Bioq2 farma uv

1. Among the precursors for glucose synthesis are: Leucine, fumarate, and citrate. a-ketoglutarate, aspartate, and glutamate. Succinyl-CoA, acetyl-CoA, and lactate. None of the above options is correct.

Regarding the pentose phosphate pathway, indicate the INCORRECT answer: It is a glucose oxidation process. It functions to provide NADPH for reductive biosynthesis. It functions to synthesize ribose 5-phosphate. It generates NADH for use by the electron transport chain.

Deficiency of reduced glutathione in red blood cells predisposes to hemolytic anemia and is caused by a deficiency in. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.

Indicate which statement about xylulose 5-phosphate is true. It activates gluconeogenesis because it activates phosphoprotein phosphatase 2A. It inhibits gluconeogenesis because it promotes an increase in fructose 2,6-bisphosphate levels. It inhibits glycolysis and activates gluconeogenesis by promoting an increase in fructose 2,6-bisphosphate levels. None of the statements is true.

How does an increase in blood glucose affect the activity of phosphoprotein phosphatase 1 (PP1) in the liver?. PP1 is inhibited. It is not modified; PP1 is regulated only by glucagon levels. PP1 is activated. None of the above is correct.

Which of the following enzymes participates in fatty acid mobilization?. Fatty acid synthase. Adipose triglyceride lipase (ATGL) and hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL). Pancreatic lipase. Carnitine acyltransferase I.

Which of the following situations favours hepatic ketone body synthesis?. High acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity. High oxaloacetate availability for the Krebs cycle. Increased fatty acid B-oxidation. Activation of hepatic glycolysis by insulin.

Which of the following statements about HDL is FALSE?. They possess a high proportion of proteins relative to lipids. They participate in reverse cholesterol transport. They contain ApoB-100 as their main structural apoprotein. They can take up cholesterol from peripheral.

What is the main function of ApoC-II?. Activating lipoprotein lipase. Binding to the hepatic LDL receptor. Esterifying cholesterol in HDL. Inhibiting hepatic uptake of chylomicrons.

Indicate which statement about elevated insulin levels is TRUE: They are a consequence of a drop in blood glucose levels. They inhibit glycogen synthesis in the liver and muscle. They stimulate fatty acid and triacylecerol synthesis in the liver. They cause hepatic glycogen degradation.

11. Which of the following is NOT a function of histones?. Being involved in the selection of eukaryotic replication origins. Packaging DNA into chromatin. Participating in the modulation of transcription. Catalyzing the relaxation of positive supercoils ahead of progressing RNA polymerase.

What determines the termination of prokaryotic replication?. DNA methylation. Blocking of replication forks by Tus/Ter. Binding of SeqA to hemimethylated DNA. Dam methylase.

Indicate the statement best describing the function of telomeres: Creating a termination sequence for eukaryotic replication. Completing replication and protecting chromosome ends. Creating binding sites for shelterin complexes. Elongating lagging strands to copy the last Okazaki fragment.

Select the TRUE definition of a retrotransposon?. A DNA fragment excised from a region and inserted elsewhere in the genome. A DNA fragment that is copied and inserted elsewhere in the genome. A DNA intermediate with two coding genes for integrase and reverse transcriptase. An RNA molecule that can be inserted into a gene, generating a large-scale mutation.

How does transcription of a prokaryotic gene terminate?. A sequence at the end of the gene blocks RNA polymerase. In all cases, the DNA-RNA hybrid is disrupted. In some cases, a sequence at the end of the gene is transcribed and then cleaved. A sequence at the end of all genes contains the binding site for the Rho helicase.

Which of the following includes a protein that is NOT necessary for transcription of eukaryotic genes?. Inducible transcription factors, RNA pol Il, and chromatin remodelers. Mediator, inducible transcription factors, and TFIID. Chromatin remodelers, inducible transcription factors, and HDACS. RNA pol II, GTFs, and HATs.

Complete the statement: "Among the functions of the CTD domain of RNA pol Il is the. Modulation of transcription initiation. Modulation of transcription elongation and splicing. Modulation of transcription termination by cleavage and polyadenylation. Modulation of all phases of transcription and RNA processing.

Which is the function of capping?. Masking the 5' end of mRNA to block its degradation. Indicating the translation start site of the mRNA. Indicating the transcription start site. Delaying degradation of the 5' end of the mRNA.

Which of the following process/sequence/biomolecule relationships is CORRECT?. Translation / Shine-Dalgarno / 165 FRNA. Transcription / AUG / RNA pol II. mRNA Maturation / 3'-UTR / RISC. Translation / Kozak / TBP.

Which of the following statements best describes the wobble hypothesis?. The 3rd base of the anticodon can be inosine, which recognizes A, U, and C in the codon. The 1st and 2nd bases of the codon pair with the anticodon according to Watson-Crick rules, but the 3rd does not. The genetic code is degenerate, so not all codons are recognized by tRNAs. The 1st and 2nd bases of the anticodon pair with the codon according to Watson-Crick rules, but the 3rd does not.