|The Battery is mounted: A) In the tail cone. B) On a swing out tray in front of the firewall. C) Under the right front SEAT. D) On the floor behind the pilot’s seat.
2.- The voltage of the NiCad Battery is: A) 24 volts. B) 28 volts. C) 12 volts. D) 32 volts.
3.- Immediate corrective action must be taken: A) Upon illumination of the BATTERY HOT Light. B) Upon illumination of the BATTERY OVERHEAT light. C) When battery voltage drops to 24 volts. D) After ten minute of operation with the BATTERY OVERHEAT light illuminate.
4.- The Generator Control Unit (GCU) controls the operation of the: A) Generator only. B) Starter only. C) Standby electrical system. D) Starter-generator.
5.- The Ground Power Monitor: A) Controls the external generator. B) Senses operation of the starter-generator. C) Protects the electrical system from incorrect voltages. D) Regulates generator output.
6.- The voltammeter and its associated selector switch are used to read: A) Generator current. B) Alternator current. C) Battery current. D) All of the above.
7.- Placing the AVIONICS BUS TIE switch in the ON position: A) Ties the avionics bus to the battery. B) Ties the N°1 avionics bus to the N°2 avionics bus. C) Ties the N°1 avionics bus to the generator. D) Disconnects the avionics buses from each other.
8.- When the EXTERNAL POWER switch is placed in the BUS position: A) External power is applied to the starter. B) External power is applied to the avionics bus. C) External power is applied to the main bus. D) Power is sent from the main bus to the external power receptacle.
9.- The Standby Electrical System: A) Is powered by a belt-driven alternator. B) Is powered by the battery. C) Is powered by the engine-driven generator. D) Is actuated by the ground power monitor.
10.- The Inverter Selector Switch are _____ and supplies ________ : A) 2 inverters and supplies 115 VAC and 28 VCC to the respective buses. B) 2 inverters and supplies 115 VAC and 26 VAC to the respective buses. C) 1 inverter and supplies 115 VAC and 28 VCC to the respective buses. D) 1 inverter and supplies 115 VAC and 26 VAC to the respective buses.
1.- The Landing Lights should be used during: A) Landing only. B) Landing and takeoff. C) Taxiing. D) Traffic pattern operations.
2.- The Taxi/Recognition Lights are located: A) In the wing leading edges. B) On the nose gear. C) On the wingtips. D) In the front of the engine cowl.
3.- The Strobe Lights are required to be used: A) In instrument conditions. B) Whenever the engine is operating. C) During night operations. D) Only when taxiing.
4.- The Courtesy Lights are controlled by the: A) Cabin light switch. B) Exterior lighting switch. C) Landing light switch. D) Battery switch.
5.- The Flashing Beacon is to be used for: A) Anti-collision protection. B) Recognition during ground operations. C) Operation in instrument conditions. D) Both A and B.
6.- The Courtesy Lights remain illuminated for a period of ______ after the lights have been turned ON is: A) 15 minutes. B) 20 minutes C) 25 minutes D 30 minutes.
1.- Pressing the LAMP TEST switch: A) Illuminates all annunciators and sounds the fuel-selector-off warning horns. B) Illuminates all green annunciators. C) Illuminates all red annunciators. D) Illuminates all annunciators.
2.- Placing the DAY-NIGHT switch in the night position: A) Dims all illuminated annunciator lamps. B) Dims only the illuminated green annunciator lamps. C) Dims all illuminated green and some amber annunciators. D) Dims only the illuminated red annunciator lamps.
3.- Placing the DAY-NIGHT switch in the day position: A) Only the illuminated green annunciators will be at full intensity. B) Only the illuminated red annunciators will be at full intensity. C) Dims all illuminated annunciators. D) Any annunciator that is illuminated will be at full intensity.
4.- The amber lights indicates: A) A hazardous condition which requires immediate corrective action. B) A cautionary condition which may no require immediate corrective action. C) A normal or safe condition and requires no action. D) None of the above.
5.- The red lights indicates: A) A hazardous condition which requires immediate corrective action. B) A cautionary condition which may no require immediate corrective action. C) A normal or safe condition and requires no action. D) None of the above.
6.- The VACUUM LOW red light indicates when: A) The vacuum system suction is less than approximately 2,0 in. Hg. B) The vacuum system suction is more than approximately 2,0 in. Hg. C) The vacuum system suction is less than approximately 3,0 in. Hg. D) The vacuum system suction is more than approximately 3,0 in. Hg.
1.- Fuel flows from the wing tanks to the reservoir tank by: A) Auxiliary fuel boost pump pressure. B) Ejector pump pressure. C) Fuel control unit pressure. D) Gravity.
2.- Fuel is pumped from the reservoir tank primarily by the: A) Auxiliary boost pump. B) Engine-driven fuel pump. C) Ejector boost pump. D) Fuel control unit.
3.- If the fuel filter becomes blocked: A) The red fuel filter bypass flag pops up. B) Fuel starvation occurs and the engine stops. C) An instrument panel annunciator illuminates. D) The fuel filter bypass horn sounds.
4.- Fuel rejected by the engine on shutdown: A) Drains onto the ground form the manifold. B) Drains into the reservoir tank. C) Drains into a fireproof fuel can on the firewall. D) Is pumped into the left wing tank.
5.- The two FUEL TANK SELECTORS located on the overhead panel: A) Are both normally ON in flight. B) Are both normally OFF during refueling. C) Are turned OFF during ground operations. D) Both A and B.
6.- The fuel-selector-off warning system sounds when: A) Both left and right fuel tank shutoff valves are closed. B) Either the left or right fuel tank shutoff valves are closed during an engine start operation. C) One fuel selector is at OFF and fuel remaining in the tank being used is less than approximately 25 gallons. D) All of the above.
7.- The auxiliary fuel boost pump switch: A) Is placed in the OFF position except in emergency fuel situations. B) Should be placed in the ON position at all times to prevent fuel starvation. C) Is placed in the OFF position during all normal engine operations. D) Is placed in the NORM position during all normal engine Operations.
8.- The wing tank FUEL LOW WARNING annunciators is illuminates at: A) 30 gallons or less. B) 25 gallons or less. C) 20 gallons or less D) 15 gallons or less.
9.- The FUEL PRESSURE LOW annunciator will be illuminate: A) When fuel pressure in the line fuel after firewall shutoff valve is below 4,75 PSI. B) When fuel pressure in the right fuel tank is below 4,75 PSI. C) When fuel pressure in the reservoir fuel manifold assembly is below 4,75 PSI. D) When fuel pressure in the left fuel tank is below 4,75 PSI.
10.- The push-pull knob labeled FUEL SHUTOFF PULL OFF is located: A) The right side of the pedestal. B) The left side of the pedestal. C) At center of the pedestal. D) At the bottom of the right seat (copilot seat).
1.- The PT6A engine is define as a: A) Fixed-shaft, constant-speed engine. B) Single-spool, variable-speed engine. C) Free-turbine, turboprop engine. D) None of the above.
2.- The torque gage indicates the power: A) Delivered to the propeller. B) Developed by the gas generator. C) Delivered by the propeller. D) Of the combined gas generator and power turbine.
3.- The power turbine is mounted on a shaft that: A) Drives the gas generator. B) Drives the reduction gear. C) Drives the accessory section. D) Drives the propeller directly.
4.- Air induced into the engine: A) Enters at the front and is exhausted at the rear. B) Passes from the power turbine to the compressor wheels. C) Must be cooled by the compressor section. D) Enters at the rear and is exhausted at the front.
5.- During operations using the emergency power lever: A) Extreme caution should be used when reversing thrust. B) Only partial engine power is available. C) The EMERGENCY POWER LEVER annunciator light will illuminate, when the lever is unstowed from the NORMAL position. D) Engine response may be slower than when using the power lever.
6.- With the propeller control lever in the MAX position: A) The engine delivers maximum torque. B) The propeller speed is governed at 1.900 rpm. C) The propeller governor is bypassed. D) The gas generator rpm is at maximum.
7.- Engine oil level should be: A) Maintained to within 2 quarts of MAX HOT or MAX COLD as appropriate. B) Maintained full at all times. C) Checked only before the first flight of the day. D) Lower for cold weather operations.
8.- The Ignition switch should be placed in the ON position: A) For airstarts without starter assist. B) For operation on water-covered runways. C) During flight in heavy precipitation. D) All of the above.
9.- The inertial separator should be placed in the bypass position: A) To increase engine rpm. B) For all takeoffs. C) During all operations above 5000 feet. D) When flying through visible moisture at low temperatures.
10.- Loss of any pneumatic signal to the fuel control unit causes: A) The engine to shut down. B) The engine rpm to increase rapidly. C) The engine to drop to idle rpm. D) A complete stoppage of fuel flow.
11.- When the STARTER switch is placed in the start position: A) The ignition system is energized if the IGNITION switch is in the NORM position. B) The IGNITION switch must be placed in the ON position. C) The starter-generator functions as a generator. D) The ignition system is deenergized.
12.- During the overspeed governor test the propeller rpm should not exceed: A) 1.900 +- 60 rpm. B) 1.750 +- 60 rpm. C) 1.250 +- 60 rpm. D) 2.000 +- 60 rpm.
1.- The anti/deicing systems on the Caravan I airplanes use: A) Electric power. B) Bleed air. C) Hydraulic power. D) Both A and B.
2.- Each segment of the wing surface deice boot inflation cycle lasts for approximately: A) 3 seconds. B) 6 seconds. C) 9 seconds. D) 12 seconds.
3.- The windshield, propeller, and pilot-static anti-ice systems are intended to be used: A) After entering icing conditions. B) To prevent ice accumulation. C) To remove ice from their respective surfaces. D) Only in freezing rain conditions.
4.- The wing, wing strut, and stabilizer deice boots are intended to be used: A) To prevent ice accumulation. B) Continuously. C) During flight in instrument conditions. D) After ¼ to 3/8 inch of clear ice or ½ to ¾ inch of rime has accumulated.
5.- When the BOOST PRESS switch is moved to the AUTO position: A) One three-segment deice cycle is initiated. B) All deice boots inflate simultaneously. C) The deice boots inflate automatically every 30 seconds. D) The deice boots inflate automatically every 18 seconds.
6.- When the BOOTS PRESS switch is moved to the MANUAL position: A) One three-segment deice cycle is initiated. B) Only the wing leading edge boots inflate. C) All deice boots inflate simultaneously. D) None of the above.
7.- The windshield anti-ice panel can be used: A) To remove ice from the windshield prior to starting. B) Instead of using the deicing boots. C) To prevent ice from forming on the windshield. D) Both A and B.
8.- The standby electrical system: A) Is powered by a belt-driven alternator. B) Has the same capacity as the main electrical system. C) Can be used only for starting the engine. D) Is used to power the deice/anti-ice system only.
9.- The ice detector light is used: A) At all times during flight in icing conditions. B) Only when visible moisture is present. C) Also as a courtesy light on the ground. D) Momentarily to detect ice accumulations at night.
10.- Maximum weight for flight into known icing conditions for a 208B aircraft with a PT6A-114 powerplant is: A) 6.000 lbs. B) 7.000 lbs. C) 8.000 lbs. D) 8.750 lbs.
1.- Is the nose gear has been turned past its 56° maximum travel: A) The entire nose gear must be replaced. B) No damage has been done. C) The aircraft must not be moved. D) The frangible stop will be sheared off.
2.- The rudder pedals can be used to steer the nose gear approximately: A) 15° either side of center. B) 56° either side of center. C) 26° either side of center. D) 19° either side of center.
3.- The parking brake is applied by: A) Pumping the parking brake handle until the brakes are set. B) Pulling the parking brake handle aft with the engine running. C) Setting the brakes with the rudder pedals and pulling the parking brake handle aft. D) None of the above.
4.- Some of the symptoms of impending brake failure are: A) Gradual decrease in braking action after brake application. B) Noisy or dragging brakes and soft or spongy pedals. C) Excessive travel and weak braking action. D) All of the above.
5.- The fluid in the reservoir should be checked for proper level prior to each flight. A) Thru B) False.
6.- A brake fluid reservoir, located just behind of the firewall on the right side of the engine compartment, provide additional brake fluid for the brake master cylinders. A) Thru B) False.
1.- The wing spoilers on the CARAVAN I are designed to: A) Improve lateral control of the airplane at low speeds. B) Be used as speed reduction devices. C) Increase the effectiveness of the flaps. D) Balance control forces in the aileron system.
2.- The rudder lock is operated by a T-handle which: A) Must be pulled out during engine start. B) Is automatically released when the fuel condition lever is moved out of CUTOFF. C) Must be pushed in to lock the rudder. D) Is located on the center pedestal.
3.- The rudder trim system: A) Operates a trim tab on the rudder. B) Is operated electrically. C) Is controlled by a knob on the instrument panel. D) Operates against the nosewheel steering bungee.
4.- The standby flap system is operates: A) Until the flaps reach their stops. B) By using the crank on the overhead panel. C) Until the flap position indicator. Reaches the desired setting. D) Hydraulically.
5.- The Control Lock is provided to lock: A) Aileron B) Elevator C) Rudder D) Both A and B.
6.- The vane-type stall warning unit is installed in the leading edge of the _______ wing and is ______________ connected to the ____________________: A) Left Mechanically Stall Warning Horn. B) Right Electrically Autopilot. C) Left Mechanically Autopilot. D) Left Electrically Stall Warning Horn.
7.- The vane-type stall warning senses the change in airflow over the wing an operates the warning horn at airspeeds of between ___________ above the stall in all configurations. A) 0 and 10 knots. B) 5 and 8 knots. C) 5 and 10 knots. D) 8 and 15 knots.
8.- The stall warning system should be checked during the preflight inspection (________) by momentarily turning the ___________ on and actuating the ________ in the wing. A) Left side Battery Vane. B) Cabin External Power warning horn switch. C) Cabin Battery Vane. D) Left side External Power Vane.
9.- The stall warning system is protected by a circuit breaker labeled “STALL WRN” which can be pulled to shut off the warning horn in the event the vane sticks in the on position.
This circuit breaker must be maintained out for landing: A) Thru B) False.
10.- The vane and sensor unit in the wing leading edge is equipped with a heating element. The heated part of the system is operated by the STALL HEAT switch on the DEICE/ANTI-ICE switch panel and is protected by the STALL WRN circuit breaker on the circuit breaker panel. A) Thru B) False.
11.- The standby system can be used to operate the flaps: A) With the Primary system operates. B) With the Primary system malfunction. C) As desired. D) None of the above.
12.- To operate the flap with the standby system, what are you first to do? A) Place the STBY FLAP MOTOR switch in the STBY position. B) Place the STBY FLAP MOTOR switch in the NORMAL position. C) Place the STBY FLAP MOTOR circuit breakers pull out. D) Place the STBY FLAP MOTOR circuit breakers reset in.
1.- The alternate static source valve for the left pitot-static system is located: A) Below the DEICE/ANTI-ICE switch panel. B) On the left switch and circuit breakers panel. C) On the center console. D) On the overhead console.
2.- The squelch on the KX 155 NAV/COMM transceiver: A) Is set using the front panel controls. B) Is set automatically. C) Can be overridden by pulling the volume control out. D) Both B and C.
3.- The frequencies displayed on the front panel of the KX 155 NAV/COMM transceiver: A) Must be set every time the unit is turned on. B) Indicate 120.00 Mhz when turned on. C) Are held in nonvolatile memory when the unit is off. D) Return to the factory-preset frequencies when the unit is turned off.
4.- COMM frequency selection is accomplished by: A) Rotating the frequency select knobs and observing the USE window. B) Rotating the frequency select knobs and observing the STBY windows. C) Depressing the transfer button until the desired frequency is displayed in the STBY window. D) Depressing the transfer button until the desired frequency is displayed in the USE window.
5.- When the NAV receiver is in the RAD mode: A) The STBY frequency is eliminated from the memory. B) The radial TO the station is digitally displayed. C) The USE frequency cannot be change. D) The frequency select knobs channel the frequency in the USE window.
6.- If the VOR signal is too weak to provide a radial readout: A) A red flag drops into the display. B) Three dashes are displayed in the STBY/RAD windows. C) Three zeros are displayed in the STBY/RAD window. D) The display goes blank.
7.- On the KR 87 ADF unit, when the flight timer (FLT) is displayed: A) The STBY frequency is erased from memory. B) The active USE frequency cannot be changed. C) The STBY frequency can be changed by rotating the frequency select knob. D) The STBY frequency is held in memory but not displayed.
8.- When the KR 87 ADF is in the ANT mode: A) The loop antenna is disabled. B) The indicator needle shows the bearing to the station. C) The audio is turned off. D) All of the above.
9.- The elapsed timer (ET) on the KR 87 ADF unit: A) Can be started only when the timer is displayed. B) Counts up from zero when started. C) Displays total flight time since the unit was turned on. D) Is started by pressing the RST button regardless of what is displayed.
10.- On the KN 673 DME unit, when the rotary switch is placed in the HOLD position: A) The DME is channeled to the last selected NAV 1 or NAV 2 frequency. B) The display is frozen in the current display. C) The NAV 1 or NAV 2 control head cannot be channeled. D) The groundspeed display is disabled.
11.- The display of the marker beacon receiver shows: A) A blue light for the middle marker. B) An amber light for the outer marker. C) A white light for the inner marker or airways marker. D) All of the above.
12.- The radio magnetic indicator (RMI): A) Displays only magnetic heading and ADF bearing. B) Displays only magnetic heading and VOR bearing. C) Displays only VOR and ADF bearings. D) Displays both magnetic heading and VOR and ADF bearings.
13.- The VFR button on the KT 79 transponder: A) Turns the transponder off when flying in VFR conditions. B) Can be programmed to any transponder code. C) Sets the transponder code to 7600 when pressed. D) Is used to activate a VFR flight plan.
14.- After engine start, turn the function selector to the ______ position. A) SBY B) ON. C) ALT. D) TEST.
15.- What is the function when the ALT is select: A) Mode A or normal mode. B) Mode C or altitude reporting mode. C) Mode test. D) Mode C without altitude reporting.
16.- When the controller requests “ident” or “squawk ident” press the ______ pushbutton briefly and the identification is transmited for a period of ___________ seconds. A) VFR 20 a 25. B) VFR 30 a 45. C) IDT 20 a 45. D) IDT 20 a 25.
17.- The KRA 405 Radar Altimeter has a flag, what indicates that flag? A) Invalid altitude information is being displayed or that the self-test button is pressed. B) The airplane it’s flown over water, snow or ice. C) The airplane has more of 30° bank. D) Only invalid altitude information is being displayed.
1.- Cabin ventilating air enters the aircraft through: A) The forward engine air intakes. B) Air inlets on each side of the forward fuselage. C) Air inlets on each wing at the upper ends of the wing struts. D) Both B and C.
2.- If more cabin heating is needed during ground operations: A) Move the fuel condition level to HIGH IDLE. B) Move the MIXING AIR control to GRD. C) Open the instrument panel vents. D) Both A and B.
3.- Windshield defrosting can be accomplished by: A) Opening the vents at the base of the windshield. B) Directing the upper instrument panel vents at the windshield. C) Pulling out the defrost/forward cabin control and pushing in the aft/forward cabin control. D) Both A and B.
4.- The CABIN HEAT FIREWALL SHUTOFF control should be pulled out: A) If a fire is suspected in the engine compartment. B) To routinely shut of cabin heat. C) During ground operations. D) During engine starts.
5.- The oxygen system controls are located: A) On the instrument panel. B) In the overhead console. C) On the center console. D) On the left switch and circuit breaker panel.
6.- If place the CABIN HEAT FIREWALL SHUTOFF knob in the OFF position when the MIXING AIR control is in the GRD position, occurs: A) Fire in the manifold. B) Fire in the cabin. C) Compressor stall. D) Loss power.