.

9437. (Refer to Figure 157.) This is an example of. A— an ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign. B— a Runway Boundary Sign. C— an ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign.

9416. When instructed by ATC to “Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),” the pilot should stop. A— with the nose gear on the hold line. B— so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. C— so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

9798. When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you. A— can taxi past this point at your own risk. B— must hold short until “cleared” to taxi onto or past the runway. C— may not cross the line until ATC allows you to “enter” or “cross” by instruction.

9799. The sign shown is an example of. A— a mandatory instruction sign. B— runway heading notification signage. C— an airport directional sign.

8701. Airport “hot spots” are. A— reserved for contaminated aircraft. — parking spots for military aircraft. C— known hazardous runway intersections.

9378. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. A— not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B— use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C— maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

8912. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. A— a hard landing. B— increased landing rollout. C— landing short of the runway threshold.

8911. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. A— Pilots have a choice of glide angles. B— A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C— The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

8913. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by. A— high performance aircraft. B— helicopters. C— high cockpit aircraft.

8921. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. A— Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B— Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C— One light projector with two colors; red and white.

8908. What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?. A— High – white, on glidepath – red and white; low – red. B— High – white, on glidepath – green; low – red. C— High – white and green, on glidepath – green; low – red.

8909. What does the pulsating VASI consist of?. A— Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B— Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C— One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.

8910. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. A— High – pulsing white, on glidepath – green, low – pulsing red. B— High – pulsing white, on glidepath – steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low – pulsing red. C— High – pulsing white, on course and on glidepath – steady white, off course but on glidepath – pulsing white and red; low – pulsing red.

8705. Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are. A— strobe lights located next to the PAPIs. B— flashing PAPIs. C— yellow flashing lights located below the PAPIs.

8377. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be. A— the same. B— two times greater. C— four times greater.

8378. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?. A— The same true airspeed and angle of attack. B— A higher true airspeed for any given angle of. C— A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.

8348. What affects indicated stall speed?. A— Weight, load factor, and power. B— Load factor, angle of attack, and power. C— Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

9808. The stall speed of an airplane. A— is constant regardless of weight or airfoil configuration. B— is affected by weight, and bank angle. C— is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift coefficient.

8346. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?. A— Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B— Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C— Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

9942. How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?. A— It varies directly with a change in altitude. B— It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb. C— It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.

8397. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?. A— Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. B— Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. C— Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.

9767. How does VS (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?. A— Remains the same at all altitudes. B— Varies directly with altitude. C— Varies inversely with altitude.

8368. What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?. A— It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B— It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C— It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

8375. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?. A— An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B— A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C— An increase in dynamic stability.

8382. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s. A— lift, gross weight, and drag. B— lift, airspeed, and drag. C— lift and airspeed, but not drag.

8399. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?. A— Low speed. B— High speed. C— Any speed.

8379. How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?. A— The same angle of attack. B— A lower angle of attack. C— A higher angle of attack.

8357. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slipskid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?. A— While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed or less to avoid overbanking. B— When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip. C— When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60°.

8358. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to. A— best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. B— VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. C— an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

8360. What performance should a pilot of a light, twinengine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?. A— Heading. B— Heading and altitude. C— Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

8364. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?. A— Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B— Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C— Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

8359. What procedure is recommended for an engine out approach and landing?. A— The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. B— The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. C— A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

8361. Which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin engine airplane?. A— The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. B— The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. C— The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuse.

8362. What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?. A— None. B— Increases with altitude. C— Decreases with altitude.

8363. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?. A— With one engine inoperative. B— With climb power on. C— With full flaps and gear extended.

8349. If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?. A— Lift increases and the sink rate increases. B— Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. C— Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.

8350. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. A— Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. B— Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. C— Compensate for increase in drag.

8347. What is load factor?. A— Lift multiplied by the total weight. B— Lift subtracted from the total weight. C— Lift divided by the total weight.

9823. During a turn with constant power. A— the aircraft nose will pitch down. B— the aircraft will decelerate. C— the rate of descent will increase.

9740. During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift and centrifugal force?. A— Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift component and the load factor is increased. B— Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift component. C— Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component are equal, and the load factor is decreased.

8354. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be. A— 2 Gs. B— 3 Gs. C— 9 Gs.

8353. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?. A— Rate of turn. B— Angle of bank. C— True airspeed.

8396. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant altitude turn. A— increases with an increase in airspeed. B— remains constant regardless of airspeed changes. C— decreases with an increase in airspeed.

8351. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. A— Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B— Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C— Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

8352. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?. A— Rate will decrease and radius will increase. B— Rate will increase and radius will decrease. C— Rate and radius will increase.

8345. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?. A— The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B— The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C— The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.

8345-1. Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by. A— structural and power limits at high altitude. B— aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. C— control and structural limits at high altitude.

8345-2. A bank angle of 15° will increase induced drag by about. A— 3%. B— 7%. C— 15%.

8345-1. Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by. A— structural and power limits at high altitude. B— aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. C— control and structural limits at high altitude.

8365. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. A— Negative longitudinal static stability. B— Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. C— Neutral longitudinal static stability.

8372. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. A— Negative static stability. B— Positive static stability. C— Negative dynamic stability.

8373. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. A— Positive dynamic stability. B— Positive static stability. C— Neutral dynamic stability.

8366. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?. A— Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B— Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C— Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.

8367. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. A— Motion about the longitudinal axis. B— Motion about the lateral axis. C— Motion about the vertical axis.

8376. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?. A— Sluggish in aileron control. B— Sluggish in rudder control. C— Unstable about the lateral axis.

8380. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?. A— Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. B— Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C— Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.

9921. An airplane loaded with the CG aft of the rear- CG limit could. A— make it easier to recover from stalls and spins. B— make it more difficult to flare for landing. C— increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.

8387. Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?. A— .50 to .75 Mach. B— .75 to 1.20 Mach. C— 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

8390. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. A— Below .75 Mach. B— From .75 to 1.20 Mach. C— From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

8388. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?. A— Initial buffet speed. B— Critical Mach number. C— Transonic index.

8389. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?. A— Supersonic Mach number. B— Transonic Mach number. C— Critical Mach number.

8392. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?. A— A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. B— A severe moment or “Mach tuck.”. C— Severe porpoising.

8395. What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shockstalled first?. A— Inward and aft. B— Inward and forward. C— Outward and forward.

8391. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?. A— The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B— Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C— Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

8391-1. Swept wings. A— improve specific fuel consumption. B— increase the critical Mach number. C— increase the speed of sound quotient.

391-2. For significant benefit, wing sweep must be at least. A— 30 to 35°. B— 45 to 50°. C— 55°or more to substantially delay compressibility effects.

8393. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?. A— The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B— The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C— Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.

9803. Swept wings causes a significant. A— increase in effectiveness of flaps. B— reduction in effectiveness of flaps. C— flap actuation reliability issue.

8394-2. A turbojet airplane has an increase in specific range with altitude, which can be attributed to three factors. One of those factors is. A— an increase in altitude in the troposphere results in higher energy air flow. B— an increase in proportion of velocity versus thrust required. C— decreased engine turbine speeds.

8326. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?. A— Slats. B— Elevator. C— Dorsal fin.

8327. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?. A— Ruddervator. B— Upper rudder. C— Leading-edge flaps.

8343. Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport category airplane. A— can be effective when turbulence is encountered. B— is difficult and therefore not recommended. C— should be considered to assist the yaw damper.

8324. When are inboard ailerons normally used?. A— Low-speed flight only. B— High-speed flight only. C— Low-speed and high-speed flight.

8325. When are outboard ailerons normally used?. A— Low-speed flight only. B— High-speed flight only. C— Low-speed and high-speed flight.

8342. Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/ outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?. A— Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B— Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C— Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.

8332. What is a purpose of flight spoilers?. A— Increase the camber of the wing. B— Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed. C— Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

8333. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?. A— Reduce the wings’ lift upon landing. B— Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C— Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.

8336. Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?. A— Reduce the wings’ lift upon landing. B— Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. C— Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

9793. Upon landing, spoilers. A— decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. B— function by increasing tire to ground friction. C— should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.

9793-1. Aerodynamic braking is only effective up to approximately. A— 30% of touchdown speed. B— 40 to 50% of touchdown speed. C— 60 to 70% of touchdown speed.

9793-2. Ground spoilers used after landing are. A— more effective at low speed. B— equally effective at any speed. C— more effective at high speed.

8341. Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. A— Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds. B— Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at low speeds. C— Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

8356. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A— directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B— directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C— making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

9759. If the boundary layer separates. A— drag is decreased. B— the wing is about to stall and stop producing lift. C— ice will sublimate and not freeze.

8330. What is the purpose of a servo tab?. A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a fulldeflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

8338. Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?. A— Same direction. B— Opposite direction. C— Remains fixed for all positions.

8339. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. A— Same direction. B— Opposite direction. C— Remains fixed for all positions.

8340. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. A— Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B— Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C— Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

8329. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?. A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

8337. Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?. A— Same direction. B— Opposite direction. C— Remains fixed for all positions.

8328. What is the purpose of a control tab?. A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

8384. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. A— L/DMAX. B— lift at low speeds. C— drag and reduce airspeed.

8331. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?. A— Increase the camber of the wing. B— Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C— Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

8385. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?. A— Prevent flow separation. B— Decrease rate of sink. C— Increase profile drag.

8334. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?. A— Increase lift at relative slow speeds. B— Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C— Direct air from the low-pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.

8386. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?. A— Decreases profile drag. B— Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C— Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

9765. What is a difference between the fowler flap system and split flap system?. A— Fowler flaps produce the greatest change in pitching moment. B— Fowler flaps produce more drag. C— Split flaps cause the greatest change in twisting loads.

9766. On which type of wing are flaps most effective?. A— Thin wing. B— Thick wing. C— Sweptback wing.

9771. When compared to plain flaps, split flaps. A— produce more lift with less drag. B— produce only slightly more lift, but much more drag. C— enhance takeoff performance in high density conditions.

9072. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine?. A— The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B— Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C— The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.

9073. What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbocharged-reciprocating engine?. A— Supercharger gear ratio. B— Exhaust gas discharge. C— Throttle opening.

9068. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?. A— High RPM and low MAP. B— Low RPM and high MAP. C— High RPM and high MAP.

9068-1. How are turbine engines classified?. A— The type of compressor or combination of compressors they use. B— The method in which the air/fuel mixture is ignited. C— The flow of air through the engine and how poweris produced.

9058. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?. A— Compressor discharge. B— Fuel spray nozzles. C— Turbine inlet.

8394. A hot start in a turbine engine is caused by. A— failed ignition. B— the engine’s failure to accelerate. C— too much fuel in the combustion chamber.

9060. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is. A— limiting compressor speed. B— limiting exhaust gas temperature. C— limiting torque.

9064. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. A— Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B— Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C— Intermittent “bang,” as backfires and flow reversals take place.

9768. What prevents turbine engines from developing compressor stalls?. A— Deice valves-fuel heat. B— TKS system. C— Compressor bleed valves.

9065. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. A— Strong vibrations and loud roar. B— Occasional loud “bang” and flow reversal. C— Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

9066. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?. A— Intermittent “backfire” stall. B— Transient “backfire” stall. C— Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

8974. Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?. A— Turbine wheel(s). B— Turbine vanes. C— Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).

9067. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?. A— Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow. B— Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack. C— Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades.

9070. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of. A— turbine inlet temperature. B— shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C— propeller thrust only.

9071. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range. A— 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B— 25,000 feet to the tropopause. C— The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

9059. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?. A— As air density decreases, thrust increases. B— As temperature increases, thrust increases. C— As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

9061. As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will. A— increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B— remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C— decrease due to higher density altitude.

9061-1. Low pressure air decreases aircraft performance because. A— the air is denser than higher pressure air. B— the air is less dense than high pressure air. C— air expands in the engine during the combustion process.

9062. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?. A— Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B— Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C— Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

9063. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?. A— Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B— Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C— Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

9069. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?. A— Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B— Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C— Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

9324. What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?. A— Clearway. B— Stopway. C— Obstruction clearance plane.

9327. What is an area identified by the term “stopway”?. A— An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B— An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C— An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

8134. For which of these aircraft is the “clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?. A— Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959. B— Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. C— U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

9317. Which is a definition of V2 speed?. A— Takeoff decision speed. B— Takeoff safety speed. C— Minimum takeoff speed.

9319. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?. A— VMU. B— VMD. C— VFC.

8774. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is. A— V2. B— VREF. C— V1.

8775. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol. A— V2min. B— V1. C— VLOF.

8780. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is. A— V2. B— V1. C— VEF.

9076. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. A— Critical engine failure speed. B— Rotation speed. C— Accelerate-stop distance.

9085. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?. A— Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B— Low gross weight. C— High density altitude.

9083. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?. A— Increases takeoff distance. B— Decreases takeoff speed. C— Decreases takeoff distance.

9075. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?. A— Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B— Lower-than-standard air density. C— Increased headwind component.

9797. You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled down to 71% idle. You need a V2 of 142 to safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accelerate after the engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require for a safe landing abort from your decision point? (Use an average of 129 knots ground speed.). A— 1,738 feet. B— 2,178 feet. C— 3,601 feet.

9797-1. You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots on a 9,001 foot runway and the braking is not working, so you decide to takeoff and climb out. The engines require 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10 seconds of acceleration time to lift off again. The 5,000 foot marker flashes by. Do you have enough runway to lift off? (Use 132 knots for the average groundspeed.). A— Yes, there will be a margin of 850 feet and almost 3 seconds of decision time. B— Yes, there will be a margin of 2,001 feet and almost 5 seconds of decision time. C— No, the runway is 1,340 feet too short and my decision is about 6 seconds too late.

9797-2. You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots on a 8,501 foot runway and the braking is not working, so you decide to takeoff and climbout. The engines require 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10 seconds of acceleration to lift off again. The 4,000 foot marker flashed by 2 seconds ago. Do you have enough runway to lift off? (Use 143 knots for average ground speed due to the tailwind.). A— Yes, there will be a margin of about 850 feet which is almost 3 seconds of decision time. B— Yes, there will be a margin of almost 101 feet which is about 1.5 seconds of decision time. C— No, the runway is 99 feet too short and my decision was about 0.4 seconds too late.

9801. One typical takeoff error is. A— delayed rotation, which may extend the climb distance. B— premature rotation, which may increase takeoff distance. C— extended rotation, which may degrade acceleration.

9802. Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a. A— 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed. B— 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed. C— 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.

8717. (Refer to Figures 340, 451, and 452.) With a reported temperature of 20°C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds closed, and a takeoff weight of 79,500 pounds, the takeoff safety speed is. A— 154 knots. B— 160 knots. C— 162 knots.

8718. (Refer to Figures 336, 451, and 452). With a reported temperature of 5°C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds closed, and a takeoff weight off 82,000 pounds, the VR is. A— 150 knots. B— 147 knots. C— 158 knots.

8719. (Refer to Figures 340 and 450.) With a reported temperature of 35°C, flaps set at 8, and 5 knots of headwind at a takeoff weight of 82,300 pounds, the V1MBE is. A— 174 knots. B— 169 knots. C— 154 knots.

8720. (Refer to Figures 342 and 450.) With a reported temperature of 40°C, flaps set at 20, and a 3 knot tailwind at a takeoff weight of 84,500, the V1MBE is. A— 160 knots. B— 143 knots. C— 166 knots.

8721. (Refer to Figures 342, 451, and 452.) With a reported temperature of -10°C, flaps set at 8, cowl anti-ice on, and at a takeoff weight off 77,000 lbs, the VR and V2 speeds are. A— 143 and 153 knots. B— 153 and 143 knots. C— 123 and 133 knots.

8584. (Refer to Figure 465.) At a weight of 60,000 pounds with 35 flaps, the Reference Stall Speed is. A— 96 knots. B— 93 knots. C— 89 knots.

8585. (Refer to Figure 465.) What is the reference stall speed if you will be landing the aircraft at 55,000 pounds with 35° of flaps?. A— 92 knots. B— 97 knots. C— 102 knots.

8586. (Refer to Figure 470.) What are the V1 and VR speeds at 25°C at sea level for an aircraft weighing 54,500 lbs. and a maximum V1/VR ratio of .93?. A— 110 and 114 knots. B— 102 and 109 knots. C— 97 and 102 knots.

8587. (Refer to Figure 470.) What are the V1 and VR speeds at ISA+30°C and a field elevation of 4,500 feet for an aircraft weighing 64,000 lbs. and a maximum V1/VR ratio of .98?. A— 100 and 104 knots. B— 112 and 115 knots. C— 119 and 121 knots.

8618. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions R-1?. A— 128 knots. B— 121 knots. C— 133 knots.

8619. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the rotation speed for Operating Conditions R-2?. A— 147 knots. B— 152 knots. C— 146 knots.

8620. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What are V1, VR, and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions R-3?. A— 143, 143, and 147 knots. B— 138, 138, and 142 knots. C— 136, 138, and 143 knots.

8621. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What are critical engine failure and takeoff safety speeds for Operating Conditions R-4?. A— 131 and 133 knots. B— 123 and 134 knots. C— 122 and 130 knots.

8622. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What are rotation and V2 bug speeds for Operating Conditions R-5?. A— 138 and 143 knots. B— 136 and 138 knots. C— 134 and 141 knots.

9867. (Refer to Figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V1 and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-4?. A— V1 128.0 knots; VR 130.5 knots. B— V1 129.9 knots; VR 133.4 knots. C— V1 128.6 knots; VR 131.1 knots.

8642-4. (Refer to Figures 237 and 238.) Given the following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds?Flaps........................................................................10° Temperature (OAT)............................................... 25°C Field pressure altitude........................................ 427 ft. Runway slope..........................................................0% Wind (kts) headwind..............................................8 kts Runway condition.......................................wet runway For VR more than or equal to .1 VR, round up VR to the next value (example: 140 + .1 = 141). A— V1 133 kts, VR 140 kts, V2 145 kts. B— V1 140 kts, VR 140 kts, V2 145 kts. C— V1 138 kts, VR 141 kts, V2 145 kts.

8712. (Refer to Figures 363 and 429.) At a reported temperature of 10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs on, the takeoff thrust setting is. A— 90.0%. B— 89.1%. C— 87.4%.

8713. (Refer to Figures 330 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 30°C with engine bleeds closed, the takeoff thrust setting is. A— 91.9%. B— 87.4%. C— 90.9%.

8714. (Refer to Figures 329 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 20°C with engine bleeds closed, the takeoff thrust setting is. A— 92.1%. B— 92.3%. C— 88.4%.

8715. (Refer to Figures 329 and 429.) At a reported temperature of -10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs on, the takeoff thrust setting is. A— 87.0%. B— 87.2%. C— 87.7%.

8716. (Refer to Figures 332 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 5°C with engine bleeds off, the takeoff. A— 87.0%. B— 87.2%. C— 88.2%.

8613. (Refer to Figure 393.) (Note: Applicants may request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use while computing the answer. All printed pages must be returned to test proctor.) With an OAT of 10°C, inertial separator in bypass and cabin heater, you calculate maximum torque for climb to be. A— 1,795 ft-lbs. B— 1,695 ft-lbs. C— 1,615 ft-lbs.

9874. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-1?. A— 2.04. B— 2.01. C— 2.035.

8614. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2?. A— 2.19. B— 2.18. C— 2.16.

8615. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-3?. A— 2.01. B— 2.083. C— 2.04.

8616. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-4?. A— 2.06. B— 2.105. C— 2.11.

8617. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-5?. A— 1.98. B— 1.95. C— 1.96.

8400. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?. A— A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B— A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C— A speed less than that for L/DMAX.

8400-1. (Refer to Figure 271.) For a takeoff from Runway 25L at LAX, what is the minimum climb gradient that ATC expects the aircraft to maintain?. A— 500 feet per minute climb. B— 200 feet per minute climb. C— 400 feet per minute climb.

8593. (Refer to Figures 273 and 475.) With a reported temperature of 32°C, and a weight of 58,000 pounds, the second segment takeoff gross climb gradient is. A— 0.057%. B— 0.062%. C— 0.034%.

8594. (Refer to Figures 273 and 474.) With a reported temperature of 45°C, and a weight of 52,000 pounds, the first segment takeoff gross climb gradient is. A— 0.048%. B— 0.044%. C— 0.0419%.

9935. (Refer to Figure 474.) What is the gross climb gradient with the following conditions? Outside air temperature.......................................... 0°C Airfield altitude.............................................. 4,000 feet Weight.................................................. 55,000 pounds. A— 0.052%. B— 0.020%. C— 0.074%.

8628. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1?. A— 145 NM. B— 137 NM. C— 134 NM.

8629. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2?. A— 84 NM. B— 65 NM. C— 69 NM.

8630. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-3?. A— 95 NM. B— 79 NM. C— 57 NM.

8631. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-4?. A— 63 NM. B— 53 NM. C— 65 NM.

8632. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-5?. A— 70 NM. B— 52 NM. C— 61 NM.

8633. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1?. A— 4,100 pounds. B— 3,600 pounds. C— 4,000 pounds.

8634. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2?. A— 2,250 pounds. B— 2,600 pounds. C— 2,400 pounds.

8635. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3?. A— 82,100 pounds. B— 82,500 pounds. C— 82,200 pounds.

8636. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-4?. A— 102,900 pounds. B— 102,600 pounds. C— 103,100 pounds.

8637. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-5?. A— 73,000 pounds. B— 72,900 pounds. C— 72,800 pounds.

8638. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1?. A— 1.82. B— 1.96. C— 2.04.

8639. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-2?. A— 2.10. B— 1.99. C— 2.02.

8640. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max cruise EPR for Operating Conditions T-3?. A— 2.11. B— 2.02. C— 1.90.

8641. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4?. A— 2.20. B— 2.07. C— 2.06.

8642-1. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5?. A— 2.00. B— 2.04. C— 1.96.

8642-2. (Refer to Figure 231.) Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff climb limit? Airport OAT........................................................... 38°C Airport Pressure Altitude....................................... 14 ft. Flaps........................................................................15° Engine Bleed for packs........................................... On Anti-ice.................................................................... Off. A— 136,000 lb. B— 137,500 lb. C— 139,000 lb.

9875. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-1?. A— 104.0 NM. B— 99.2 NM. C— 109.7 NM.

9876. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-2?. A— 85.8 NM. B— 87.8 NM. C— 79.4 NM.

9877. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-3?. A— 86.4 NM. B— 84.2 NM. C— 85.1 NM.

8596. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-4?. A— 58.4 NM. B— 61.4 NM. C— 60.3 NM.

8597. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-5?. A— 68.0 NM. B— 73.9 NM. C— 66.4 NM.

8598. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-1?. A— 81,600 pounds. B— 81,400 pounds. C— 81,550 pounds.

8599. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-2?. A— 82,775 pounds. B— 83,650 pounds. C— 83,775 pounds.

8600. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-3?. A— 75,750 pounds. B— 75,900 pounds. C— 76,100 pounds.

8601. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-4?. A— 86,150 pounds. B— 86,260 pounds. C— 86,450 pounds.

8602. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-5?. A— 89,900 pounds. B— 90,000 pounds. C— 90,100 pounds.

8383. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?. A— Maximum range and distance glide. B— Best angle of climb. C— Maximum endurance.

8401. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?. A— A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B— A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C— A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.

8398. What should a pilot do to maintain “best range” airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?. A— Increase speed. B— Maintain speed. C— Decrease speed.

9078. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?. A— Increase speed for a headwind. B— Increase speed for a tailwind. C— Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

8381. Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?. A— Angle of attack. B— Altitude. C— Airspeed.

9077. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?. A— Increasing speed or altitude. B— Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C— Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

9323. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?. A— VS0. B— VS. C— VS1.

9322. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?. A— VS. B— VS1. C— VS0.

8374. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?. A— Higher than at low elevation. B— Lower than at low elevation. C— The same as at low elevation.

9074. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. A— Immediately after ground contact. B— Immediately prior to touchdown. C— After applying maximum wheel braking.

9074-1. Upon landing, thrust reversers. A— are required to obtain the calculated stopping distances. B— should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is in firm contact with the runway. C— should be deployed immediately upon landing when airspeeds are highest.

9079. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?. A— Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B— Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C— Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.

9084. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?. A— When wing lift has been reduced. B— At high groundspeeds. C— When the wheels are locked and skidding.

8935. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?. A— 90 knots. B— 96 knots. C— 110 knots.

8936. At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI?. A— 85 knots. B— 80 knots. C— 75 knots.

8933. A definition of the term “viscous hydroplaning” is where. A— the airplane rides on standing water. B— a film of moisture covers the painted or rubbercoated portion of the runway. C— the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.

8938. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?. A— At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B— At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C— At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.

8934. Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane’s tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?. A— Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B— Dynamic hydroplaning. C— Viscous hydroplaning.

8937. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?. A— Apply full main wheel braking only. B— Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C— Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

8937-1. Under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning?. A— When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landings. B— When departing a grooved runway with less than a thousandth of an inch of water. C— When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam is rising from the landing surface.

8939. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?. A— No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll. B— Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. C— Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

8133. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?. A— 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B— 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C— 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.

9791. Approaching the runway 1° below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?. A— 250 feet. B— 500 feet. C— 1,000 feet.

9792. Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing distance?. A— 800 feet. B— 1,700 feet. C— 2,800 feet.

8742. (Refer to Figures 327 and 457.) With a weight of 69,000 pounds, flaps 45, calm winds, the VREF is. A— 136 knots. B— 133 knots. C— 129 knots.

8743. (Refer to Figure 460.) At a weight of 77,500 pounds, and a landing elevation below 5,000 feet, the VREF is. A— 139 knots. B— 141 knots. C— 143 knots.

8744. (Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) At a weight of 73,500 pounds, the expected landing field length is. A— 6,700 feet. B— 5,650 feet. C— 6,450 feet.

8745. (Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 7,500-foot dry runway?. A— 32,200 pounds. B— 71,000 pounds. C— 72,500 pounds.

8746. (Refer to Figures 321 and 458.) With a reported temperature of 15°C, a 0.8% upslope, and calm winds, the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing weight is. A— 81,000 pounds. B— 81,600 pounds. C— 82,000 pounds.

8750. (Refer to Figure 461.) What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,600 foot runway at sea level?. A— 61,000 pounds. B— 59,000 pounds. C— 63,000 pounds.

8753. (Refer to Figures 273 and 457). What is the landing field length on a wet runway with a headwind of 7 knots and an aircraft weight of 83,000 pounds?. A— 6,600 feet. B— 7,200 feet. C— 5,900 feet.

8756. (Refer to Figures 331 and 457.) What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 75,000 pounds on a dry runway with calm winds?. A— 131 knots and 5,600 feet. B— 141 knots and 4,600 feet. C— 141 knots and 5,600 feet.

9321. Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed?. A— VC. B— VS. C— VA.

8344. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?. A— An abrupt change in relative wind. B— A decrease in angle of attack. C— Sudden decrease in load factor.

9129. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?. A— Maintain a constant altitude. B— Maintain a constant attitude. C— Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

9320. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?. A— VLE. B— VMO / MMO. C— VLO / MLO.

8668. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. A— 219 knots and 1.83 EPR. B— 223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C— 217 knots and 1.81 EPR.

8669. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. A— 210 knots and 1.57 EPR. B— 210 knots and 1.51 EPR. C— 210 knots and 1.45 EPR.

8670. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. A— 217 knots and 1.50 EPR. B— 215 knots and 1.44 EPR. C— 216 knots and 1.40 EPR.

8671. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. A— 223 knots and 1.33 EPR. B— 225 knots and 1.33 EPR. C— 220 knots and 1.28 EPR.

8672. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. A— 219 knots and 1.28 EPR. B— 214 knots and 1.26 EPR. C— 218 knots and 1.27 EPR.

8673. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. A— 1,625 pounds. B— 1,950 pounds. C— 2,440 pounds.

8674. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. A— 2,250 pounds. B— 2,500 pounds. C— 3,000 pounds.

8675. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. A— 2,940 pounds. B— 2,520 pounds. C— 3,250 pounds.

8676. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. A— 2,870 pounds. B— 2,230 pounds. C— 1,440 pounds.

8677. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. A— 2,950 pounds. B— 2,870 pounds. C— 2,400 pounds.

9943. (Refer to Figure 69.) Before departure, you learn that your destination airport’s arrivals are holding for 30 minutes on the arrival. In a two-engine aircraft, how many pounds of fuel would be required to hold at 10,000 feet with an EPR of 1.26 and an airplane weight of 85,000 pounds?. A— 1,155 pounds. B— 2,310 pounds. C— 4,620 pounds.

8727-1. (Refer to Figure 421.) You are taking off from a runway with a 330° magnetic course. Tower reported winds are 290° at 25 knots. The computed headwind component for takeoff is. A— 19 knots. B— 25 knots. C— 16 knots.

8727. (Refer to Figures 287 and 421.) The winds are reported as 220/15. You compute tailwind component, hoping for a Runway 33 takeoff. You compute the tailwind to be. A— 14 knots. B— 10 knots. C— 5 knots.

8728. (Refer to Figure 422.) At a weight of 68,500 pounds with gear and flaps up, you find the reference stall speed to be. A— 148 knots. B— 145 knots. C— 142 knots.

8729. (Refer to Figure 459.) With a payload of 20,000 pounds, the still-air range is. A— 1,350 NM. B— 1,410 NM. C— 1,590 NM.

8730. (Refer to Figure 459.) For a supplemental charter, a still-air range of 2,250 NM is required. The payload for this nonstop trip is. A— 5,100 pounds. B— 5,900 pounds. C— 6,100 pounds.

8731. (Refer to Figure 417.) You find one air data computer listed on the MEL as inoperative, leaving one ADC operative during your preflight logbook inspection. This means the flight. A— must fly non-RVSM flight levels above FL330. B— can only fly between FL290. C— must remain below FL290 unless dispatch obtains a deviation from ATC.

8732. (Refer to Figure 438.) With an actual runway length of 6,400 feet with 8 flaps, a 1% downslope, a 200 foot clearway, and 4 knots of tailwind, the Reference A is. A— 2.12. B— 2.02. C— 1.94.

8733. (Refer to Figures 318 and 439.) With a reported temperature of 30°C with packs on and anti-ice off, the Reference B is. A— 28.2. B— 29.8. C— 30.7.

8734. (Refer to Figure 440, All Engines.) With a Reference A of 3.00 and Reference B of 28.5, the takeoff weight is limited to. A— 78,500 pounds. B— 76,500 pounds. C— 75,000 pounds.

9128. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?. A— Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B— Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C— Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

9937. (Refer to Figure 473.) What is the maximum permissible takeoff weight with an airfield altitude of 7,300 feet and an outside air temperature of 24°C?. A— 65,000 pounds. B— 62,400 pounds. C— 63,800 pounds.

8369. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?. A— VMC. B— VYSE. C— VXSE.

8370. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?. A— Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B— Reduction of climb by 80 to 90 percent. C— Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

8371. Under what condition is VMC the highest?. A— Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B— CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C— CG is at the most forward allowable position.

9355. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, threeengine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?. A— The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B— The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C— No passengers may be carried.

9355-1. You are assigned to ferry a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. You know you are restricted to. A— VFR weather for takeoff, en route, and landing. B— flight crewmembers only aboard. C— a computed takeoff distance to reach V1 that cannot exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

9358. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, fourengine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?. A— The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B— Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C— The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

9359. Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?. A— The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. B— The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and official sunrise. C— Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing.

9360. Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?. A— The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. B— Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing. C— The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and sunrise.

9361. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?. A— Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B— The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C— No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.

8678. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight................................................. 180,500 lb Zero fuel weight........................................... 125,500 lb. A— 13 minutes. B— 15 minutes. C— 16 minutes.

8679. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 25,000 pounds? Initial weight................................................. 179,500 lb Zero fuel weight........................................... 136,500 lb. A— 10 minutes. B— 9 minutes. C— 8 minutes.

8680. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight................................................. 181,500 lb Zero fuel weight........................................... 126,000 lb. A— 15 minutes. B— 14 minutes. C— 13 minutes.

8681. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds (at 2,350 lbs/min)? Initial weight................................................. 175,500 lb Zero fuel weight........................................... 138,000 lb. A— 9 minutes. B— 10 minutes. C— 8 minutes.

8682. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-1?. A— 19,400 feet. B— 18,000 feet. C— 20,200 feet.

8683. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-2?. A— 14,700 feet. B— 17,500 feet. C— 18,300 feet.

8684. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?. A— 22,200 feet. B— 19,800 feet. C— 21,600 feet.

8685. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-4?. A— 27,900 feet. B— 22,200 feet. C— 24,400 feet.

8686. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-5?. A— 8,800 feet. B— 9,600 feet. C— 13,000 feet.

8643. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-1?. A—4 hours 5 minutes. B—4 hours 15 minutes. C—4 hours.

8644. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-2?. A—5 hours 5 minutes. B—6 hours 15 minutes. C—5 hours 55 minutes.

8645. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-3?. A—4 hours 15 minutes. B—3 hours 40 minutes. C—4 hours.

8646. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-4?. A—6 hours 50 minutes. B—5 hours 45 minutes. C—5 hours 30 minutes.

8647. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-5?. A—2 hours 55 minutes. B—3 hours 10 minutes. C—2 hours 59 minutes.

8648. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1?. A—25,000 pounds. B—26,000 pounds. C—24,000 pounds.

8649. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-2?. A—33,000 pounds. B—28,000 pounds. C—35,000 pounds.

8650. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-3?. A—36,000 pounds. B—34,500 pounds. C—33,000 pounds.

8651. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-4?. A—33,000 pounds. B—31,500 pounds. C—34,000 pounds.

8652. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-5?. A—15,000 pounds. B—20,000 pounds. C—19,000 pounds.

8658. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1?. A—58.1 minutes. B—51.9 minutes. C—54.7 minutes.

8659. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2?. A—1 hour 35 minutes. B—1 hour 52 minutes. C—1 hour 46 minutes.

8660. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-3?. A—2 hours 9 minutes. B—1 hour 59 minutes. C—1 hour 52 minutes.

8661. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-4?. A—48.3 minutes. B—50.7 minutes. C—51.3 minutes.

8662. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?. A—1 hour 11 minutes. B—56 minutes. C—62 minutes.

8663. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?. A—5,230 pounds. B—5,970 pounds. C—5,550 pounds.

8664. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?. A—10,270 pounds. B—9,660 pounds. C—10,165 pounds.

8666. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4?. A—4,950 pounds. B—5,380 pounds. C—5,230 pounds.

8667. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-5?. A—6,250 pounds. B—5,380 pounds. C—7,120 pounds.

8603. (Refer to Figures 297 and 481.) With a reported temperature of 0°C, at 500 feet AGL after takeoff, and airspeed of 145 knots IAS, the radius of turn is. A—7,850 feet. B—8,150 feet. C—8,450 feet.

8604. (Refer to Figure 469.) With an OAT of -20°C at 20,000 feet and an IAS of 150, the Maximum Continuous Power Torque Setting is. A—64%. B—66%. C—68%.

8702. A jet airplane is flying at .72 Mach with an OAT of -40°C. What is the true airspeed?. A—430 knots. B—452 knots. C—464 knots.

8697. (Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) (Note: Applicants may request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use while computing the answer. All printed pages must be returned to test proctor.) With the load weights shown in Figure 414, you fill the fuel tanks to the maximum fuel to remain under maximum gross weight and compute the center of gravity. Your computations indicate. A—at a CG of 200.1, your loading is satisfactory for flight operations. B—at a CG of 180.19, you need to redistribute your loads. C—at a CG of 190.27, you only need to change the cargo pod loading.

8698. (Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) What is the CG in inches from datum under the following loading conditions? See page 279 for reference. A—Station 202.6. B—Station 198.5. C—Station 205.6.

8623. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-1. A—8 ANU. B—7-5/8 ANU. C—7-3/4 ANU.

8624. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-2?. A—5-3/4 ANU. B—7 ANU. C—6-3/4 ANU.

8625. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-3?. A—3 ANU. B—4-1/2 ANU. C—5 ANU.

8626. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-4?. A—4-1/4 ANU. B—4-1/2 ANU. C—5 ANU.

8627. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5?. A—6-3/4 ANU. B—8 ANU. C—7-1/2 ANU.