ATPL Emirates

1. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept-back wing in a stall is due to the: A. Aft movement of the centre of gravity. B. Forward movement of the centre of gravity. C. Wing root stalling first. D. Wing tip stalling first.

2. What are the two main types of drag?. A. Induced and interference drag. B. Parasite and induced drag. C. Form and skin friction drag. D. Induced and profile drag.

3. What are high lift devices?. A. Trailing edge flaps, leading edge flaps and slots. B. Trailing edge flaps and leading edge flaps. C. Leading edge flaps and sharklets. D. Trailing edge flaps only.

4. The Mach number: A. is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. B. is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. C. increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises. D. is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.

5. What is the critical Mach number MCRIT?. A. When a part of the aircraft reaches LSS. B. When flying in the subsonic regime. C. When flying in the supersonic regime. D. When flying at or above M1.0.

6. Where does a simple swept wing stall first?. A. Wing tip. B. Wing root. C. Mid leading edge. D. Trailing edge.

7. How do you prevent span-wise airflow on a wing especially swept wing?. A. Vortex generators. B. Fences. C. Both vortex generators and fences. D. Flaps.

8. Winglets: A. Create an elliptical lift distribution. B. Decrease the static lateral stability. C. Increase the manoeuvrability. D. Decrease the induced drag.

9. What is the relationship between stability and controllability of an aircraft?. A. An aircraft with forward center of gravity will have higher stick forces and better control response, but may result in higher stall speeds. B. The stability of an aircraft does not affect its controllability. C. The more unstable the aircraft, the more controllable it will be. D. An aircraft with aft center of gravity will have higher stick forces and better control response, but may result in higher stall speeds.

10. What are the advantages of a swept wing in a jet aircraft?. A. Increased lift and reduced profile drag. B. High Mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence. C. Improved fuel efficiency and reduced noise. D. Better take-off and landing performance.

11. A mach trim system operates: A. At all Mach numbers. B. Above the critical Mach number. C. At low Mach numbers. D. At high Mach number.

12. When considering the relationship between lateral static stability and directional stability: A. Dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll. B. Dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for spiral instability. C. Dominant directional static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll. D. They are mutually independent and have no effect on each other.

13. Mach tuck can happen?. A. Only below the critical Mach number. B. Only above the critical Mach number. C. Above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack. D. Only at the critical Mach number.

14. Compressibility effects are usually insignificant below: A. 350 knots at sea level. B. 661 knots at sea level. C. Are always significant. D. Mach 0.4.

15. Which of the following statements accurately describes direct lift control?. A. Direct lift control is a system where thrust is directly manipulated to control lift. B. Direct lift control involves adjusting the elevator or stabilizer to directly influence lift. C. Direct lift control is a method that uses air brakes to regulate lift force. D. Direct lift control relies on altering the wing shape to modify lift characteristics.

16. Which of the following are considered high drag devices?. A. Trailing edge flaps, Spoilers, Reverse thrust & Braking parachute. B. Trailing edge flaps, Spoilers, Reverse thrust. C. Trailing edge flaps, Spoilers, Reverse thrust, Braking parachute & Landing gear. D. Trailing edge flaps, Spoilers, Reverse thrust & Landing gear.

17. What is meant by speed stability in aircraft dynamics?. A. Speed stability refers to the aircraft's ability to maintain a constant speed during flight. B. Speed stability indicates the aircraft's resistance to changes in speed caused by external factors. C. Speed stability concerns the aircraft's response to disturbances, maintaining a steady speed after such events. D. Speed stability denotes the aircraft's capacity to quickly recover to its intended speed following a deviation.

18. What factor primarily influences the aircraft's angle of attack at the stall?. A. Movement of the center of gravity. B. Airspeed fluctuations. C. Change in lift coefficient. D. Movement of the center of pressure point.

19. Which of the following best describes the forces acting on an aircraft in flight?. A. Lift and Weight. B. Drag and Thrust. C. Drag, Thrust, and Weight. D. Drag, Thrust, Lift, and Weight.

20. What happens to the stall speed at very high altitudes?. A. Stall speed decreases due to reduced air density. B. Stall speed remains constant regardless of altitude. C. Stall speed increases due to reduced air density. D. Stall speed fluctuates unpredictably at high altitudes.

21. What is a super stall?. A. A stall characterized by a sudden loss of lift. B. A stall occurring at very high altitudes. C. A stall from which the aircraft is unable to recover. D. A stall that exceeds the normal stall angle of attack.

22. What is Dutch roll?. A. A yawing oscillation in both longitudinal and vertical axes. B. A bank angle to the left or right. C. A yawing oscillation in both lateral and directional axes. D. A yawing oscillation in both longitudinal and lateral axes.

23. Which of the following describes the three purposes of spoilers on an aircraft?. A. Roll control, drag reduction, and lift augmentation. B. Airspeed brakes, lift augmentation, and yaw control. C. Roll control, airspeed brakes, and ground lift dumpers. D. Pitch control, yaw control, and drag reduction.

24. Which of the following best describes Krueger flaps?. A. Krueger flaps are trailing edge wing flaps used to increase lift. B. Krueger flaps are leading edge wing flaps used to increase the wing camber. C. Krueger flaps are used for yaw control during flight. D. Krueger flaps are deployed to reduce drag during descent.

25. How do flaps affect take-off ground run for a given aircraft weight?. A. Flaps increase take-off ground run by reducing lift and increasing drag. B. Flaps decrease take-off ground run by increasing lift and increasing drag. C. Flaps have no significant effect on take-off ground run. D. Flaps increases take-off ground run by increasing lift and increasing drag.

26. What is the advantage of a variable incidence tailplane over a fixed incidence tailplane with elevator and trim tab?. A. Less trim drag and maximum elevator authority retained. B. Linkages and mechanism less complicated. C. Increased flight stability and less weight. D. Elevator movement is restricted at high speed.

27. Which of the following best describes active controls?. A. Surface that moves automatically in response to direct inputs from the pilot. B. Surface that moves automatically in response to changes in atmospheric conditions. C. Surface that moves automatically in response to non-direct inputs, such as feedback from sensors or control algorithms. D. Surface that remains fixed and does not move during flight.

28. Is there a critical engine on a jet aircraft?. A. Yes, engine no 1. B. No. C. Yes, engine no 2. D. Yes in the presence of strong crosswinds.

29. A blocked pitot head and static source causes the airspeed indicator to?. A. React like an altimeter. B. Freeze at the speed at which the pitot and static source were blocked. C. Operate normally. D. Freeze at zero.

30. What happens to your altimeter in case of a blocked pitot probe? (for aircrafts without Air Data Computer). A. Altimeter will freeze. B. Over read during descent. C. Under read during climb. D. Nothing.

31. Which high lift device will increase the critical angle of attack?. A. Slats. A. Slats. C. Spoilers. D. Fuselage-mounted speed brakes.

32. What are the two main types of drag?. A. Induced and interference drag. B. Parasite and induced drag. C. Form and skin friction drag. D. Induced and profile drag.

33. What effect does a 60 degree bank turn have on the stall?. A. Stall speed increases by approximately 40%. B. No changes to the stall speed. C. Stall speed increases by approximately 60%. D. Load factor increases by approximately 4G.

34. What happens to airspeed in the climb with a blocked Pitot?. A. Over read. B. Under read. C. Reverts to zero. D. Freezes.

35. What happens to airspeed in the descent with a blocked static port?. A. Over read. B. Under read. C. Reverts to zero. C. Reverts to zero.

36. If your static port gets clogged with ice on descent, your altimeter will?. A. Over read. B. Under read. C. Reverts to zero. D. Freezes.

37. What are the advantages of a swept wing in a jet aircraft?. A. Increased lift and reduced profile drag. B. High Mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence. C. Improved fuel efficiency and reduced noise. D. Better takeoff and landing performance.

38. What is the relationship between altitude and the performance of a jet engine?. A. Engine performance decreases with altitude due to the decrease in air density. B. Engine performance remains constant regardless of altitude. C. Engine performance increases with altitude as the air becomes cooler. D. Engine performance varies unpredictably with altitude changes.

39. On a conventional wing, lift is generated primarily by: A. The shape of the wing and the angle of attack relative to the airflow. B. The weight of the aircraft pressing down on the air molecules. C. The rotation of the wing generating a downward force. D. The density of the air molecules impacting the wing's surface.

40. What is the main purpose of having swept-back wings?. A. To increase CLMAX. B. To increase Mcrit. C. To reduce the stall speed. D. To decrease CLMAX.

41. What reduces the critical angle of attack? Use of: A. Slats. B. Flaps. C. Spoilers. D. Fuselage-mounted speed brakes.

42. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: A. Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location. B. Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slipstream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing. C. Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location. D. Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in a turn.

43. A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced): A. Increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing speed. B. Decreases stalling speed and landing speed. C. Increases stalling speed. D. Does not affect any of the above.

44. How does stalling speed vary with load factor?. A. It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor. B. It increases proportionally with the load factor. C. It decreases inversely with the load factor. D. It decreases inversely with the square root of the load factor.

45. The point at which shockwaves begin to form is known as?. A. Critical Mach number (Mcrit). B. Detachment Mach number (Mdet). C. Drag Divergence Mach number (Mcdr). D. M1.0.

46. The following is true concerning a balance tab. It is: A. Used to increase feel. B. Only operating at high speed. C. A form of mass balance. D. A form of aerodynamic balance.

47. What is pressure altitude?. A. Vertical distance of the aircraft above the standard datum plane. B. Vertical distance of the aircraft above mean sea level (MSL). C. Absolute altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. D. Altitude directly related to the aircraft’s performance.

48. A V-shaped extension of a low pressure area is called a: A. Occlusion. B. Trough. C. Col. D. Ridge.

49. Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occluded front is generated?. A. A cold front is halted and becomes almost stationary. B. A cold front overtakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is lifted. C. Cold air wedges under warm air. D. Warm air supersedes cold air.

50. What is meant by the expression “Low level windshear”?. A. A change of wind direction and force during a limited period of time within a small area. B. The effect of friction. C. Turbulence containing whirling dust. D. The wind when blowing across the isobars.

51. A microburst usually lasts for ________ and is about ________ across. A. 20 minutes 20 NM. B. 5 minutes 5 km. C. 30 minutes 10 NM. D. 45 minutes 5 NM.

52. Clear air turbulence (CAT) should be reported whenever it is experienced. What should be reported if crew and passengers feel a definite strain against their seat or shoulder straps, food service and walking is difficult and loose objects become dislodged?. A. Light TURB. B. Extreme TURB. C. Severe TURB. D. Moderate TURB.

53. Which phenomenon is often associated with a jetstream?. A. Icing. B. Windshear. C. Clear air turbulence (CAT). D. Both icing and windshear.

54. What does it indicate if you encounter a port wind while flying in the Northern Hemisphere?. A. You are flying towards a low-pressure system. B. You are flying towards a high-pressure system. C. You are flying at a constant altitude. D. You are flying in calm weather conditions.

55. The ITCZ is best described as: A. Where cold fronts are formed in the tropics. B. Where the trade winds of the north and southern hemisphere meet. C. Where the west winds meet the sub-tropical high pressure belt. D. Where the Harmattan meets the NE trades in Africa.

56. What will occur if the DALR (Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate) i.e. Dry Bulb = the SALR (Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) i.e. Wet Bulb?. A. Clouds will form. B. Humidity will increase. C. Temperature will decrease. D. Precipitation is likely to occur.

57. At which levels can windshear occur?. A. Low level only. A. Low level only. C. High level only. D. All levels (Low, Mid, and High).

58. Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?. A. Stratocumulus. B. Nimbostratus. C. Altocumulus lenticularis. D. Cirrocumulus.

59. The atmospheric conditions required before a sea breeze starts are: A. Decrease in stability over the land due to insolation. B. An increase in pressure for a given upper level due to surface heating by day. C. A reduction in the decrease of pressure with height over land compared with the sea. D. Increase in stability over the sea due to nocturnal cooling.

60. During what months would you expect fog in Dubai?. A. Winter months of November to April. B. Summer months of May to October. C. Throughout the year. D. Only during spring and autumn.

61. During what months would you expect sandstorms in Dubai?. A. Summer months of May to October. B. Winter months of November to April. C. Throughout the year. D. Only during spring and autumn.

62. What significant weather can be expected in Dubai that can be a hazard to transport airplanes?. A. Sandstorms. B. Heavy rain. C. Snowstorms. D. Tornadoes.

63. Which months is the monsoon season in South Asia?. A. June to September. B. December to February. C. March to May. D. October to November.

64. The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) temperature at 39,000 feet (FL390) is approximately: A. −56.5°C. B. −43.5°C. C. −33.5°C. D. −21.5°C.

65. What are the characteristics of the weather in the vicinity of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?. A. High precipitation and frequent thunderstorms. B. Dry conditions with strong winds. C. Stable weather with clear skies. D. Extreme cold temperatures.

66. If the air mass lapse rate is 2°C per 1000 feet, and the air is saturated, is the atmosphere stable or unstable?. A. Stable. B. Unstable. C. Neutral. D. Inverted.

67. What does “VVxxx” mean on a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)?. A. Variable visibility, less than xxx meters. B. Vicinity visibility, xxx meters. C. Vertical visibility, xxx feet. D. Vertical visibility is unavailable.

68. In a METAR what does SS mean?. A. Squall. B. Smoke. C. Sandstorm. D. Widespread Dust.

69. What does “WS” stand for?. A. Windsock. B. Windshear. C. Weather Satellite. D. Wind Speed.

70. If an anti-cyclone brings good weather in the southern hemisphere, what weather does it bring in the northern hemisphere?. A. Good weather. B. Stormy weather. C. Foggy weather. D. Freezing weather.

71. How is the cloud ceiling specified on a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)?. A. In feet Above Ground Level (AGL). B. In feet Above Mean Sea Level (MSL). C. In meters Above Ground Level (AGL). D. In meters Above Mean Sea Level (MSL).

72. If the static outside air temperature at 39,000 feet is found to be −47.5°C, what is the deviation from the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)?. A. ISA −5. A. ISA +5. C. ISA −9. D. ISA +9.

73. The anabatic wind mostly blows: A. Down the slope during the night. B. Down the slope during the day. C. Up the slope during the night. D. Up the slope during the day.

74. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation?. A. Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure. B. Stable conditions and high moisture content. C. Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure. D. Unstable conditions and high moisture content.

75. What are the stages involved in a thunderstorm?. A. Developing, mature and dissipating stage. B. Updraft, mixed and microburst stage. C. Towering and dissipating stage. D. Dissipating, developing stage.

76. In the Northern Hemisphere, the diurnal variation of wind at about 2000 feet is such that: A. The wind will have an increasing speed and the wind direction will veer. B. The wind will have a decreasing speed and the wind direction will back. C. The wind will have a decreasing speed and the wind direction will veer. D. The wind will have an increasing speed and the wind direction will back.

77. On the Indian subcontinent, the northeasterly monsoon occurs: A. Between June and September. B. Between October and February. C. Throughout the year. D. Only during spring and autumn.

78. The katabatic wind mostly blows: A. Down the slope during the night. B. Down the slope during the day. C. Up the slope during the night. D. Up the slope during the day.

79. According to Buys Ballot’s law, if you stand with your back to the wind in the Northern Hemisphere, where will the low pressure (temperature) be located?. A. On your left side. B. On your right side. C. In front of you. D. Behind you.

80. Which of the following best represents the ISA temperature at FL390?. A. −49.5°C. B. −56.5°C. C. −61.5°C. D. −68.5°C.

81. What is the gliding distance for an aircraft at 30,000 feet?. A. 150 NM. B. 100 NM. C. 200 NM. D. 50 NM.

82. During the rainy season the runways are frequently wet following heavy rain showers. What landing techniques should be adopted when operating on such runways?. A. Positive landings with prompt full application of all retardation devices and maximum brake/autobrake with anti-skid. B. Use of reverse thrust should be kept to a minimum to avoid water spray and impingement, and anti-skid braking should be applied slowly to avoid hydroplaning. C. Light touchdown landings with maximum airbrake and reverse thrust but minimum anti-skid braking. D. It is vital to maintain a normal approach and landing technique but use a slower approach and landing speed compared to dry runway operations.

83. What do we call the following: The aircraft mass plus standard items such as unusable fluids, fire extinguishers, emergency oxygen equipment, supplementary electronics etc?. A. Dry operating mass. B. Basic empty mass. C. Operating mass. D. Zero fuel mass.

84. Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as: A. The datum. B. The centre of gravity of the aeroplane. C. The focal point. D. The axis.

85. What is the maximum time from an adequate aerodrome that a two-engined aeroplane without ETOPS approval, with more than 19 seats and MTOM of 6,813 kg, may fly?. A. 90 min flying time at OEI cruising speed. B. 120 min flying time at OEI cruising speed. C. 60 min flying time at OEI cruising speed. D. 180 min flying time at OEI cruising speed.

86. What is balanced V1?. A. TODR = ASDR. B. TODA = ASDA. C. TODR = ASDA. D. TORA = TODA.

87. A circling approach is: A. A flight manoeuvre only under radar vectoring. B. A contact flight manoeuvre. C. A visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. D. A visual manoeuvre only in IMC.

88. How would you configure for a field length limited take-off?. A. Use a higher flap setting. B. Increase VR. C. Use a lower flap setting. D. Reduce the weight.

89. The first segment in the take-off flight path starts: A. From V1. B. From VR. C. From screen height. D. From VLO.

90. How would you configure for a climb or obstacle limited take-off?. A. Use a higher flap setting. B. Use a lower flap setting. C. Reduce VR. D. Reduce V1.

91. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: A. Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft. B. Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision. C. Is always equal to VEF. D. Is the airspeed upon reaching 35 feet.

92. In order which V speed is correct?. A. V1, VS, VMCA and V2. B. V1, VMCA, VR, VS, VLO and V2. C. V1, V2, VR, VLO and VS. D. V1, VMCA, VS, VR, VLO and V2.

93. Which of the following best describes the difference between MRC, MEC and LRC speed?. A. MRC fastest, MEC longest time, LRC balance. B. MRC slowest longest range, MEC longest time, LRC balance. C. MRC fastest shortest range. D. MRC slowest shortest range.

94. What is the cost index?. A. A measurement of the cost per unit of fuel used by an aircraft. B. A parameter to determine optimal speed and altitude. C. Total operating cost. D. A measurement of speed and efficiency.

95. What is the relationship between VMCG and V1?. A. VMCG must always be ≤ V1. B. VMCG must always be > V1. C. They are the same. D. V1 must always be lower.

96. What speed will you maintain after engine failure just after take-off to maintain control?. A. V2. B. V2 + 10 kts. C. VMCL. D. VMCA.

97. Which of the following best describes ETOPS?. A. Weather tool. B. Navigation system. C. Certification allowing twin-engine long range flights. D. Simulator.

98. RVSM airspace is considered between: A. Above FL100. B. FL300–FL400. C. FL280–FL410. D. FL290–FL410.

99. What is the controlling RVR when three values are reported?. A. Midpoint. B. Takeoff. C. Touchdown. D. CMV.

100. The lowest usable flight level is determined by adding: A. 500 ft to transition level. B. 500 ft to transition altitude. C. 1500 ft to transition layer. D. 800 ft to transition altitude.