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TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESE: Ce Ge Te Dos

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Título del Test: Ce Ge Te Dos Descripción: Un examen final de Ce Ge Te Autor: RuBlan OTROS TESTS DEL AUTOR Fecha de Creación: 23/05/2023 Categoría: Informática Número Preguntas: 548

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Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process? Process owner Change manager Service manager Process practitioner. Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure? Service level management IT operations management Capacity management Incident management. Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management? Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom. At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined? Service design: Design the processes Service strategy: Develop the offerings Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment Service operation: IT operations management. Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge? Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments. Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management? To identify patterns of business activity To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction To secure funding to manage the provision of services To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist. The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps? People, process, partners, performance Performance, process, products, plans People, process, products, partners People, products, plans, partners. Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business? Allows higher volumes of successful change Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful. Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection? Incident and financial management Change and release and deployment management Incident and event management Knowledge and service level management. Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization? Change proposal Change policy Service request Risk register. Which of the following should be documented in an incident model? 1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident 2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident 1 only 2 only Both of the above Neither of the above. Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)? PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting. Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process? Roles Inputs and outputs Functions Metrics. Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment? Service level management Service catalogue management Demand management Service transition. A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them? Be accountable for the outcome of an activity Perform an activity Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity Manage an activity. Which of the following are objectives of service level management? 1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT services to be provided 2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided 3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction 4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1,2 and 4 only All of the above. Which one of the following do technology metrics measure? Components Processes The end-to-end service Customer satisfaction. Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes? Capacity management Incident management Service level management Financial management. Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle? Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes. What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? Outcome Incident Change Problem. Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors? Change management Service portfolio management Supplier management Continual service improvement. Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation? 1. Local service desk 2. Virtual service desk 3. IT help desk 4. Follow the sun 1,2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only. What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book? Informational, scheduled, normal Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency Informational, warning, exception Warning, reactive, proactive. What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management? A. Employers B. Stakeholders C. Regulators D. Accreditors. Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management? 1- To automatically detect service-affecting events 2- To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible 3- To minimize adverse impacts on business operations A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above. What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process? A. Technical management B. Emergency change advisory board C. Urgent change board D. Urgent change authority. Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition? A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported B. To provide training and certification in project management C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release. Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management? 1. Those planned to be delivered 2. Those being delivered 3. Those that have been withdrawn from service A. 1 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. The BEST description of an incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not. Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach? A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going? C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?. When can a known error record be raised? 1. At any time it would be useful to do so 2. After a workaround has been found A. 2 only B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. Both of the above. What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes? A. The change authorization board B. The change advisory board C. The change implementer D. The change manager. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets? A. Continual service improvement B. Change management C. Service level management D. Availability management. What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define? A. The value of a service B. Governance C. Total cost of ownership (TCO) D. Key performance indicators (KPIs). Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management? A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group. Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT? A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset. Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition? A. Measurement, methods and metrics B. Service design package C. Service portfolio design D. Process definitions. What should a service always deliver to customers? A. Applications B. Infrastructure C. Value D. Resources. Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data? A. Service catalogue management B. Service asset and configuration management C. Change management D. Information security management. Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following? A. IT services and components B. IT services and business processes C. Components and business processes D. IT services, components and business processes. What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other? A. Configuration baseline B. Project baseline C. Change baseline D. Asset baseline. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management? A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening D. To detect security events and make sense of them. Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful? 1. ITIL is vendor neutral 2. It does not prescribe actions 3. ITIL represents best practice A. All of the above B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act? A. The Deming Cycle B. The continual service improvement approach C. The seven-step improvement process D. The service lifecycle. The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle? A. Continual service improvement B. Service strategy C. Service design D. Service transition. Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users? A Service level management B. Service portfolio management C. Request fulfilment D. Demand management. Which of the following BEST describes partners in the phrase people, processes, products and partners”? A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors B. Customers C. Internal departments D. The facilities management function. Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis? A. The service level management B. The IT service continuity management C. The service catalogue management D. The supplier management. The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management? A. Data B. Information C. Knowledge D. Governance. Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the implementation of a new service? A. A service option B. A service transition package (STP) C. A service design package (SDP) D. A service charter. Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service? 1. Financial arrangements related to the contract 2. Description of the goods or service provided 3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. All of the above. Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes? A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment. Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design? A. Reduced total cost of ownership B. Improved quality of service C. Improved Service alignment with business goals D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services. Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have replaced? A. Availability management B. Capacity management C. Service portfolio management D. Service catalogue management. Consider the following list: 1. Change authority 2. Change manager 3. Change advisory board (CAB) Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above? A. Job descriptions B. Functions C. Teams D. Roles, people or groups. Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as? A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement. Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre? A. Technical management B. Service desk C. Application management D. Facilities management. Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure? A. RACI model B. Incident model C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach D. The Deming Cycle. Which process will regularly analyse incident data to identify discernible trends? A. Service level management B. Problem management C. Change management D. Event management. Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service? A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement D. A service not directly used by the business. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management? A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management? A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle C. To restore service to a user D. To eliminate recurring incidents. Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management? A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service components C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service. Which one of the following activities are carried out during the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach? A. Implementing service and process improvements B. Reviewing measurements and metrics C. Creating a baseline D. Defining measurable targets. Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem? A. Definitive media library (DML) B. Configuration management system (CMS) C. Statement of requirements (SOR) D. Standard operating procedures (SOP). The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk? A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital D. Training of all staff and investment of capital. Which of the following is an enabler of best practice? A. Standards B. Technology C. Academic research D. Internal experience. Service design emphasizes the importance of the “Four Ps”. These “Four Ps” include Partners, People, Processes and one other “P”. Which of the following is the additional “P”? A. Profit B. Preparation C. Products D. Potential. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design? A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue B. The design of new or changed services C. The design of market spaces D. The design of the technology architectures. Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented? A. A service level agreement (SLA) B. A request for change (RFC) C. The service portfolio D. A service description. Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy? 1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customer’s successful 2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment 3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages A. All of the above B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. A process owner is responsible for which of the following? 1. Defining the process strategy 2. Assisting with process design 3. Improving the process 4. Performing all activities involved in a process A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only. Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction? A. Capacity management B. Governance C. Service design D. Service level management. Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics? 1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above. Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management? A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs. Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for? A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes. What are underpinning contracts used to document? A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers C. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer D. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets? A. Operational level agreement (OLA) B. Capacity plan C. Service level agreement (SLA) D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM). Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard? A. The IT director B. The process owner C. The service owner D. The customer. Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place? A. Knowledge management B. Release and deployment management C. Service asset and configuration management D. Service level management. Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management? 1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer 2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet A. Both of the above B. 1 only C. 2 only D. Neither of the above. Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome? A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA) B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service C. All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider D. All incidents reported to the service desk. Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Continual Service Improvement C. Service Operation D. Service Design. Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs? A. Availability management B. Capacity management C. Design coordination D. Release management. What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after? 1. What is the vision? 2. Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? 5. Did we get there? A. What is the return on investment (ROI)? B. How much did it cost? C. How do we keep the momentum going? D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?. Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT? A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC) B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director. Which of the following BEST describes a problem? A. An issue reported by a user B. The cause of two or more incidents C. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business D. The cause of one or more incidents. Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework? A. Internal B. External C. Service desk D. Shared services unit. Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT? A. Incidents can only be reported by users B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service C. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidents D. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems. Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service? A. Incident management B. Access management C. Change management D. Request fulfillment. What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services? A. Business services B. Component services C. Supporting services D. Customer services. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle? 1. Data mining and workflow 2. Measurement and reporting 3. Release and deployment 4. Process design A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. All of the above. How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model? A. As many as necessary to complete the activity B. Only one – the process owner C. Two – the process owner and the process enactor D. Only one – the process architect. The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what? A. A change B. A change model C. A change request D. A change advisory board. Where should the following information be stored? 1. The experience of staff 2. Records of user behaviour 3. Supplier’s abilities and requirements 4. User skill levels A. The forward schedule of change B. The service portfolio C. A configuration management database (CMDB) D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS). Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT? 1. The approach is pre-authorized 2. The risk is usually low and well understood 3. Details of the change will be recorded 4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1,2 and 4 only D. All of the above. Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle? A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access management B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management. With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems? A. Incident management B. Service asset and configuration management C. Capacity management D. IT service continuity management. What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting? A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider C. Reports should be produced weekly D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services. Which one of the following does service metrics measure? A. Functions B. Maturity and cost C. The end-to-end service D. Infrastructure availability. Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management? A. To prevent problems and resultant incidents B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle C. To restore service to a user D. To eliminate recurring incidents. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes? A. Demand management B. Incident management B. Incident management D. Request fulfillment. Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge? A. Technical management B. IT operations management C. Request fulfillment D. Applications management. Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk? 1. Logging details of incidents and service requests 2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Implementing all standard changes A. All of the above B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement? A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users. Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth? A. Do B. Perform C. Implement D. Measure. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)? A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality B. Strategic, tactical and operational C. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities D. Technology, process and service. Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management? Customers Users Suppliers A. All of the above B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as? A. User B. Customer C. Supplier D. Administrator. Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services? A. Request fulfilment B. Service portfolio management C. Service desk D. IT finance. Which of the following is the best definition of service management? A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool? A. Knowledge B. Information C. Wisdom D. Data. Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management? A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C. To create and populate a service catalogue D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services. Which one of the following activities does application management perform? A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be located B. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome C. Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be D. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application. What is a RACI model used for? A. Performance analysis B. Recording configuration items C. Monitoring services D. Defining roles and responsibilities. The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle? A. Before the change is approved B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out C. After implementation but before the post implementation review D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change. Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities? A. Only changes that introduce new services B. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity C. Only changes to business critical systems D. Any change that the organization believes could benefit. What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider’s customers? A. Service catalogue management B. Service portfolio management C. Service desk D. Business relationship management. Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process? A. To ensure the impact of changes are understood B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS) D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users. What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as? A. Strategic customers B. External customers C. Valued customers D. Internal customers. Access management is closely related to which other process? A. Capacity management only B. 3rd line support C. Information security management D. Change management. In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management? A. Service strategy B. Service design C. Service transition D. Service operation. Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents? A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service. A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach? A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so B. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged C. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised D. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service. Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy? 1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful 2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment 3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services A. All of the above B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review? 1. Things that were done correctly 2. Things that were done incorrectly 3. How to prevent recurrence 4. What could be done better in the future A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management? A. Describes the topography of the hardware B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release. Which of the following are sources of best practice? 1. Academic research 2. Internal experience 3. Industry practices A. All of the above B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. Which of these should a change model include? 1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change 2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation 3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions 4. Complaints procedures A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 4 only. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management? A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening C. Eliminating recurring incidents D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible. Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT? 1. A configuration item (CI) can exist as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time 2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL? 1. Enabling 2. Core 3. Enhancing 4. Computer A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1,2 and 3 only. In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented? A. The service level agreement (SLA) B. The problem record C. The availability management information system D. The IT service plan. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. It is measureable B. It delivers specific results C. It responds to specific events D. It gives structure an organization. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service Transition stage of the service lifecycle? A. To ensure that a service is managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during design B. To design and develop capabilities for service management C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services D. To plan the resources required to manage a release. Which of the following BEST describes technical management? A. A function responsible for facilities management and building control systems B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure. Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL? A Local B. Centralized C. Outsourced D. Virtual. What is the primary focus of the business management? A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion. Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels? A. Change management B. IT service continuity management C. Financial management for IT services D. Service catalog management. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request? A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting. Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits? A. Service asset and configuration management B. Event management C. Service catalogue management D. Problem management. Which one of the following do major incidents require? A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation. What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle? A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers. In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution? A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated B. Measures for optimization are identified C. Service value is modeled D. Service value is visible to customers. Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers? A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI) B. Customer and user satisfaction C. Service requirements and warranty D. Resources and capabilities. Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)? A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected. Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree? A. Service level agreements (SLAs) B. Third-party contracts C. The service portfolio D. Operational level agreements (OLAs). Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle? A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design B. To design and develop capabilities for service management C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services D. To plan the resources required to manage a release. Which of the following are managed by facilities management? 1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room 2. Applications 3. Power and cooling equipment 4. Recovery sites A. 1,2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1,3 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only. Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives? A. Service design B. Service transition C. Continual service improvement D. Service operation. Which areas of service management can benefit from automation? 1. Design and modeling 2. Reporting 3. Pattern recognition and analysis 4. Detection and monitoring A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability? A. The availability of a service or component B. The level of risk that affects a service or process C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order. Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management? A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue. Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management? A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS) C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The configuration management system is part of the known error database B. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system D. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database. Implementation of ITIL service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps.” What are these four Ps? A. People, process, partners, performance B. Performance, process, products, problems C. People, process, products, partners D. People, products, perspective, partners. Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on? 1. Design of the service metrics 2. Business continuity strategy 3. Business impact analysis (BIA) 4. Risk assessment A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only. What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)? A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis D. A document that describes business services to operational staff. Which one of the following generates demand for services? A. Infrastructure trends B. Patterns of business activity (PBA) C. Cost of providing support D. Service level agreements (SLA). Which one of the following is an objective of service transition? A. To negotiate service levels for new services B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event? A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem. Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle? A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident? A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An incident logged by a senior manager D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business. Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? 1. Monitoring system availability 2. Designing availability into a proposed solution A. None of the above B. Both of the above C. 1 only D. 2 only. Which one of the following would NOT involve event management? A. Intrusion detection B. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre C. Recording service desk staff absence D. Monitoring the status of configuration items. The multi-level SLA1 is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA? A. Customer level B. Service level C. Corporate level D. Configuration level. Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts? A. Supplier management and service level management B. Supplier management and change management C. Availability management and service level management D. Supplier management and availability management. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure? A. Service level management B. Change management C. Incident management D. Service asset and configuration management. Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle? A. Act B. Plan C. Do D. Co-ordinate. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)? A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer. Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle? 1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is 2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider 3. Defining how value is created A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. All of the above. In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance? 1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors 2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models A. Both of the above B. Neither of the above C. Option 1 only D. Option 2 only. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)? A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service. Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management? A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings B. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations C. Managing access to the service desk D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services. Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle? A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event management D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event management. Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk? 1. Logging details of incidents and service requests 2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Implementing all standard changes A. All of the above B. 1,2 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only. Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management? A. The change management process owner B. The change advisory board (CAB) C. The service owner D. The continual service improvement manager. Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management? 1. Identification of configuration items (CIs) 2. Recording relationships between CIs 3. Recording and control of virtual CIs 4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1,2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle? A. Service operation B. Service transition C. Continual service improvement D. Service strategy. Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase ‘Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision’? A. Where are we now? B. Where do we want to be? C. How do we get there? D. Did we get there?. Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business? A. Service level management B. Financial management C. Demand management D. Risk management. Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)? A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services D. An SLA for a service with no customers. Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice? A. Standards B. Technology C. Academic research D. Internal experience. What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as? A. Strategic service B. Delivered service C. Internal service D. External service. What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as? A. Service management B. Incident management C. Resource management D. Service support. From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets? A The user B. The customer C. The supplier D. The administrator. Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support? A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail. Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes? A. Change management B. Capacity management C. Service transition planning and support D. Release management. Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination? A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them C. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycle D. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment. Which process has the following objective, ‘Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests’? A. Service transition planning and support B. Design coordination C. Service level management D. Change management. Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager? 1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance 2. Identifying improvement opportunities 3. Appointing people to required roles A. All of the above B. 1 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process? A. Process practitioner B. Process manager C. Service manager D. Change manager. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function A. Both of the above B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. 2 only. Which of the following should be done when closing an incident? 1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary 2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome A. 1 only B. Both of the above C. 2 only D. Neither of the above. Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment? A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts? A. Change management B. Service catalogue management C. Supplier management D. Release and deployment management. Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio? 1. Service pipeline 2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS) 3. Service catalogue A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above. A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following? 1. A new IT service 2. A major change to an IT service 3. An emergency change to an IT service 4. An IT service retirement A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. 1,2 and 4 only C. None of the above D. All of the above. Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition? 1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources 2. Reduced cost to design new services 3. Result in higher volume of successful changes A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. None of the above. Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk? 1. Capacity management 2. Request fulfillment 3. Demand management 4. Incident management A. All of the above B. 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 2 only. Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways? A. Planning how to recover the cost of a change B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful C. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change D. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change. Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging? A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available B. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged C. All incidents must be fully logged D. The service desk decide which incidents to log. Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained? A. Categorization B. Detection C. Prioritization D. Escalation. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented? A. Service level management B. Problem management C. Change management D. Event management. What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book? A. Informational, scheduled, normal B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency C. Informational, warning, exception D. Warning, reactive, proactive. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk? A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place C. The desk provides 24 hour global support D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization. Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible? A. A capacity database B. A definitive media library C. A request for change D. A known error database. Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy? A. Naming and numbering conventions B. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testing C. Roles and responsibilities for the release D. The risk register for the release. Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful? A. The five ITIL volumes are concise B. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform C. It tells service providers exactly how to be successful D. It is designed to be used to manage projects. What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available? A. A service object B. An incident C. A change D. A known error. Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory? A. Budgeting and charging B. Accounting and charging C. Budgeting and accounting D. Costing and charging. What is the primary focus of business capacity management? A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion. Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE? A. The service portfolio includes ail services except those managed by third parties B. It is an integral part of the service catalogue C. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deployments D. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle. Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration management? 1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs) 2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items 3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system 4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance A. 1 and 2 only B. 1,2, and 3 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above. Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful? A. Remediation planning B. Categorization C. Prioritization D. Review and close. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services? A. Change management B. Service transition C. Service strategy D. Service design. Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management? 1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs) 2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above. Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT? A. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own B. Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own C. Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization. Which Functions are included in IT operations management? A. Network management and application management B. Technical management and change management C. IT operations control and facilities management D. Facilities management and release management. Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction? A. Availability management B. Capacity management C. Business relationship management D. Service catalogue management. The definitive media library is the responsibility of: A. Facilities management B. Access management C. Request fulfillment D. Service asset and configuration management. What are the three service provider business models? A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party B. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unit C. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd party D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit. Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities? A. Only changes that introduce new services are included B. All changes are mandated to be included C. Only changes to business critical systems are included D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included. Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)? 1. Details of failed changes 2. Updates to the change schedule 3. Reviews of completed changes A. All of the above B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL? 1. Core 2. Enabling 3. Special A. 1 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only. What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required? A. Serviceability B. Availability C. Capacity D. Continuity. Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident? 1. Incident model 2. Known error record A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above. Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use? 1. Communication between data centre shifts 2. Communication related to changes 3. Performance reporting 4. Routine operational communication A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above. Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded? A. CSI register B. Known error database C. Capacity management information system D. Configuration management database. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact? A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency. Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle? A. Service strategy B. Service transition C. Service operation D. Continual service improvement. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards? A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT? A.They are units of organizations B.They are measurable C.They deliver specific results D.They respond to specific events. Which process has the following objective “Establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates”? A. Service strategy B. Service transition planning and support C. Service level management D. Change management. What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract known as? A. Strategic customers B. External customers C. Valued customers D. Internal customers. What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve? A. It keeps the communication going within the business B. It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiatives C. It helps the stakeholders understand their customers D. It dictates the way the business interacts with external suppliers. Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)? A. It contains targets that underpin those within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be breached by failure of the supporting activity. B. It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services. C. It is a written agreement between a supplier and the IT customer(s), defining the key service targets and responsibilities of both parties. D. It is a legally binding contract outlining services delivered to an IT service provider that underpin a service that provider delivers to its customers. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function? A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT operations failures that occur B. Delivering operational improvements to achieve reduced costs C. Management of the definitive media library (DML) D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities. What is the BEST description of an external customer? A. Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service provider B. Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services C. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider D. Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver. How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified? A. Internal service B. External service C. Mission critical service D. Organizational service. What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business? A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality C. It provides quick and effective access to standard services D. It results in higher volumes of successful change. Which is an objective of access management? A. To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service C. To assist with general information, complaints or comments D. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented. What should be documented as part of every process? A. The process owner, process policy and set of process activities B. The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures C. The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps D. The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions. What BEST defines serviceability? A. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order B. How long a service or component can perform its agreed function without failure C. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of its contract D. The part of the business process that is critical to providing the service. In service design, which term describes services,technologies and tools? A. People B. Partners C. Products D. Processes. What should a release policy include? A. Roles and responsibilities across all the service transition processes B. Roles and responsibilities for updating the configuration management database (CMDB) C. Criteria and authorization to exit early life support and handover to the service operation function D. How request for changes (RFCs) are approved for software releases in the IT production environment. Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment? A. Service portfolio management B. Service level management C. Service catalogue management D. Service capacity management. What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation? A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action C. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products D. It has responsibility for creating policies. What is an objective of event management? A. To maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT services B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service C. To provide a channel for users to receive standard services that they are expecting D. To minimize the impact of incidents due to service failures that cannot be prevented. Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided? A. The definitive media library B. The configuration management system C. The service portfolio D. The service catalogue. Which is used to assess business demand for services? A. Premium business assets B. Patterns of business activity C. Provider business assets D. Predicted business architecture. What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business? A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services B. It ensures IT services are continuously aligned to business requirements C. It defines the control of service assets and configurations D. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages . Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired? A. Change management B. Service portfolio management C. Service level management D. Business relationship management. What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities? A. Human resource model B. Configuration baseline C. Service model D. RACI matrix. Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle? A. Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process B. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the tools C. Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational environment D. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process. Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities? A. Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics B. Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics C. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics D. Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics. Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects? 1. Service Solutions for new or changed services 2. Management policies and guidelines 3. Business requirements technology and management architectures 4. Process requirements technology and management architectures A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4. Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between service providers? A. Service transition B. Service level management C. Service operation D. Service design. What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library? A. It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected. B. It is a structured document with definitive information regarding all live IT services, including those available for deployment. C. It is a secure library in which all definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items are stored and protected. D. It is a set of tools and databases that is used to manage knowledge, information and data. Which is an objective of the design coordination process? A. To ensure service design packages are handed over to service transition B. To ensure that all changes are assessed for their impact on service designs C. To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers D. To handover new service level requirements to the service level management process. What BEST defines IT service management? A. An organization supplying services to only external customers B. The customer of an IT service provider who defines and agrees the service targets C. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs D. The resources that are utilized to provide value to customers through services. Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics? A. The process practitioner B. The process owner C. The service owner D. The process manager. What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management? A. Technical and service B. Resource and proactive C. Reactive and technical D. Proactive and reactive. Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the “How do we get there” phase of the Continual Service improvement approach? A. Service and process improvement B. Baseline assessments C. Policy and governance review D. Measurable targets. An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed to restore the service. What has taken place? A. A functional escalation B. A service level escalation C. An incident resolution D. A hierarchic escalation. Which statement about service review meetings is FALSE? A. Actions from service review meetings should only be assigned to the service provider B. Meetings should be held on a regular basis to review service achievement C. Issues for the upcoming period should be discussed at the meetings D. Progress and success of the service improvement program (SIP) should be reviewed. Which statement BEST describes the value of service strategy to the business? A. It allows higher volumes of successful change B. It reduces unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages C. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages D. It enables the service provider to understand what levels of service will make their customers successful. Remediation planning is a key part of which process? A. Capacity management B. Change management C. Financial management for IT services D. Availability management. What term describes assurance that a product or service will meet its agreed requirements? A. Underpinning contract B. Warranty C. Service level agreement D. Utility. What are sources of best practice? A. Customers, suppliers, advisors B. Industry practices, academic research, training and education C. Substitutes, regulators, customers D. Competition, compliance, commitments. Which is an objective of the service design lifecycle stage? A. To embed continual service improvement (CSI) in all service design activities B. To ensure that all service design activities use the minimum amount of resources C. To monitor service level targets as agreed in service level agreements D. To create and maintain a portfolio of quantified services. Which is NOT a service desk type described in the ITIL service operation guidance? A. Local B. Centralized C. Outsourced D. Virtual. Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation? A. Pre-determined routing of a service request B. Reducing the time to compile service data C. Monitoring service availability D. Faster resource allocation. Which is the CORRECT list of metrics to support CSI activities? A. Technology, customer and business B. Business, service and technology C. Customer, business and process D. Process, technology and service. Which is an example of an internal customer? A customer who has a contract with an internet service provider for a broadband connection The HR department whose payroll service is provided by their organization’s IT department An IT department that uses a network service obtained from a supplier A retail bank that outsources its infrastructure to a third-party supplier. Which is the CORRECT list of the three levels of a multi-level service level agreement (SLA)? Technology, customer, user Corporate, customer, service Corporate, customer, technology Service, user, IT. What does the term “Wisdom” represent within the Data-to-Information-to-Knowledge-to-Wisdom (DIKW)? The complete collection of all data and data repositories in the organization The knowledge to manage organization processes and people The complete collection of all process management structures in the organization The contextual awareness to provide strong common sense judgement. What BEST describes the purpose of analyzing risk? To assess impact and urgency To assess impact and probability To review remediation planning To review transition planning. Which ITIL process is used to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible? Service level management Incident management Problem management Availability management. Which stage of service lifecycle has the purpose of aligning IT services with the changing business needs by identifying improvements to IT services? Continual service improvement Service operation Service strategy Service design. Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT? It is maintained by the service desk and updated with the details of each new incident It is a part of the configuration management database (CMDB) and contains workarounds It is maintained by problem management and is used by the service desk to help resolve incidents It is maintained by incident management and contains solutions to be implemented by problem management. Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be stored? In the definitive capacity library In the definitive media library In the definitive security library In the definitive production library. Which is one of the five aspects of service design? Management information systems and tools Risk analysis and management approach Management policy for business case creation Corporate governance and policy. Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes? A CSI register A project charter A RACI model A communications plan. Which statement about change management is CORRECT? It optimizes overall business risk It optimizes financial exposure It ensures that all changes are authorized by the change advisory board (CAB) It ensures that service requests follow the normal change management process. What is the type of notification that should be sent when a threshold has been reached, something has changes or a failure has occurred? an emergency change an alert an emergency event a request for change. Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management? Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to raise an incident Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which revels that an underlying problem exists, or is likely to exist Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service desk Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes. Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management? To ensure that problem records are circulated to all customers To ensure that the status of faulty configuration items (CI) is recorded To ensure that incident resolution times are aligned with business needs To ensure that incident workarounds are acceptable to the customers. What is a characteristic of a process? It requires a specific tool It is performance driven and measurable It provides generic technical skills and resources It does not react to a specific trigger. Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE? Customers, users and suppliers are examples of stakeholders, who may be external to the service provider organization External customers are those who work for the same organization as the IT service provider Internal customers are always charged for the IT services they receive from the IT service provider organization Internal customers purchase services from third-party suppliers by means of a legally binding contract or agreement. Which capacity management sub-process focuses on the management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance? Business capacity management Supplier capacity management Service capacity management Component capacity management. Access management is responsible for executing the policies that are defined in which process? Service portfolio management Information security management Change management Problem management. Which term describes if a service is fit for use? Serviceability Utility Warranty Availability. Which stage of the service lifecycle has the purpose of looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness? Service operation Service transition Continual service improvement Service strategy. Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service? Customers, providers and documents Information technology, people and processes Information technology, networks and people People, processes and customers. What processes represent the scope of financial management for IT services? Budgeting, costing and charging Budgeting, accounting and charging Cost models and invoicing Charging, accounting and billing. Which process analyzes services that are no longer viable and determines when they should be retired? Change management Service portfolio management Service level management Business relationship management. Which statement about Business Cases is TRUE? Business cases should focus on both the financial and non-financial impacts of the proposed project or service Business cases should only focus on the financial impacts of the proposed project to secure support and funding Business cases should only focus on the non-financial business impacts of the proposed project to secure proper highlevel management support Business cases should only focus on how the proposed project can lower costs and improve customer satisfaction, listing measures and targets. Which statement BEST describes the stakeholders in service management? A stakeholder can only be the customer of a service A stakeholder is any individual or group that has invested their money and time in the services A stakeholder can only be the provider of a service A stakeholder is any individual or group who has an interest in the management of the services. Which statement BEST describes the purpose of release and deployment management? To deliver the functionality required by the business while protecting the integrity of existing services To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service components To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service. The value created by a service is defined in terms of business outcomes, customer preferences, and which other element? Customer assets Customer perceptions Business activity Business vision. Which is NOT within the scope of service transition? Managing major changes or new services into the operational environment. Defining how the service provider will meet the customer’s required business outcomes. Ensuring that emergency changes are assessed for impact before implementation. Creating a logical model between the individual components and the overall service. What are the two MAIN types of activity in problem management? Technical and service Reactive and technical Resource and proactive Proactive and reactive. Which service transition process provides guidance about converting data into information? Change evaluation Knowledge management Service validation and testing Service asset and configuration management. Which of the following form part of the five major aspects of service design? 1. Service solutions for new or changed services 2. Management policies and guidelines 3. Business and governance requirements 4. Technology architectures and management architectures 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4. Which is NOT an objective of the change management process? To ensure that all changes to configuration items are recorded in the configuration management system To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated To respond to the business and IT requests for change that will align the services with the business needs To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users. What is NOT within the scope of service catalogue management? Contribution to the definition of services Interfaces between all services and supporting services Interfaces between the service catalogue and service portfolio Fulfillment of business service requests. Which statement about internal customers is CORRECT? Services are provided to internal customers under contractual agreements Internal customers have different organizational objectives from their service provider Agreed levels of service are not as important to internal customers Internal customers are part of the same organization as the service provider. What should a service design package (SDP) be produced for? 1. A standard change 2. A minor change to a service 3. Removal of a service 4. A major change to a service 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4. Which stage of the service lifecycle includes catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management? Service strategy Service design Service transition Service operation. A known IT service stops performing during normal business hours, then the user of the IT service calls the service desk. What should the service desk open? A problem record A service request An incident record An emergency request. Which CSI step would defining metrics be appropriate for? Where do we want to be? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going? Where are we now?. What is the ITIL guidance relating to the closure of resolved incidents? Anyone can close an incident once it has been resolved Only the technician that resolved the incident should close the incident Only the service desk should close resolved incidents Only the person who raised the incident should close it once it is resolved. What term describes actions taken to recover after a failed change or release? Remediation Restoration Reactivation Reassurance. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management? Service Catalogue Management Service Level Management IT Service Continuity Management Capacity Management. Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages 1. Monitor, Measure and Review 2. Continual Improvement 3. Implement Initiatives 4. Plan for Improvement 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act. Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT? 1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action 2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience 1 only 2 only Both of the above None of the above. What is IT Governance concerned with? A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of IT processes B. Ensuring that IT processes support the organization’s strategies and objectives C. Reducing the total cost of providing services to the business D. Ensuring that targets documented in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met. Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT? A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer. Which of the following are objectives of Supplier Management? 1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts 2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database 3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts 4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only None of the above. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure? Processes and functions Maturity and cost The end to end service Infrastructure availability. Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving services and service management processes? Plan Do Check Act. Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case? A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level. D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract. Which of the following could BEST be described as “A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action”? A. A Problem model B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP) C. A Request for Change (RFC) D. A Business Case. The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is? A. The design and development of new services B. The design and development of service improvements C. The design and development of services and service management processes D. The day-to-day operation and support of services. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low? A. Access management B. Request Fulfillment C. Release and Deployment Management D. Incident Management. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure? A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve. Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items need to be identified? A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions . What is the definition of an Alert? A. An error message to the user of an application B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed C. A type of Incident D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures . Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process? A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media) B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and qualification process exists C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for obtaining them . Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool? Data Wisdom Information Knowledge. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts? A. IT Designer/Architect B. Process Manager C. Service Catalogue Manager D. Supplier Manager . What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out a risk response action or actions to respond to a particular risk or set of risks? A. Risk Manage B. Risk Coordinator C. Risk Actionee D. Risk Owner . The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as? A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology metrics include availability and capacity D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics measure the infrastructure . Which of the following describes risk proximity? The timeframe over which the risk mitigation actions should be implemented The schedule for the risk management activities related to a plan The timeframe over which a risk will be monitored by the risk owner The timeframe for when the risk might materialize . Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident? A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output . Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT? A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines D. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice” . A Service Level Agreement is? The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes? Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed Only requirements needed and agreed Only capabilities needed and agreed Only resources and capabilities needed . Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process? The Service Desk Manager The Service Manager The Request Fulfillment Process Manager The Request Fulfillment Process Owner . Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent? Extreme focus on cost Extreme focus on responsiveness Vendor focused Extreme internal focus . Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process? Where are we now? Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement Prepare for action Define what you should measure . Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management? Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application Deciding whether to buy or build an application Assisting in the design of the application . In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on ‘Stability’, what might the likely outcome be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs? Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability The only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability – the customers must be made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business timescales . Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? Capacity management Governance Service design Service level management . Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle? Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes . Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by? Service Desk IT Operations Control Technical Management Facilities Management . An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent? Excessive focus on quality Excessively reactive Excessively proactive Excessive focus on cost . “Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? Functions and Processes Markets and Customers Applications and Infrastructure People, products and technology . How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization? Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered Showing the business impact of a change Displaying the relationships between configuration items To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure . Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process? Access Management Incident Management Request Fulfillment Change Management . Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity? Fallback Reject Share Reduce. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre? IT Operations Management Applications Management Service Desk Technical Management . Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management? Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio . Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool? Software design Process design Environment design Strategy design . Which of the following would be carried out as part of a post-project benefits review? An assessment of whether the project fulfilled its original objectives A review of the performance of the project’s products in operational use and identification of whether there have been any side-effects An assessment of the project’s risk management procedure A review of the performance of the project management method and the project management team . Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge? Applications Management Service Desk Technical Management IT Operations Management . The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is that: An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver the service An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer . Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy? To design and build processes that will meet business needs To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services To transform Service Management into a strategic asset To underscore the importance of services in the global economy . Access Management is closely related to which other processes? Availability Management only Information Security Management and 3rd line support Information Security Management and Availability Management Information Security Management only . Which of the following does the Availability Management process include? (1) Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets (2) Monitoring and reporting actual availability (3) Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals 1 only All of the above 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only . In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created? An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any users An Incident is passed to second-level support A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring Incidents Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it . Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle? Service Transition Risk Management IT Service Continuity Management Availability Management . Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management? The IT Executive The ISO27001 Standard The Business The Service Level Manager . Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process? A change to a contract with a supplier A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident A change to a business process that depends on IT Services . There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below? (1) Progress (2) Effectiveness (3) Efficiency (4) ? Cost Conformance Compliance Capacity. What is the objective of Access Management? To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations To manage access to the Service Desk To manage the right to use a service or group of services . Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk? (1) Known Error Data (2) Change Schedules (3) Service Knowledge Management System (4) The output from monitoring tools 1,2 and 3 only 1,2 and 4 only 2,3 and 4 only All of the above . “Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production” is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle? Service Operation Service Strategy Service Transition Continual Service Improvement . Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT? The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing . Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers? Continual Service Improvement Service Transition Service Design Service Operation . Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes? Access Management Facilities Management Event Management Demand Management . Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk? Something that won’t happen Something that will happen Something that has happened Something that might happen . What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as? The Service Strategy and Service Transition books The ITIL Complementary Guidance The Service Support and Service Delivery books Pocket Guides . Which of the following are goals of Service Operation? (1) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business (2) The successful release of services into the live environment 1 only 2 only Both of the above Neither of the above . Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (CIs)? (1) Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems (2) Assessing the impact of proposed Changes (3) Planning and designing a Change to an existing service (4) Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade 1 and 2 only All of the above 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only . Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization? The Service Level Manager The Business Relationship Manager The Service Owner The Service Continuity Manager . Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported To provide training and certification in project management To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release . Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function? Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities . IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on: (1) Design of the service technology (2) Business continuity strategy (3) Business Impact Analysis (4) Risk assessment 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only . When should tests for a new service be designed? At the same time as the service is designed After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition As part of Service Transition Before the service is designed . Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of: Service Design: Design the processes Service Strategy: Develop the offerings Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment Service Operation: IT Operations Management . What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process? Measurements that match the customer’s perception of the service Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service Level Agreements(SLAs) Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements . As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types? (1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit (2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services (3) An external service provider All of the above 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only . What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle? Rapid, one-off improvement Return on investment within 12 months Quick wins Steady, ongoing improvement . Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure? Service Level Management Change Management Incident Management Service Asset and Configuration Management . What is the Service Pipeline? All services except those that have been retired All services that are at a conceptual or development stage All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) All complex multi-user services . Which of the following statements is CORRECT? IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider . Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity? The Asset Register The Service Knowledge Management System The Known Error Database The Information Management System . What are Request Models used for? Capacity Management Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled . A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within: The RACI Model A Release Package A Request Model The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle . Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis? The Service Level Manager The IT Service Continuity Manager The Service Catalogue Manager The Supplier Manager . Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management? To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disaster To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation . Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit? A. A measurement of cost B. A function described within Service Transition C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together . Which process lists “Understanding patterns of business activity” as a major role? Demand Management Supplier Management Service Desk Request Fulfillment . Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Process owners are more important to service management than service owners Service owners are more important to service management than process owners Service owners are as important to service management as process owners Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization . The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what? The utility of a service The economic value of a service The warranty of a service Return on investment . Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority? The Change Advisory Board A person that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a particular type of change. The Change Manager who provides formal authorization for each change . Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role? The Service Level Manager The Configuration Manager The Change Manager The Information Security Manager . Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description? Define the time and cost needed to produce the product Define the function and appearance of the product Define the quality skills required to check the product Define the development skills required to produce the product . Identify the input to the Problem Management process. Request for Change Problem Resolution Incident Records New Known Errors . Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment? Early Life Support Service Test Manager Evaluation Release Packaging and Build Manager . Service Design emphasizes the importance of the ‘Four Ps’. Which of the following is a correct list of these ‘Four Ps’? People, Products, Partners, Profit People, Process, Products, Partners Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit People, Potential, Products, Performance . Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies? The ITIL Complementary Guidance The Service Support book Pocket Guides The Service Strategy book . Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service? The Service Provider The Service Level Manager The Customer The Finance department . Where should the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) be stored and protected? Definitive Media Library Definitive Software Store Service Knowledge Management System Software Secure Library . Which of the following are aspects of Service Design? (1) Architectures (2) Technology (3) Service Management processes (4) Metrics 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above . Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)? An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported . Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure? Incident Model Problem Model Configuration Model Change Model . The BEST processes to automate are those that are: Carried out by Service Operations Carried out by lots of people Critical to the success of the business mission Simple and well understood . Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? (1) Risk assessment (2) Testing of resilience mechanisms (3) Monitoring of component availability All of the above 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only . Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT? They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner They deliver specific results They respond to specific events . Which of the following would be defined as part of every process? (1) Roles (2) Activities (3) Functions (4) Responsibilities 1 and 3 only All of the above 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only . Which describes an interface of incident management with service level management? Incident workarounds Creating a problem record Incident response times The status of faulty CIs. The Supplier Management process includes: (1) Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements (2) Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements (3) Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business 1 and 2 only 1 only All of the above 1 and 3 only . Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained? Categorization Logging Prioritization Closure . Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? Availability Management Demand Management Financial Management Service Level Management . Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider’s ability to handle high volumes of what? Service level requests Changes and Releases Password resets Incidents and Problems . Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development? Service Design Service Strategy Service Operation Continual Service Improvement . In the phrase “People, Processes, Products and Partners”. Products refers to: IT Infrastructure and Applications Services, technology and tools Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services All assets belonging to the Service Provider . Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of: People, Process, Partners, Suppliers People, Process, Products, Technology People, Process, Products, Partners People, Products, Technology, Partners . Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle? Service Operation Capacity Management Service Design Availability Management . When is it confirmed if a project’s objectives have been achieved? During the Closing a Project process During the final end stage assessment During the Controlling a Stage process During the Managing Product Delivery process . Which is a definition of a risk cause? The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance The source of a risk The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation . Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models? (1) Roles and responsibilities (2) Template release and deployment (3) Supporting systems, tools and procedures. (4) Handover activities and responsibilities 1, 2 and 3 only. 2, 3 and 4 only. All of the above 1 and 4 only. . Which of the following are objectives of Service Design? (1) Design Services to satisfy business objectives. (2) Identify and manage risk. (3) Design effective and efficient processes (4) Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure. 1 Only 2 and 3 only. 1, 2 and 4 only. All of the above . Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model. (1) Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives. (2) Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved. (3) Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI. (4) Decision on implementation of further enhancement. 3-1-2-4 3-4-2-1 1-3-2-4 2-3-4-1 . Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing Service Transition? (1) Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements (2) Reduced cost to design new services (3) Improved success in implementing changes 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above . What are the processes within Service Operation? Event Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Request Fulfillment and Access Management Event Management, Incident Management. Change Management and Access Management Incident Management, Problem Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfillment and Management Incident Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfillment, Access Management and Event Management . Which process or function is responsible for the Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares? Facilities Management Access Management Request Fulfillment Service Asset and Configuration Management . Which is the CORRECT description of an outcome? The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT service The inputs that trigger an action for an activity, process or IT service The prediction of the future demand requirements for an activity, process or IT service The design and development of the activities that make up a process or IT service . A configuration model can be used to help (1) Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems (2) Assess the impact of proposed changes (3) Plan and design new or changed services (4) Plan technology refresh and software upgrades 1, 2 and 3 only All of the above 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only . Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process? Roles Inputs and Outputs Functions Metrics. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help lo define what? The value off a service Governance Total cost of ownership (TCO) Key performance indicators (KPIs) . Which of the following questions does the guidance in service strategy help to answer? (1) What services should we offer and to whom? (2) How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives? (3) How do we create value for our customers? 1 only 2 only All of the above 3 only. Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service? (1) Marketing information (2) Contract description and scope (3) Responsibilities and dependencies 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only None of the above . Which of the following provides the PRIMARY source of guidance on what needs to be protected by information security management? IT management Service desk manager Business management The change manager . When tan a known error record tie raised? (1) At any time when it would be useful to do so (2) After a workaround has been found 2 only 1 only Neither of the above Both of the above . Which of the following is the BEST definition of an event? Any detectable or discernible occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem . Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT? Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has been disrupted Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manages infrastructure devices not services . Which of the following is an example of self-help capabilities? Menu-driven range of facilities used to access service requests Calls to the service desk to register standard changes A software update downloaded automatically to all laptops in an organization Software to allow programmers to debug code . The goal of which process is: “To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle”? Knowledge Management Availability Management Service Asset and Configuration Management Change Management . Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities? Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests Menu-driven range of self help and service requests Web front-end A direct interface into the back end process handling software . Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS) The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases (CMDB) The SKMS can include user skill levels . The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the? Emergency CAB (ECAB) Urgent Change Authority (UCA) Urgent Change Board (UCB) CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC) . In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management? Service Transition Service Design Service Strategy Service Operation . Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT? Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize the cost of training them The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimize salaries Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained . Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset? Services and Infrastructure Applications and Infrastructure Resources and Capabilities Utility and Warranty . Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle? 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A . A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when? The contract is being negotiated The contract is about to be ended The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon The contract has been agreed . Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change? A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure A change that is made as the result of an audit A change that correctly follows the required change process . The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is? To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers To design and build processes that will meet business needs . Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure? RACI model Service Model Continual Service improvement (CSI) model. The Deming Cycle . Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which process? Service Portfolio Management Service Level Management Component Capacity Management Demand Management . Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance? (1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio? (2) What services to offer and to whom? (3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? 3 only 1 only 2 only All of the above . Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by? Ensuring that all assets are accounted for Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database . How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited? Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement . Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did we get there?” Service Strategy Service Design Service Operation Service Transition . Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager? (1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (2) Designing the service so it can meet the targets (3) Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place 1 and 3 only All of the above 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only . Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management? Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager . In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to: Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) . The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of? Business Value Functionality IT Assets Service Level Requirements . Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is? Whether to buy an application or build it Should application development be outsourced Who the vendor of the storage devices will be Where the vendor of an application is located . What is the entry point or the first level of the V model? Service Solution Customer / Business Needs Service Release Service Requirements . Service Acceptance criteria are used to? Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle nsure Portfolio Management is in place Ensure delivery and support of a service Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported . Which of the following statements is CORRECT? (1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation (2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services Both of the above Neither of the above 2 only 1 only . Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process? Overall business risk is optimized Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes All budgets and expenditures are accounted for All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management system . How does Problem Management work with Change Management? By installing changes to fix problems By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions By working with users to change their IT configurations . An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed to restore the service. What has taken place? A functional escalation A service level escalation An incident resolution A hierarchic escalation . Which function is responsible for the closure of an incident record? Event management The service desk Either the service desk or an appropriate third party engineer Any appropriate function . What is the primary focus of component capacity management? Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion . Which describes a proactive trigger for problem management? Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to raise an incident Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which reveals that an underlying problem exists, or is likely to exist Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service desk Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes . What should the IT service continuity process primarily support? Critical IT processes All the services in the service portfolio Business continuity strategy Mission critical services at peak business periods . What BEST describes the customers and users of an IT service provider? Customers buy IT services; users use IT services Customers design IT services; users test IT services Customers sell IT services; users improve IT services Customers agree the service levels; users buy IT services . Which is the BEST definition of a supplier? It is a third party responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services It is a shared services unit that is responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services It is a third party with responsibility for supplying goods or services that is agreed through an operational level agreement It is a mixture of internal and external parties that are responsible for providing goods and services to its customer group . What is the pre-authorized change known as? A normal change A retrospective change A standard change An ordinary change . What is the BEST description of a change proposal? Any request for change (RFC) submitted to change management An authorized change submitted to release and deployment An RFC that must be implemented as soon as possible A justification for a change with significant cost or risk . What is a change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) called? An event A baseline A change to a service level agreement A request for change (RFC) . Which is responsible for the production of the service design package (SDP)? Service portfolio management Service catalogue management Design coordination Service design . What is the CORRECT definition of service management? A set of specialized assets for transitioning services into the live operational environment A set of specialized organizational capabilities for delivering value to customers in the form of services A group of events that meet the demand from customers for services that they receive A group of people that manages services to fulfill the needs of users and customers . How are groups, teams, departments and divisions classified? Processes Functions Roles Technicians . Third parties responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services is a description of which stakeholder? External Customers Suppliers Operations External Consultants . Can service operation improve efficiency in the business operation by automating common routines? No, automating common routines improves effectiveness but not efficiency Yes, through automating common routines and introducing the service knowledge management System (SKMS) Yes, through automating common routines, more productive work can be carried out No, automating common routines only results in preventing common problems . What is the BEST definition of an internal service? It is a supporting service delivered between functions of the IT service provider It is any customer-facing service delivered by an outsourced provider It is a service delivered to the terms of a contract which enables a customer to achieve business outcomes It is a service delivered between departments or business units in the same organization . Which statements about best practice is MOST correct? Customers are a source of best practice and will advise service providers how it should be implemented Internal experience is the only source of best practice because it is developed within the service provider ITIL is a source of best practice and is validated across a wide set of environments and situations Suppliers are a source of best practice and they will improve the services delivered by a service Provider . Which statement about services is CORRECT? External services are provided to business units in the same organization Internal services are provided by suppliers to the internal IT department External services are delivered to external customers Internal services are delivered to external customers . Which areas are NOT measured by process KPIs? 1. Technology 2. Performance 3. Value 4. Compliance 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only . Which one of the following is a correct definition of a supplier category? Strategic-for suppliers of operational products or services Tactical-for relationships involving significant commercial activity and business interaction Operational-for suppliers providing low value and/or readily available products and services Commodity-for significant partnering relationships that involve senior managers . The configuration management system is part of which system? The availability management information system The capacity management information system The information security management system The service knowledge management system . Which groups of people would work according to an operational level agreement? Business units All stakeholders External IT teams Internal IT teams . Which process monitors and improves the performance of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle? Transition planning and support Design co-ordination Change management Service transition management . How is a service delivered between departments of same organization classified? Internal Service External Service Mission Critical service Organizational service. . Which processes ensure the targets in the underpinning contracts are appropriate? Design coordination and service level management Supplier management and service level management Service level management and availability management Configuration management and service portfolio management . What is used to control a process? Inputs Functions Objectives Stakeholders. Which statement is CORRECT? A function is a set of responsibilities allocated to a service manager A process is a team or group of people and the tools they use to perform one or more activities A function is a set of specialized organizational capabilities A process is a structured set of activities designed to accomplish a specific objective . What is the BEST description of the CSI register? It is a record of all authorized changes and their planned implementation dates It is a record of proposed improvement opportunities and the benefits that will be achieved It is a record of new services to be approved by a customer, including proposed implementation dates It is a record of completed improvements and the relevant customer satisfaction metric . Which is an outcome of service design? User training and awareness for the service is maximized Services and operational quality are enhanced Standard Services are provided quickly and efficiently across the business Expectations setting of all stakeholders for the services improved . Which stage of the service lifecycle identifies, defines and aligns the IT solution with the business requirements? Service transition Service design Service operation Service configuration . Why is ITIL successful? It always guarantees cost savings Its practices are applicable to any IT organization It makes technology architecture easy to design It can be fully implemented in 30 days . What BEST describes the value of service design to the business? It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services It reduces total cost of ownership (TCO) of services It improves the control of service assets and configurations It provides quick and effective access to standard services . What BEST describes the value of continual service improvement to the business? It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services It results in gradual improvement in cost effectiveness It improves governance by building controls into service designs It provides quick and effective access to standard services . What service could include a differentiation as an “excitement factor”? A core service An enabling service A packaged service An enhancing service . Access management is responsible for implementing policies defined in which process? Service portfolio management Information security management Change management Problem management . Which document shows a detailed analysis of business impact and benefits? A return on investment Service level requirements A business case A service level agreement . Where are the details of core and enhancing service provided? The definitive media library. The configuration management system. The service portfolio. The service catalogue. . When should a known error be raised? Only when the root cause is found and a workaround exists As soon as it becomes useful to do so Only when the error in the IT Service is found As soon as the major problem procedure is executed . Which process has the objective to identify changes to the customer environment that could potentially impact the type, level or utilization of services provided? Business relationship management Service level management Availability management Change management . Which formal agreement minimizes the risk of disputes that can occur between an IT service provider and an external supplier? Operational contract Underpinning contract Serviceability contract Service level contract . ITSM concepts are often described in the context of only one of these type. Type I, type II and type III Service Units Business Units Service Providers Customers . How should entries in the CSI register be categorized? Based on priority, urgency and impact to the business and to all its stakeholders Based on small, medium or, large undertakings that can be done quickly, medium term or long term Based on IT service name, cost to the business and expected outcomes to the customer Based on best improvement opportunities in the organization to achieve a competitive advantage . Which of the following correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact? Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other Urgency should be based on impact and priority Impact should be based on urgency and priority Priority should be based on impact and urgency . Which service lifecycle stage provides the following values to the business? Service transition Service strategy Service operation Service design . Which is a responsibility of a customer within the service level management process? Negotiate third party contracts Measure service availability Supply good or services Agree Service level targets . Which process is responsible for managing all service requests from users? Change fulfillment Incident management Request fulfillment Event management . What must a service level agreement (SLA) define? Legally binding contractual responsibilities or both parties Legally binding contractual responsibilities of just the IT service provider Key service targets and responsibilities of both the IT service provider and customer Key service targets and responsibilities of just the IT service provider. Which BEST describes a situation in which the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is used? Following a full change advisory board (CAB) to resolve any outstanding agenda items During peak or holiday periods when emergencies are more likely to occur In an emergency situation when it is not possible to convene a full CAB Outside the normal working hours of the business unit. What do customers NOT have ownership of when receiving value from services? Specific costs and outcomes Specific costs and risks Specific risks and impacts Specific outcomes and impacts. Which list includes information that would be collected when any incident is first logged? Unique reference number, escalation activity, incident priority Unique reference number, incident priority, description of symptoms Escalation activity, closure category, resolution date and time Closure category, description of symptoms, resolution date and time. Which statement BEST describes a service request? A request from a customer for a new service A generic description for the many types of request for change (RFC) that are received by the IT organization A high priority RFC from a senior manager A generic description for the many different types of demands that are placed upon the IT organization by the users. Which is a supplier category? Technical Commodity Customer Resource. Which is an example of how service automation assists service automation assists service management? Customers can employ more sales staff during peak business periods The capacity of services can be adjusted to respond to respond to variations in demand Requests for new services can be authorized by anyone in service management The capacity of the service desk can be reduced to prevent users contacting it at busy times. Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business? It supports the creation of a catalogue of services? It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality It ensures the production of more successful service designs It results in higher volumes of successful change. Which statement about Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) is FALSE? The scope of SACM includes management of the complete lifecycle of every configuration item (CI) Configuration baselines and versions are produced by SACM SACM maintains an accurate and complete configuration management system (CMS) All changes to CIs are authorized by SACM. Which BEST describes the purpose of the CSI register? To capture, record and prioritize all improvement opportunities To store details of all component CIs and their interfaces To be a central repository for all IT service management related information To record details of all live services and their service targets. What is part of a configuration management system (CMS)? 1. Configuration records 2. Configuration management databases 3. Physical assets 4. Release plans 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4. Which are objectives of problem management? 1. Eliminate recurring incidents 2. Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented 3. Increase visibility and communication of incidents 4. Provide a trigger for the raising of incidents 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4. What does the ‘C’ in ‘RACI’ refer to? Communicate Configure Customer Consult. Which is NOT a sub-process of capacity management? People capacity management Component capacity management Business capacity management Service capacity management. Which statement about IT service-management is CORRECT? It is performed by customers using a mix of IT systems, services and processes It is performed by IT service providers using a mix of suppliers and their products It is performed by the service desk using a mix of people, process and technology It is performed by IT service providers using a mix of people, process and technology. Which is the correct explanation of the ‘R’ role in a RACI matrix? This role ensures that activities are executed correctly This role has ownership of the end result This role is involved in providing knowledge and input This role ensures the flow of information to stakeholders. Which statement about the ‘four Ps” of service design is CORRECT? Processes refers to skills and training Partners refers to suppliers and vendors People refers to technology and tools Products refers to procedures and metrics. What type of change is pre-authorized, low risk, relatively common, and follows a procedure or work instruction? A standard change An emergency change An internal change A normal change. Which service catalogue view is considered beneficial when constructing relationship between services,SLAs, OLAs, and other underpinning agreements? Service-based SLA view Wholesale customer view Retail customer view Supporting services view. Which is an objective of the design coordination process? To produce service design packages and ensure they art handed over to service transition To asses and evaluate all changes and their impact on service designs To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers To gather and document new service level requirements from the customer. What MAIN factors are considered to assess the priority of an incident? The urgency and impact The impact and complexity The cost and urgency The complexity and cost. Which term is used to describe the prediction and control of income and expenditure within an organization? Charging Governance Budgeting Accounting. What three elements make up the Service Portfolio? Customer portfolio, service catalogue and retired services Customer portfolio, configuration management system and service catalogue Service pipeline, service catalogue and retired services Service pipeline, configuration management system and service catalogue. Which process is used to compare the value that new services offer with the value of the services they have replaced? Availability management Capacity management Service portfolio management Service catalogue management. Which is an important principle of communication in service operation? Information should always be communicated It has an intended purpose or a resultant action Meetings are always the best method of communication It is stored in the configuration management system. Which statement about metrics is CORRECT? Process metrics can be used to measure end-to-end service performance Technology metrics can be used to measure component performance and availability Process metrics can be used to measure the utilization of a supplier’s network Technology metrics can be used to determine the overall health of a process. What takes place in the “Did we get there?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach? An initial baseline assessment The production of a detailed CSI plan Verifying that improvement targets have been achieved Understanding priorities for improvement. What can be used to help determine the impact level of a problem? Definitive media library (DML) Configuration management system (CMS) Statement of requirements (SOR) Standard operating procedures (SOP). Which are phases of the release and deployment process? 1. Release build and test 2. Review and close 3. Categorize and record 4. Change authorization and schedule 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4. Which are the elements of process control? Inputs, outputs and triggers Work instructions, procedures and roles Resources, capabilities and metrics Process owner, policy and objectives. What is the definition of a service improvement plan (SIP)? A formal plan to implement improvements to a customer’s business processes An input from availability management to service level management, detailing the service design plan A formal plan to implement improvements to a service or process An input from financial management for IT services to service level management, detailing the budget plan. Which process works with incident management to ensure that security breaches are detected and logged? Change management Service level management Access management Continual service improvement.

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