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Título del test:

Aerodynamics - Flight Operataions - Meteorology - Weather

Raymond Luis Arrieta
(Otros tests del mismo autor)

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When are inboard ailerons normally used? Low-Speed Flight Only High- Speed Flight Only Low-Speed and High-Speed Flight.
When are outboard ailerons normally used? Low-speed flight only High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.
Which of the following is considered a primary flight control? Slats Elevator Dorsal Fin.
Which fo the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? Ruddervator Upper Rudder Leading-Edge Flaps.
What is the purpouse of anti-servo tab? Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
What is the purpose of servo tab? Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps? Increase the camber of the wing reduce lift without increasing the airspeed Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
what is the purpose of flight spoilers? increase the camber of the wing reduce lifht without increasing the airspeed Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move? Same direction Opposite direction Remains fixed for al positions.
What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude? The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. The rate of turn will increase resulting in a increased load factor. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.
Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? Decrease lift at relative slow speeds Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flighht below that speed for maximun l/d? Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
What is load factor? Lift multiplied by the total weight. Lift substracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight.
What affect indicated stall speed? Weight, load factor, and power. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.
Why must the angle of attack br increased during a turn to mantain altitude? Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.
How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease Rate and radius will increase.
Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed.
If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be: 2G 3G 9G.
Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators: directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
What is the safest and most efficient takeofff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to? best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climbat that speed. Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. an airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.
What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at vmc? Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/ min.
What criteria determines which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine airplane? The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.
What effect , if any, does altitude have on vmc for an airplane with unsupercharged engines? None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude.
Under what conditions should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane? With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended.
What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a Light, twin-engine airplane represent? Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.
Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after thecontrol have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.
What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.
Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. Motion about the longitudinal axis. Motion about the lateral axis. Motion about the vertical axis.
What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability. Neutral dynamic stability.
What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability.
What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? Sluggish in aileron control Sluggish in rudder control. Unstable about the lateral axis.
What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be the same. two times greater. four times greater.
What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
What are some chracateristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's lift, gross weight, and drag. lift, airspeed, and drag, lift and airspeed, but not drag.
The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the: L/Dmax. lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.
Within what Mach range dos transonic flight regimes usually occur? .50 to .75 Mach. .75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.
What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? Prevent flow separation. Decrease rate of sink. Increase profile drag.
What is the highest speed posible without supersonic flow over the wing? Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic.
What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft? A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. A severe moment or "tuck under" Severe porpoising.
What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design? The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip-section. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
What is the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll inone direction while yawing in the other? Porpoise. Wingover. Dutch roll.
What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first? Inward and aft. Inward and forward. Outward and forward,.
For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. varies with the rate of turn. is constant.
What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? Parasite drag increases more than irduced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? Low speed. High speed. Any speed.
Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the: aircraft dispatcher. flight navigator. pilot in command.
When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for operations, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take? List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. Add 1 additional hour of fuel basedon cruise power settings for the airplane in use. List at least one additional alternate airport.
An alternate airport for departure is required: if weather conditions are below Authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).
What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes? 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport. for a period 1 hours before or after the ETA. during the entire flight. when the flight arrives.
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive. those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives. those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight.
Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport? If the instrument approach is contructed in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.
Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.
With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight"? Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet,excluding cruise flight.
What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received? Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.
What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? Time and altitudel flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/ flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
Maximum holding speed for a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is: 265 knots 230 knots 156 knots.
Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is: 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.
Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is: 265 knots. 230 knots 200 knots.
When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern? 3° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whicheever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less.
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound? Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.
When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed: 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised immediately? Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.
What minimum information dos an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include? Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearence? A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. When an IFR clearence is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.
What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000? Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.
Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes? Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by CORPAC Flight Planning. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/ min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/ min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to clib 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix por piint to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed, exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact? Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turnoutbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.
A minimun instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearence of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas. Minimum Obstruction Clearence Altitude (MOCA) Off-Route Obstruction Clearence Altitude (OROCA) Minimun Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).
Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by: stating "Have numbers" stating "Have Weather" repeating the alphabetical codè word appended to the broadcast.
When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition? The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions. The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion. The pilot should advice ATC to cancel the IFR portion and active the VFR portion.
Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan? All compulsory reporting points en route. The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight. The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.
What is the primary purpose of a STAR? Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.
When does ATC issue a STAR? Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.
What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes? Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? Continue taxing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback? Except for SiD's, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message isunderstood.
How should a pilot describe braking action? 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percenI, or 100 percent Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Nil, poor, fair, or good.
What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect? Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearence Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request.
What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when "gate hold procedures are in effect? They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.
What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s? Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning. Airport or primary runway closings, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages. Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI.
NOTAM (L) s are used to disseminate what type of information? Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. Taxi closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approaches criteria, and airport rotating beacon outages Time critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in normally published charts.
How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis? 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take? Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.
What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach? A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet? 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.
If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take? Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as posible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach At the DH when the runway is not cleabrly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.
Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be inititiated upon? arrival at the DH on the glide sippe. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway? Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visibleand identifiable.
What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when celared for an ILS approach? The pilot: may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.
What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported? 114 SM. 3/4 SM 3/8 SM.
The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value? 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM.
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value? 5/8 SM 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM.
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.
ICAO Holding Speeds? Up to 14000 ft: 230kts 14000 ft to 20000 ft: 240kts 20000 ft to 34000 ft: 265kts Above 34000 ft: M0.83 NONE.
Where dos the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC? High altitudes close to the VORTAC Low altitudes close to the VORTAC Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
What DME indicator should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000feet? O DME miles 2 DME miles 2.3 DME miles.
What functions are provided by ILS? Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle Azimuth, range and vertical angle Guidance, range, and visual information.
Within what frequency range dos the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? 108.10 to 118.10 MHZ 108.10 to 111.95 MHz 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
The lowest ILS Category Il minimums are? DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet DH 100 feet and RVR 1200 feet DH 150 feet and RVR 1500 feet.
What is the lowest Category IlIA minimum? DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet RV 1000 feet RVR 700 feet.
Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan to be: RNAV equipped Astrotracker equipped FMS/EFIS equipped.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as: 1,500 ft/min. 4,500 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of: 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease? Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind? Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"? Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shearexcepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changesgreater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min. Any rapid change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in ecxess of 100 ft/min.
Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as? 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of? 40 knots. 80 knots 90 knots.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground untildissipation.
What is a characteristic of the troposphere? It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather? Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
What characterizes a ground-based inversion? Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility.
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.
When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period? After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight.
Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems? Arctic only Arctic and subtropical Subtropical only.
At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction: decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. decreases pressure gradient force. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer? Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind.
What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. Descending to the surface and then outward. Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.
Where is the usual location of a thermal low? Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.
Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that: a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than lighticing. a layer of warmer air exists above. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.
What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. There is an inversion with colder air below.
What term describes an elongated area of low pressure? Trough. Ridge. Hurricane or typhon.
What is an important characteristic of wind shear? It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? "SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE" A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a posibility of wind shear over or near the airport.
Where is a common location for an inversion? At the base of cumulus clouds. In the stratosphere. At the tropopause.
What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion? The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? Katabatic. Advection. Adiabatic.
What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? 3° per 1,000 feet. 2° per 1,000 feet. 4° per 1,000 feet.
Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: at the surface reduced to sea level at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.
At which location dos Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? At the poles. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°). At the Equator.
How dos Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere? Causes clockwise rotation around a low. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost? The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the airtemperature. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces? On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.
What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased? The air is unstable. A temperature inversion exists. The air is stable.
Which process causes adiabatic cooling? Expansion of air as it raises. Movement of air over a colder surface. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases: at a faster than dry air because of the release of latent heat. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.
Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable? The parcel of air resists convection. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.
Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? Nimbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus.
Which event usually occurs after an aircraft pases through a fron into the colder air? Temperature/ dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.
What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity? 4,000 feet thick. 2,000 feet thick. A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.
Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake? Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? Cumulus. Dissipating. Mature.
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft.
What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"? Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.
Where do squall lines most often develop? In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.
Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value: during the downdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorm is approaching. immediately after the rain showers have stopped.
Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous? Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity. Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface. Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.
advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? Temperature inversion. Wind stronger than 15 knots. Surface radiation.
How are haze layers cleared or dispersed? By convective mixing in cool night air. By wind or the movement of air. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds? Cumulonimbus mamma Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.
When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least: 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed. 2,500 feet. 500 feet above any moderate to a severe turbulence layer.
Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band? Squall line. Advective fog. Frontogenesis.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a posible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope? Less power is required. Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.
What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.
Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets.
Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? Clear ice. Frost ice. Rime ice.
Which is a necessary condition for the ocurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? Rotor cloud. Standing lenticular. Low stratus.
Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts? The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.
Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream? Cold front and warm front. Warm Front Occluded Front.
Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream? Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.
Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind? Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change occurs to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a posible elongated area.
Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence? Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as: convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence.
What is likely location of clear air turbulence? In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. .
Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur? In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jestream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.
Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.
Where are jetstreams normally located? In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break.
Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at thedestination airport, at the ETA? Low-Level Prog Chart. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of: a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport. a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus.
What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity. Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station. Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.
What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? Ocasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulence.
SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 B 2SM+SHRA SCT005BKN035 OVC050CB24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RWO9L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition? Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21. Precipitation started at 57 after the hour. 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.
METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)? Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour. The ceiling was at 25, 000 feet MSL. Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.
METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM-RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC? The rain became lighter. Atmospheric pressure increased A funnel cloud was observed.
METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001. SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC. What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)? The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed. Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour. Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.
A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of: thunderstorms or other precipitation. precipitation or low visibility. thunderstorms or high wind.
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? Increased stall speed. Increased pitchup tendencies. Increased pitchup tendencies.
The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non precipitation conditions is to: raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point. increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).
Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process? Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? Increased stall speed Increased pitchdown tendencies Increased angle of attack for stalls.
Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids: need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.
The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and: increased thrust. a decreased stall speed. an increased stall speed.
What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades? could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. It can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as? VRBOOKT. 00000KT. 00003KT.
In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as? 00003KT. VRBOOKT. 00000KT.
The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is: METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1 / 4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $ less than 1/4 statute mile. measured 1/4 statute mile. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute m.
The W001 in the following METAR indicates? METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/ 4SM R25/0600V1000FT-RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK A02 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $ an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet. a 100 foot indefinite ceiling. the variability value is 100 feet.
What is the hijack code? 7200. 7500. 7777.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.
What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
What is a sympton of carbon monoxide poisoning? Rapid, shallow breathing. Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. Dizziness.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A stressful situation causing anxiety. The excessive consumption of alcohol. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
What causes hypoxia? Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.
Which is a common sympton of hyperventilation? Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. Increased vision keenness. Decreased breathing rate.
Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases? the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased. the percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased. oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach: altitude may be higher than it appears. altitude may be lower than it appears. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as? inversion illusion. autokinesis. somatogravic illusion.
In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as? somatogravic illusion. ground lighting illusion. autokinesis. .
When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the posibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too? high. loW. shallow.
What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? Alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision- making abbilities. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when? ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest posible extent. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? Look only at far away, dim lights. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as? autokinesis. Coriolis illusion. the leans.
Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is? developing lift. operating at high airspeeds. using high power settings.
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to? sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. acumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
How dos the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should? lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? Direct tailwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind.
If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off? prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding 8 hours. 12 hours. 24 hours.
If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot acept any undue delay? This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declarean emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is? closer to the runway than it actually is. farther from the runway than it actually is. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.
Sudden penetration of fog can create the ilusion of ? pitching up, pitching down, leveling off.
What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? Does not cause illusions. Lower than actual. Higher than actual.
To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid make turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly? below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.
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