BASE PREGUNTAS CURSO BOEING 737-700/800/900

1. Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates: a. An overpressure condition. b. An over temperature or overpressure condition. c. The respective cowl anti-ice valve is open. d. The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti-ice valve position disagrees with the respective engine anti-ice switch position.

2. Windshield wipers of are provided to maintain a clear area on the cockpit No.1 windows. Which of the following statements is correct?. a. Each wiper is operated by a separate system. b. Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated & electrically controlled. c. Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield. d. None of the above.

3. Both windshield wipers are controlled with a common switch. a. True. b. False.

4. Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?. a. Elevator pitot probes. b. Alternate static ports. c. No.1 Aux pitot probe and static port. d. No.2 Aux pitot probe and static port.

5. Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat?. a. Leading flaps. b. Outboard leading edge slats. c. Three inboard leading edge slats. d. All of the above.

6. With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2position: a. The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First Officer's displays. b. Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator. c. DEU 2 controls all six display units. d. ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot probe.

7. The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle is 35 degrees or more. a. True. b. False.

8. The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on the Mode Control Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse). a. True. b. False.

9. The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading & VOR/ADF bearing to the station. The RMI is powered by: a. The AC transfer bus 2. b. The AC standby bus. c. The DC standby bus. d. The TR3.

10. Concerning Navigation Display Information, Heading is supplied by Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) & Track is supplied by the FMC during normal operation. a. True. b. False.

11. If you select the 'BOTH ON 1' switch of the CONTROL PANEL: a. The Left EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units. b. The Right EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units. c. The Left ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units. d. The Right ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units.

12. The Mach digital counter indicates current Mach number & it is displayed when airspeed increases above Mach. a. 0.30. b. 0.40. c. 0.50. d. 0.60.

13. The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either DEU1 or DEU2 for all 6 display units. If the displays are automatically or manually switched to a single DEU source, a 'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation illuminates above both pilot's altimeters. a. True. b. False.

14. If the Upper Display fails: a. The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard display and the Upper display blanks. b. The engine display automatically moves to the Outboard display and the Upper display blanks. c. The engine display automatically moves to the Lower display and the Upper display blanks. d. The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard or Outboard display and the Upper display blanks.

15. What is the purpose of the Air Data Modules (ADMs)?. a. The ADMs convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. b. The ADMs provide only pitot & static pressure to the standby instruments. c. The ADMs provide inertial position & track data to the displays thru the ADIRUs. d. The ADMs measure thru the Alpha vanes the airplane angle-of-attack.

16. The Weather Radar Annunciation 'WXR ATT' indicates: a. The Weather radar has failed. b. The Weather radar Attitude calibration has been lost. c. The Attitude stabilization for antenna has been lost. d. The Display unit cooling has been lost or an overheat condition has occurred.

17. The ND Wind direction/speed and wind arrow is: a. Displayed in only in ND MAP mode. b. Blanked if wind speed becomes less than 6 knots. c. Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots. d. Displayed only in ILS mode.

18. During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three second. What does it mean?. a. Radio altitude data is unreliable. b. The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA). c. A windshear has been encountered. d. The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet.

19. The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set: a. Automatically when APPROACH is selected on the MCP panel. b. Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel. c. By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page. d. By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel.

20. The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL: a. The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available. b. The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is operating. c. The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON. d. The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in GROUND position.

21. The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. What does it mean?. a. The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch. b. Glide slope is not being tracked. c. The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more. d. The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error.

22. An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates: a. The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be considered unreliable unless verified by another source. b. A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units. c. A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. d. A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all six display units.

23. If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed: a. Never. It can only be displayed manually with the MAIN PANEL DU selectors. b. On the ENGINE PRIMARY display. c. On the ENGINE SECONDARY display. d. On the inboard display unit.

24. An amber CDS FAULT annunciation below each speed tape indicates: a. The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be considered unreliable unless verified by another source. b. A single DEU has been manually selected to drive all six display units. c. A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. d. Single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all six display units.

25. The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data: a. Position and speed only. b. Attitude and speed only. c. Altitude and speed only. d. Position, attitude, altitude and speed.

26. When Max range is selected on the EFIS Control Panel, weather radar returns are limited to: a. 80 NM. b. 160 NM. c. 320 NM. d. 640 NM.

27. With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be shown within: a. 160 NM. b. 120 NM. c. 80 NM. d. 40 NM.

28. The power source for Engine Fire Extinguishing is: a. Transfer Bus No.1. b. The Switched Battery Bus. c. The Hot Battery Bus. d. None of the above.

30. Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the: a. Battery bus. b. No.1 AC Transfer bus. c. Switched hot battery bus.

31. A dual fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well. a. True. b. False.

32. Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered by : a. Hot battery bus. b. Switch hot battery bus. c. Transfer bus No.1. d. DC bus 1 and DC bus 2.

33. The cargo compartment blowout panels: a. Allow air to flow into or out of the cargo compartments. b. Prevent cargo movement in flight. c. Prevent damage to the airplane structure during sudden decompression. d. Is just forward of the FWD cargo compartment and AFT of the nose wheel well.

34. The escape slide can be armed and disarmed: a. Automatically when you close the door. b. Manually from a switch at the FWD attendant panel. c. Manually securing the girt bar in the escape slide floor brackets. d. Manually securing the girt bar to the girt bar retainer hooks.

35. The volume and pressure of the air is sufficient to inflate the escape slide within: a. Six seconds. b. Four seconds. c. Ten seconds. d. Twenty seconds.

36. What is the meaning of the IDG?. a. Inertial Drive Generator. b. Integrated Drive Ground. c. Integrated Drive Generator.

37. What is the meaning of HPTACC?. a. High pressure turbine. b. High pressure turbine active clearance control. c. High pressure relive valve clearance control.

38. How many fan cowl latch has each engine?. a. Three. b. One. c. Two.

39. The IDG access door is on the right fan cowl panel for each engine?. a. False. b. True.

40. The purpose of the AC ground service bus is to power: a. The cabin lighting. b. The utility outlets. c. The battery charger. d. All the above.

41. The TR´s (Transformer rectifier) convert: a. 115 volts DC to 28 volts AC. b. 115 volts AC to 28 volts AC. c. 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC. d. 115 volts DC to 28 volts DC.

42. Which is the power source for the AC standby bus?. a. Transfer bus 1 under normal conditions. b. Transfer bus 2. c. AC main bus 1. d. Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions.

43. A high oil temperature in the IDG would cause an automatic disconnect of the IDG. a. True. b. False.

44. The cross bus tie relay: a. Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach. b. Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode. c. Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF. d. Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter.

45. Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates: a. Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards. b. Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measured. c. The Ground Service Bus is powered by a ground power supply. d. The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply.

46. For ground service, a ground service switch is placed: a. On aft overhead panel on the Flight Deck. b. On aft attendant´s panel. c. On forward attendant´s panel. d. On external receptacle on the right side of the aircraft exterior.

47. One basic rule of operation for the B737 electrical system is: a. All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System. b. There is no paralleling of the AC power sources. c. The aircraft must be on ground and GPU connected. d. An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source.

48. Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates: a. The battery is being overcharged. b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON. c. The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON. d. The battery bus is not powered.

49. In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC external power. a. True. b. False.

50. Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates: a. The associated generator bus is not powered. b. The associated transfer bus is not powered. c. The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus. d. The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.

51. Which equipment management the logic of the lights in the electrical panel : a. SPCU. b. GCU. c. AGCU. d. SCU AND SPU.

52. Illumination of the DRIVE light indicates: a. IDG failure. b. IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature. c. IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch. d. Any of the above.

53. The TR UNIT will illuminate in flight if: a. Any TR unit fails. b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail. c. TR2 fails. d. TR3 fails.

54. The ELEC light will illuminate in flight if: a. A fault exists in the AC or Standby power system. b. A fault exists in the DC or Standby system. c. A fault exists in the AC, DC or the Standby system. d. The ELEC light only operates on the ground.

55. With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle: a. The APU can be started using DC external power. b. The battery is paralleled with the DC External power source. c. All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered. d. There is no external DC power receptacle.

56. The main battery charger is powered through: a. DC bus 1. b. AC ground service bus 2. c. AC main bus 1. d. Transfer Bus 1.

57. The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the first bus that is shed?. a. Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first. b. Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first. c. The AC standby bus is shed first. d. None of above.

58. The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the second bus that is shed?. a. Galleys on transfer bus 1. b. Galleys on transfer bus 2. c. The AC ground service bus. d. The AC standby bus.

59. After an overload situation has been resolved, how do you recover the galley buses?. a. It happens automatically. b. Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON. c. A ground engineer should reselect the appropriate switch in the E/E.

60. Once disconnected, the IDG can be reconnected in flight. a. True. b. False.

61. There is no fluid transfer at the PTU between system A and B. a. TRUE. b. FALSE.

62. What is the indication that the PTU is operating?. a. PTU LOW PRESSURE light goes out. b. System B EDO LOW PRESSURE light comes on. c. There is no indication for PTU operation.

63. What are not indicating on Hydraulic System. a. Hydraulic fluid quantity. b. Hydraulic press. c. Hydraulic low press. d. Hydraulic low temperature.

64. You can service the main and standby hydraulic systems from a single point: a. TRUE. b. FALSE.

65. What is the purpose of the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit?. a. Monitors the takeoff configuration warning. b. Monitors the landing configuration warning. c. Monitors the landing gear. d. All of the above.

66. The start lever controls ignition system power to the: a. FMC. b. DEU. c. EEC. d. CDS.

67. What is not a component of ignition system. a. Fuel manifold. b. Ignition exciter. c. Air manifold. d. Spark igniter.

68. Where is located the ignition selector switch. a. P61. b. P5. c. P3. d. P18.

69. What electrical source supply power to LH ignition system. a. 28 VDC DC Bus. b. 115 AC Standby bus. c. 115 AC Transfer bus. d. 28 VDC Standby bus.

70. What is the purpose of turbine clearance control. a. Prevent an engine stall. b. Blades tips do not rub against the case. c. Engine use less fuel. d. To have air flow to all power condition.

71. HPTACC controls air from what stage. a. 8 AND 9 STAGE. b. 13 AND 8 STAGE. c. 9 AND 4 STAGE. d. 5 AND 9 STAGE.

72. VSV Actuator follow position by: a. RVDT. b. Piston actuator. c. Pressure rod. d. LVDT.

73. To increase the compressor efficiency and stall margin is used. a. VBV. b. VSV. c. TVB. d. LVDT.

74. Engine control system supplies: a. Deploys reverse control. b. Supply electrical signal to engine. c. Control the engine thrust. d. Lock thrust solenoid.

75. What type of signal is send to EEC from resolvers. a. Electrical. b. Mechanical. c. Digital. d. Pressure.

76. What is the purpose of the air conditioning system?. a. To provide cold air for the passengers and crew. b. To provide pressure and temperature controlled air to the cabin areas. c. To control the amount of temperature controlled air entering and exiting the airplane. d. To compensate for turbulence and anomalous characteristics of atmospheric conditions.

77. The recirculation system has these components: a. Two fans, two filters, and a collector shroud. b. One filter, one fan, one check valve, and a collector shroud. c. One filter, two fans, one check valve, and a collector shroud. d. One fan bypass check valve, one fan, two filters, and a collector shroud.

78. The pack heat exchangers: a. Receive cooling air from the engine bleed air precooler system. b. Remove heat from the pneumatic supply source and the air cycle machine compressor discharge air. c. Control air through the ram air system. d. All of the above.

79. PACKTRIP OFF light will illuminate when which of the following overheat switches or temperature sensors detects an overheat condition?. a. Compressor discharge overheat switch, turbine inlet overheat switch, 190F/88C duct overheat switch, or 250F/121C duct overheat switch. b. Compressor discharge overheat switch, turbine inlet overheat switch, duct limit sensor, or 210F/99C duct overheat switch. c. Compressor discharge overheat switch, turbine inlet overheat switch, or 190F/88C duct overheat switch. d. Compressor discharge overheat switch, turbine inlet overheat switch, or 250F/121 C duct overheat switch.

80. How many doors have the main landing gear. a. 2. b. 3. c. 4.

81. If you disconnect the torsion link to permit the landing gear to move. a. More of 78 grades. b. 87 grades. c. 50 grades.

82. Hydraulic system B supplies pressure for retraction only through the landing gear transfer valve. a. True. b. False.

83. The landing gear control lever has these three positions with detents. a. Up, off , down. b. On , off , In. c. Up, down, Lock.

84. You can also manually operate the landing gear transfer valve with the BITE of the proximity switch electronic unit (pseu). a. True. b. false.

85. The landing control level is locked out of the UP position by a mechanical level. a. 28V dc battery bus. b. 115V ac. c. 28V dc power.

86. How many up lock actuators are installed in each MLG. a. 1. b. 3. c. 2.

87. When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, the landing gear extends by: a. Hydraulic pressure. b. Gravity. c. Air loads. d. All the above.

88. What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?. a. If hydraulic B fluid is lost the landing gear can be extended by automatic activation of the transfer unit. b. In case of No1 engine failure/separation, the gear can be retracted after takeoff. c. In case of engine failure the gear can be retracted in order to reduce drag for the cruise segment. d. If hydraulic A fluid is lost, the transfer unit must be manually selected to B fluid when the gear lever is selected up.

89. Normal hydraulic brake pressure is: a. 2000 psi. b. 3000 psi. c. 3500 psi.

90. Which are the parameters of recording of the flight recorder: a. 25 hours. b. 2 hours. c. 24 hours. d. 30 minutes.

91. What is the function of the service interphone?. a. Controls communication between the forward and aft flight attendant stations. b. Supplies intercommunication between the flight deck, flight attendants and ground personnel. c. Connects the external jacks used by maintenance personnel to the service interphone system. d. Disconnects the cabin attendant stations from the flight interphone system.

92. What is the total fuel capacity of the Boeing 737 NG : a. 43.000 pounds. b. 40.000 pounds. c. 46.000 pounds. d. 42.000 pounds.

93. The imbalance message appears when the difference between tanks is greater than: a. 200 pounds. b. 800 pounds. c. 1000 pounds. d. 1500 pounds.

94. How is the aileron trim system controlled: a. By electric control with hydraulic operation. b. By Hydraulic control and actuators. c. Manual through the trim wheel. d. Electronic control and electric operation.

95. How the flight spoilers help the airplane in a turn?. a. The spoilers come up to kill lift on the wing with the up aileron. b. The spoilers come down to kill lift on the wing with the up aileron. c. The spoilers increase drag in approach. d. The spoilers keep down in a turn.

96. What is the meaning of the ADIRU: a. Air Data Inertial Reference Unit. b. Auto Digital Input Regulated Unit. c. Ac Digital Interface Reference Unit. d. Actuator Data Internal Reference Unit.

97. The Boeing 737 – 700 has tail bump: a. True. b. False.

98. The Boeing 737 – 800 has one overwing emergency exit per side. a. True. b. False.

99. The elevators has pitot probes for control its movement : a. True. b. False.

100. Who is the manufacturer of the engines in the Boeing 737 NG: a. Snecma. b. General Electric. c. Rolls Royce. d. A and B are correct.

29. Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests: a. The engines overheat detectors. b. The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU. c. The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE.