When are outboard ailerons normally used? Low-speed flight only High-speed flight only Low-speed and High-speed flight. When are inboard ailerons normally used? Low-speed flight only High-speed flight only Low-speed and High-speed flight. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control Slats Elevator Dorsal fin . Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control ? Ruddervator Upper rudder Leading edge flaps. What is the propose of an anti-servo tab? Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position . What is the propose of a servo tab? Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control Prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position . Which is the propose of leading-edge flaps ? Increase the camber of the wing Reduce lift without increasing speed Direct Airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack . Which is the purpose of flight spoilers ? Increase the chamber of the wing Reduce lift without increasing speed Direct Airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack . Which is the purpose of leading edge slats on high performance wings ? Increase the chamber of the wing Reduce lift without increasing speed Direct Airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack . Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti Servo tab move Same direction Opposite direction Remains fixed for all directions . What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank altitude The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor The rate of turn will increase resulting in a increase load factor The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no Changes in load factor . What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? Drag increases because of increased induced drag Drag increases because of increased parasite drag Drag decreases because Lower induced drag . What is load factor ? Lift multiplied by the total weight Lift substracted from the total weight Lift divided by the total weight . What effects indicates stall speed? Weight, load factor , and power Load factor , angle of attack , and power Angle of attack, weight , and air density . If no corrective action is taken by the pilots as angle of bank is increased , how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected ? Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases and the sink rate increases . Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? Components for loss of vertical component of lift Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component Compensate for increase in drag. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time ? Steepen the bank and increase airspeed Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed Shallow the bank and increase airspeed . What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing speed ? Rate will decrease and radius Will increase Rate will increase and radius will decrease Rate and radius will increase . Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? Rate of turn Angle of bank True airspeed . If and aircraft with a gross weight of 2000. Pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight, the load factor will be ? 2Gs 3Gs 9Gs. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generator Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap . What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a flight, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to Best engine-out , rate of climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. Vmc , then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb-airspeed. An airspeed slightly above VMC, the. Lift off and climb at the best rate of climb airspeed . What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC Heading Heading and altitude Heading, altitude and ability to climb 50 ft/min . What criteria determines which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin engine airplane? The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of fuselaje The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage . What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines? None Increase with altitude Decreases with Altitude . Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin engine airplane With one engine inoperative With climb power on With full flaps and gear extended . What does the blue radial lone on the airspeed indicator of a light , twin engine airplane represent? Maximum single engine rate of climb Maximum single engine angle of climb Minimum controllable airspeed for single engine operations . Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized Negative longitudinal static stability Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability Neutral longitudinal static stability . What is a characteristic of a longitudinal instability? Pich oscillations becoming progressive greater Bank oscillations becoming progressive greater Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down . Describe dynamic longitudinal stability Motion about longitudinal axis Motion about lateral axis Motion about the vertical axis . What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight . Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized Positive dynamic stability Positive static stability Neutral dynamic stability . What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? An increase in induced drag requiring a angle of attack A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack An increase in dynamic stability . What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG Range? Sluggish in aileron control Sluggish in rudder control Unstable about the lateral axis . What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled ? Lift will be The same Two times greater Four times greater . What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude increased The same true airspeed and angle of attack A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack . What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit ? Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed. And least stability Highest stall speed. Highest cruise speed And least stability Lowest stall speed lowest cruise speed and highest stability . By changing the angle of attack of a wing , the pilot can control the airplanes Lift, gross weight, and drag. Lift , airspeed. And drag Lift and airspeed , but not drag . The primary purpose of high lift devices is to increase the L/Dmax Lift at low speeds Drag and reduce airspeed . Within what match range does transonic flight regimes usually occur .50 to .75 Mach .75 to 1.20 Mach 1.20 to 2.50 Mach. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in Landing configuration during the flare before touchdown ? Prevent flow separation Decrease rate of sink Increase profile drag . What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing Initial buffet speed Critical Mach number Transonic index. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow? Supersonic Mach number Transonic Mach number Critical Mach number. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur ? Below .75 Mach From .75 Mach to 1.20 mach From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach . What is the principal advantage of sweepback design wing over a straightwing design? The critical Mach number will increase significantly Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect . What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft ? A high speed stall and sudden pitchup A serve moment or “tuck under” Severe porpoising . What is one disadvantage a sweptwing design ? The wing root stalls prior the wingslip section The wingstip section stalls prior to the wing root Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward . What is the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing type airplane to roll in one direction while yawning in the other ? Porpoise Wingover Dutch roll . What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock stalled first Inward and aft Inward and forward Outward and forward . For a given angle of bank , the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant altitude turn Is directly related to the airplanes gross weight Varies with rate of turn Is constant . What is the relationship between induced and
Parasite drag when the gross weight is increased Parasite drag increases more than induced drag Induced drag increases more than parasite drag Both parásite and induced drag equally increased . At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb ? Low speed High speed Any speed. Assuring that appropriate Aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the = Aircraft dispatcher Flight navigator Pilot in command . When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for operations , what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take ? List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the airplane Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use List at least one additional alternate airport . An alternate airport for departure is required If the weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport When the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport When destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM ). What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two engine airplanes 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating . Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch of flight release , weather reports and forecast must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport For a period 1 hours before or after the ETA During the entire flight When the flights arrives . The Minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are Those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport , at the time the flight is expected to arrive Those specified in the certificate holders operations specifications for that airport. When the flight arrives Those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport , for 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight . Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH after receiving a weather report indicating that less than a minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport ? If the instrument approach is conducted in radar enviroment When the weather report is recieved as the pilot passes the FAF When the weather report is received after the pilot as begun de final approach segment of the instrument approach . Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight , are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? 10000 ft 14500 ft Fl 180 . With regard to flight crewmember duties. Which of the following operations are considered to be in the critical phase of flight ? Taxi , take off , landing , and all other operations conducted below 10.000 ft MSL , including cruise flight Descend , approach, landing, and taxi operations , irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi , take off , landing , and all other operations conducted below 10.000 ft, excluding cruise flight . What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of clearance limit and further clearence has not bee. Received ? Assume lost communications and continue as planed Plan to hold a cruising speed until further clearance is recieved Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding . What report should the pilot make a clearance limit Time and altitude / flight level arriving or leaving Time altitude / flight level , and expected holding speed Time altitude / flight level expected holding speed. And inbound leg length . Maximum holding speed for propellers-driven airplane may hold at is 265 Knots 230 Knots 156 Knots . Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14000 feet is : 210 knots 230 knots 265 knots . Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7000 and 14000 feet is 265 knots 230 knots 200 knots . When using a flight director system , what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in holding pattern 3 grades per second or 25 bank , whichever is less 3 grades per second or 30 bank , whichever is less 1-1/2 per second or 25 bank , whichever is less. When holding at an NDB , At what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound ? Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the return to the outbound heading , whichever occurs first At the end of a 1 minute standard rate turn after station passage When the abeam the holding fix . When entering a holding pattern above 14.000 feet the initial outbound leg should not exceed 1. Minute 1-1/2 minutes 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM , whichever is less . Refer to the image below , how should the pilot identify the MAP on the IAH VOR/DME RMY23R After time has elapsed from FAF IAH 1,3 DME IAH 1 DME . When is the earliest time the pilot may initate a descent from 460 feet MSL to land at IAH any time Aft GALES INT if the runway enviroment is visible only Aft The IAH 1.3 DME if the runway enviroment is visible only Aft the IAH 1 DME if the runway enviroment is visible . At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR DME RWY 32 R approach at IAH if Still IMC any time after the FAF IAH 1.3 DME IAH 1 DME. to change overpoint on V394 between DAG VORTAC and POM VORTAC is? Halfway 38 DME miles from DAG VORTAC 64 DME miles From DAG VORTAC. The minimums crossing altitude at APLECS INT Soutwest Bound on V394 is? 7500 Feet 9100 Feet 11500 Feet. What is the minimum enroute altitude on V210 When crossing the PDM VORTAC soutwest Bound and continuing on the same Airway ? 10700 feet 10300 feet 5300 feet. When simultaneus ILS approaches are in progress , which of the following should approach control be advice inmediatly ? Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers if a simultaneus ILS approach is desired if radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation . What minimum information does an abbrebiated departure clearance " Cleared as filled " include ? clearance limit and enroute altitude clearance limit , enroute altitude , and SID , if appropiated destination airport , enroute altitude and SID if appropiated. what is the porpose of the term " HOLD FOR RELEASE " when included in an IFR clearance ? at procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume , weather , or need to issue further instructions when an IFR clearance is recieved by telephone , the pilot will have time to prepare for take off prior to being release gate hold procedures are ineffect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released . What action should a pilot take if Asked by ARTCC to " Verify 9000" and the flight is actually mantaining 8000 inmediatly climb to 9000 report climbing to 9000 report mantaining 8000. where are positions reports required on an IFR flight on Airways or Routes over all the Designated compulsory reporting points only where specifically requested by CORPAC Flight plan When requested to change altitude or advice of weather condition . which Reports are required when operating IFR in radar enviroment position reports, vacating an altitude , unable to climb 500 feet/min , and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared position reports , vacating an altitude , unabale to climb 500 feet/min , and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared , and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 per cent or 10 knots vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500feet/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared , a change in average true airspeed exceeding , 5 per cent or 10 knots , and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact leaving FAF inbound or outter marker inbound and miss approach leaving FAF inbound , leaving outter marker inbound or outbound , and miss approach leaving FAF inbound , leaving outter marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound , and visual contact with the runway. a minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearence of 1000 feet in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2000 feet in designated montainous areas minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) Off route obstruction clearance altitude ( OROCA) minimum safe/sector altitude MSA . pilot Should notifiy controllers on initial contact what they have recieved the ATIS broadcast by stating " have Numbers " Stating " Have weather " Repeating the alphabetical code word appendate to the broadcast . When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the Flight , what is the procedure for the transition the IFR portion is automatically canceled and VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR condition the Pilot Should advice ATC to cancel the IFR portion And Contact the nearest FSS to Activate the VFR Portion The Pilot Should advice ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activated the VFR portion . Which IFR Fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan all compulsory reporting points enroute The VOR´S That define the IFR portion of the flight The FIX where the IFR portion Is to be terminated . a Pilot receives this ATC Clearance : Cleared to the ABC VORTAC , Hold west on the 270 radial" What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern parallel or tear drop parallel only direct only. a Pilot recieves this ATC clearance : Cleared to XYZ VORTAC . hold North on the 360 radial , Left Turns . what is the recommended procedure to enter the holdind pattern tear drop only parallel only direct only. You recieved this ATC clearance : Hold East of the ABC VORTAC on the 090 Radial Left Turns. What is The recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern ? Parallel Only Direct Only Tear Drop Only . You recieved this ATC clearance : Cleared to ABC VORTAC hold South of the 180 Radial. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern ? tear drop only direct only parallel only . What is the primary purpose of a STAR? Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic Simplify clearance delivery procedures Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports . When does ATC issue a STAR only when ATC deems it appropiated only to high priority flights only upon request of the pilot . what actions should a pilot take if vectored a cross the Final approach course doing an IFR Approach continue on the last heading issue until the otherwise instructed contact approach control , and advice that the flight is crossing the final approach course turn on to final , and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceded on final . while being vectored to the final approach course of the IFR approach , when may the pilot descent to the published altitudes any time the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart when the flight is within the 10 miles ring of a published approach only when approach control clears the flight for the approach. what action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport continue taxing in the landing direction until advice by the tower to switch to ground control frequency exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxi way holding lines . What is the pilots responsabilty for clearance or instructions readback expect for SID´s . Readback altitude assignments , altitude restrictions , and vectors Is the clearance or instruction is understood , and acknowledgment if sufficient readback the entire Clearance or instructions to confirm the message is understood. how should a pilot describe braking action? 00 percent , 50 percent , 75 percent , or 100 percent 00 50 50 or normal nil, poor , fair , good . what action should a pilot take when " Gate Hold " Procedures are in effect contact ground control prior to starting engines for secuencing taxi in to position and hold prior to requesting clearance starting engines , perform pre-take off check and request. what special consideration is given for turbine powered aircraft when "gate hold " procedures are in effect they are giving preference for departure over other aircrafts they are expected to be ready for take off when they reach the runway warm up block they are expected to be ready for take off prior to taxy and will recieve take off clearance prior to taxi . what type information is disseminated by NOTAM´S Status of navigation AIDS , ILS , Radar service available , and other information essential to planning airport or primary runway closings , runway and taxiway conditions and airport lightings AIDS outages temporary flight restricctions , changes in status in navigational AIDS , and updates on equipment such as VASI. NOTAM (L) are used to disseminate what type of information conditions of facilities enroute that may cause delays taxi clousures , personnel and equipment near or crossing runways , airport lighting , AIDS that do not affect instrument approaches criteria, and airport rotating Beacon outages time critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in normally published charts . how often are NOTAM´S Broadcast to Pilots on a Scheduled basics 15 minutes before and 15 after the hour between weather braoadcast on the hour hourly , appended to the weather broadcast. if visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach , what action should the pilot take make a climb turn toward the landing runway until stablished on the miss approach course turn toward the landing runway mantaining MDA , An if is visual reference is not gained , perform missed approach make a climb turn toward the VOR/NDB , and request further instructions. What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach a visual approach is an IFR autorization while a contact approach is a VFR autorization a Visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach . when a speed adjustment is necesary to mantain separation , what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine powered aircraft operating below 10000 feet 200 knots 210 knots 250 knots. when a speed adjustment is necesary to mantain separation , what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine powered aircraft departing an airport 188 knots 210 knots 230 knots. if ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not whithin operating limits of the aircraft what action must the pilot take mantain an airpseed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible , then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC advice ATC of the Airspeed that will be used . when must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach at the DH when the Runway is not clearly visible when the time has no expired after reaching the DH and the runway enviroment is not clearly visible at the DH , if the visual references for the intended runway are not distincly visible or any time thereafter that visual reference is lost. assuming that old ILS components are operating and the required visual reference are not acquired , the missed approach should be initiated upon? arrival at the DH on the glide slope arrival at the visual descent point expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach . under which condition, if any , may a pilot descent below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach lights system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway ? under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for the descent below DH or MDA descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen the approach light system can be used as visual reference , except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable . what altitude is a pilot authorized to flight when cleared for an ILS approach ? the pilot: may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude must mantain the last assign altitude until stablished on a published route or segment of the approach which published altitudes may descent from the assing altitude only when stablished on the final approach course . what minimum ground visibilty may be used instead of prescribe visibilty criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported 1/4 SM 3/4 SM 3/8 SM. prescribe visibilty criteria of RVR 32 of the runway of intended operation is not reported. what minimum ground visibilty may be used instead of the RVR value? 3/8 SM 5/8 SM 3/4 SM . the visibilty criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40 . what minimum ground visibility may be used substituted for the VRV value 5/8 SM 3/4 SM 7/8 SM. when proceeding to the alternate airport , which minimums apply the IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP Book 2000-3 for the least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA the actual minimums shown on the chart of the airport . what action should a pilot take when a clearance is recieved from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation read the clearance back in its entirely request a clarification from ATC do not accept the clearence. ICAO holding Speeds?. where does the DME indicator has the greatest error between the ground distance and display distance to the VORTAC high altitudes close to the VORTAC low altitude close to the VORTAC low altitude Far from the VORTAC . What DME indicator should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12.000 ? 0 DME miles 2 DME miles 2.3 DME miles. what functions are provided by ILS azimuth distance and vertical angle azimuth, range , and vertical angle guidance , range , and visual information. within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate ? 108.10 to 118.10 MHZ 108.10 to 111.95 MHZ 108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. the lowest ILS category II minimums are DH 50 Feet and RVR 1200 Feet DH 100 Feet and RVR 1200 Feet DH 150 feet and rvr 1500 feet. what is the lowest category III a minimum ? DH 50 Feet RVR 1200 feet RVR 1000 feet RVR 700 feet. aircraft navigating by GPS are considered , on the flight plan to be RNAV equiped Astrotracker equiped FMS / EFIS equiped . assume that the reported weather conditions at the time of departure are 500 feet overcast , 2 miles visibility , and the wing is calm . if you determine that the climb performance for your airplane is 400 feet / Nm which runway should you choose for departure ? . when filing your flight plan , what code should you enter on the flight plan for the border 5 departure with julian transition? BRDR5.IPL BRDR5.JLI BFDR5.BROWS.JLI. if you depart runway 27 , what heading should you use until you reach PGY 19 DME ? . where does the basic portion of border 5 departure procedure end? at the POGGI VORTAC at BROWS interception At the IMPERIAL VORTAC. what is the departure control frequency for runway 09 at KSAN?. what is the length of the imperial transition ? 25 nm 64 nm 75 nm. if you depart runway 27 on the border 5 departure , imperial transition, what initial altitude can you expect ? 7000 feet at the POGGI VORTAC 7000 feet at the BROWS INT your initial altitude will be assign by the controller . what is the appropiated frequency to recieve advance information regarding instrument approach procedure in progress at san diego international airport . what is the elevation of san diego international airport? 150 Ft MSL 15 Ft MSL 14 Ft MSL. what is the minimum glide slope intercept altitude when you are inbound on the intermidiate approach segment ?. if you are executing ILS runway 09 , at what point will you initiated the miss approach procedure ?. if you are circling to land at 100 knots in a category A aircraft , what is the MDA (H) and visibility requirement ?. if the glide slope flag appears in your CDI after passing GATTO , what is the minimum altitude to which you can descend ? how can you identify the map ?. what is the expected duration of an individual microburst 5 minutes with maximum wings lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes 1 microburst may continue for as long as an hour seldom longer than 50 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation . maximum downdrafts in a microburst encontered maybe as strong as : 1500 ft/min 4500 ft/min 6000 ft/min. an aircraft that encounters a headwing of 40 knots , within a microburst may expect a total shear a cross the microburst of : 40 knots 80 knots 90 knots. which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a head windshears to a calm wind? indicated airpseed decreases , aircraft pitches up and altitude decreases indicated airspeed increases , aircraft pitches down , and altitude increases indicated airspeed decreases , aircraft pitches down , and altitude decreases . which condition would initially cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? sudden decrease in a headwing component tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity sudden increase in a headwing component . which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tail wind shears to a calm wind? altitude increases , pitch and indicated airspeed decrease altitude , pitch , and indicated airspeed decrease altitude , pitch , and indicated airspeed increase. what is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wingshear ? lower the pitch altitude and regain lost airspeed avoid overstresing the aircraft , " pitch to airspeed ", and apply maximum power maintain , or increase pitch altitude and accept , the lower than normal airspeed indications . which windshear condition results in a loss of airspeed? decreasing headwind or tailwind decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind . which windshear condition results in a increase of airspeed? increase tailwind and decreasing headwind increasing tailwind and headwind decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind . which is a definition of " Severe Wind Shear" any rapid change of horizontal windshear in excess of 25 knots , vertical shear expected any rapid change in wind direction of velocity which causes airspeed changes greated than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 Ft/min any rapid changes of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min. which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during take off when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity loss of , or Diminished , airspeed performance decrease take off distance increase climb performance inmediatly after takeoff . maximum downdraft in a microburst encounter may be a as strong as : 8000 ft/min 7000 ft/min 6000 ft/min. an aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots , within microburst may expect a total shear across the microburst off ? 40 knots 80 knots 90 knots. what is the expected duration of a individual microburst 2 minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute 1 microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours seldom longer than 50 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. what is a characteristic of troposphere? he contains all the moisture of the atmosphere there is an overall decrease of temperature with and increase of altitude the average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles . what is the primary cause of all changes in the air weather variations of solar energy at the earth surface changes in a air pressure over the air surface movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas . what characterizes a ground-based inversion ? convention currents at the surface cold temperatures poor visibilty . what feature is associated with a temperature inversion a estable layer of air a unestable layer of air air mass thunderstorms . when does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24 hour period ? after sunrise about 1 hour before sunrise at midnight . which area or areas of the northen hemisphere experience a generally east west movement of weather systems artic only artic and subtropical subtropical only . at lower levels of the atmosphere ,friction causes the wind to flow a cross isobars into a low because the friction decreases windspeed and coreolis force decreases pressure gradient force creates airtur bulence and rises atmospheric pressure . which type of wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer land breeze valley wind katabatic wind . what is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes descending to the surface and then outward moving outward from the high at high altitudes and in to the high at surface . where is the usual location of a termal low over the artic region over the eye of a hurricane over the surface of a dry , sunny region. freezing rain encounter during climb is normally evidence that : a climb can be made to higher altitude without encountering more than light icing a layer of warmer air exists above ice pallets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below . what temperature conditions is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude the temperature is above freezing at higher altitude where is an inversion with colder air below . what terms describes an elongated area of low pressure trough ridge hurricane or typhon . what is an importante characteristic of windshear it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms it is usually exist only in the vecinity of thunderstorms , but may be found near a strong temperature inversion it may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere . what information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission ?
" SOUTH BOUNDERY WIND 160 AT 25 , WEST BOUNDERY WIND 240 AT 35 " A downburst is located at the center of the airport wake turbulance exists on the west side of active runway there is a possibilty of windshear over or near the airport . where is a common location for an inversion ? at the tropopause in the stratosphere at the base of cumulus clouds. what condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface - based temperature inversion ? the movement og colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression terrestial radiation on a clear, ralatively calm night . which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed ? katabatic advention adiabatic. what is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope ? 3º per 1000 feet 2º per 1000 feet 4º per 1000 feet. isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: at the surface reduced to sea level at a given atmospheric pressure altitude . At which location does coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction ? at the poles middle latitudes (30º to 60º) at the equator . how does coriolis force affect wind direction in the southern hemisphere? causes clockwise rotation around a low causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high has exactly the same effect as in the northem hemisphere. which conditions result in the formation of frost ? the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling ? dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temeprature is lower than the air temperature temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing . when will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces ? on clear nights with stable air and light winds on overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation on clear nights with convective action and a small temperature- dewpoint spread . what is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased? the air is unstable a temperature inversion exists the air is stable . which process causes adiabatic cooling ? expansion of air as it raises movement of air over a colder surface release of latent heat during the vaporization process . when saturate air moves downhill, its temperature increases: at a faster than dry air because of the realese of latent heat at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat at a slower rate than dry air because condesation releases heat . which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable ? the parcel of air resists convention the parcel of air cannot be forced uphill as the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer the the surrounding air . Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight ? Freezing rain Clear air turbulance Embedded thunderstorms . which type of clouds are indicative of very strong turbulance ? nimbostratus standing lenticular cirrocumulus . which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes throught a front into the colder air? temperature- dewpoint spread decreases wind direction shifts to the left atmospheric pressure increases. what minimun thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity? 4,000 feet thick 2,000 feet thick a thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher then the freezing level. which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake ? warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers . which weather phenomenon signals the begining of mature stage of a thunderstorm? the appearance of an anvil top the start of rain at the surface growth rate of the cloud is at its maximun . During the life cycle of a thuntherstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrefts? cumulus dissipating mature . what feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? beginning of rain at the surface frequent lightining continuous updraft . what is indicated by the term ¨embedded thunderstorms¨? severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds . where do squall lines most often develop ? in an occluded front ahead of a cold front behind a stationary front . where can a the maximun hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found ? In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value: during the dowdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorms is approaching immidiately after the rain shower have stopped . Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous ? Downdraft are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity dowdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface downdrafts become warmer then the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface . When advention fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? temperature inversion wind stronger then 15 knots surface radiation . How are haze layers cleared of dispersed? by convective mixing in cool night air by wind or the movement of air by evaporation similar to the clearing of fog . which type cloud is associated with violent turbulance and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds ? Cumulonimbus mamma Standing Lenticular stratocumulus . when flying over the top of severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least : 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed 2,500 feet 500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulance layer . which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band ? squall line advective fog frontogenesis . under what conditions would clear air turbulance (CAT) most likely be encountered? when constant pressure charts show 20- knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart when constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20NM apart when a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots . in comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind , which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope less power is required higher pitch attitude is required lower descent rate is required. what condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight supercooled water drops water vapor visible water. which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? wet snow freezing rain ice pellets. which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low level stratus clouds? clear ice frost ice rime ice. which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low.level temperature inversion wind shear? the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10º C. a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion a wind direction difference of at least 30º between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. what is the lowest cloud in the stationary group asociated with a mountain wave? rotor cloud standing lenticular low stratus. where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts? the jetstream is located north of the surface systems the jetsream is located south of the low and warm front the jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front. which type frontal system is normally crossed by jetstream? cold front and warm front warm front occluded front. which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream? cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream. which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly change occurs to fly on the polar side of the jetstream change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated area. which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence? descend if ambient temperature is falling descend if ambient temperature is rising maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing . clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as . 1000 miles or more downstream of the mountain 5000 feet above the tropopause 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain . turbulence encountered above 15.000 feet AGL not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as : convective turbulence high altitude turbulence clear air turbulence. what is likely location of clear air turbulence ? in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur? in the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located on the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds. which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? a straght jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge a jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing a curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough. where are jetstream normally located? in areas of strong low pressure system in the stratosphere at the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located in a single continuous band , encircling the earth, where there is a break. which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA? low-level Prog Chart radar summary and weather depiction charts. Terminal aerodrome forecast. weather conditions expected to occur in the civinity of the airport , but not at the airport are denoted by the letters "VC" when VC appears in a terminal aerodrome forecast, it covers a geographical area of: a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex 10 miles of the station originating the forecast. which are the only cloud types forecast in the terminal aerodrome forecast altocumuls cumulonimbus stratocumulus. what weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway . what type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two thirds of the time? occasional light chop moderate chop intermittent light turbulence . SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 B 25M+SHRA SCT005BKN03 OVC050CB24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA.
This SPECI report at galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition? wind steady at 100º magnetic at 12 knots gust to 21 precipitation started at 57 after the hour 5000 feet overcast with towering cumulus. METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44
which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at midland (KMAF) ? rain of unknow intensiti ended 16 minutes before the hour the ceiling was at 25000 feet MSL wind was 020º magnetic at 20 knots. METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM + RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000
Which change took place at Wichita falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC? the rain became lighter atmospheric pressure increased a funnel cloud was observed. METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001 SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM+TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDH RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC
What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO) the ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour visiblity reduced to IFR conditions. a PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probabilty of: thunderstorms or other precipitation precipitation or low visibility thunderstorms or high wind. which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? increased stall speed increased pitchup tendencies Increased angle of attack for stalls. the purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to : raise the eutectic point decrease the freeze point increase the minimum freezing poing (onset of crystallization). Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process? heated type 1 fluid followed by cold type 2 fluid cold type 2 fluid followed by hot type 2 fluid heated type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold type 1 fluid. which is an effect of ice, snow , or frost formation on an airplane? increased stall speed increased pitchdown tendencies increased angle of attack for stalls. Freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing provide ice protection during flight are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only on the ground , cause no performance degradation during takeoff. Test data indicate that ice, snow , or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can; redufe lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent. sno on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids: need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft must be considered as adgering to the aircraft must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off. The adverse effects of ice, snow , or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and : increased thrust a decreased stall speed an increased stall speed. what is the effect of freezing point depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades? cold cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power it can increase performance and cause stalls or surges it can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls . A calm wind that is forecast, in the international terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF) is encoded as? VRB00KT 00000KT 00003KT. In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) , a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. a calm wind appears in the TAF as? 00003kt VRB00KT 00000KT. The prevailing visibilty in the following METAR is :
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK A02$ less than 1/4 statute mile measured 1/4 statue mile a mean (average) of 1/a statute mile. the VV001 in the following metar indicates? Metar KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25-70600V1000FT- VV001 A2989 RMK A02 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 An observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet A 100 foot indefinite ceiling the variability value its 100 feet . What is the hijack code? 7200 7500 7777. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different position on the airport is reported? light and variable. wind shear frontal passage. what minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? anytime the pilot is dooubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety when fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority when distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. what is a sympton of carbon monoxide posoning? rapid, shallow breathing pain and cramping of the hands and feet dizziness. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A stressful situation causing anxiety the excessive consumption of alcohol An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. What causes hypoxia excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere an increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes a decrease of oxygen partial pressure. which is a common sympton of hyperventilation Tingling of the hands, legs , and feet. increased vision keenness decreased breathing rate. Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases? the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased the percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased oxygen partial pressure is decreased. hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? insufficient oxygen reaching the brain excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach: altitude may be higher than it appears altitude may be lower than it appears may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as? inversion illusion autokinesis somatogravic illusion. In the dark, a stationary light will appera to move when started at for a period of time . This illusion is known as? somatogravic illusion Ground lighting illusion autokinesis. When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibilty of illusion . the approach amy appear to be too? high low shallow. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases. small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgement and decision making abbilities alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffe. a pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when? ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial desorientation reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. rely on the kinesthetic sense rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. what is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? look only at far away dim lights scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing concentrate directly on each object for a few second. while making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. this is known as? autokinesis coriolis illusion the leans. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? Heavy slow, gear and flaps up Heavy slow , gear and flaps down Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down . hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is? developing lift operating at high airspeeds using high power settings. wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to? sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began . how does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? inward , upward , and around the wingtip counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft outward, upward , and around the wintgtip. what effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? the upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex a crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both voritces the downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. to avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should? lift off at a point well past the jet airplane`s flightpad climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane`s flightpath remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane. what wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? direct tailwind light quartering tailwnid light quartering headwind. if you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed you should plan to lift off? prior to the point where the jet touched down beyond the point where the jet touched down at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. a person may not act as a crewmember of a cibil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding 8 hours 12 hours 24 hours. if a pilots is being radar vectores inIFR conditions and losses radio communications wit ATC, what action should be taken? fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on top Fly directly to a fix enroute or airway specified in the vector clearance. a pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. when should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? at the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC at the EFC time as amended by ATC. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination you cannot acept any undue delay? this will ensure your priority handling by ATC ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency If you remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing , declarean emergency due to nlow fuel and report fuel remaining minutes. haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is? closer to the runway than it actually is farther from the runway than it actually is the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility. sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of? pitching up pitching down leveling off. what illusion , if any , can rain on the windscreen create? does not cause illusions lower than actual higher than actual. to allow pilots of in trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustment to avoid make turbulence , pulots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly? below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.