Daypito 2267

1. Question: Under normal flight conditions, which generator supplies power to AC ESS BUS?. external AC. ADG. APU. GEN 1.

. Question: AC BUS 1 develops an electrical short. Which of the following will occur?. autotransfer is inhibited. IDG automatically disconnects. autotransfer is engaged. pilot initiates manual transfer.

Question: The ADG automatically deploys... when autotransfer is inhibited. when generating sources of AC power are unavailable. if the demand for AC is higher than normal. if the PWR TXFER OVERRIDE switch is selected.

Question: Click on the location of the three fuel tanks. Right Tank. Center Tank. Left Tank.

Question: The primary, status and fuel synoptic pages are used to monitor the Fuel System. True. False.

Question: What is the total pressure refuel quantity?. 6585 kg. 9070 kg. 6307 kg. 4719 kg.

Question: Fuel Flow is found on the... primary page. fuel synoptic page. primary and fuel synoptic pages.

Question: Bulk fuel temperature is found on the... primary page. fuel synoptic page. primary and fuel synoptic pages.

Question: Total fuel quantity is found on the... primary page. fuel synoptic page. primary and fuel synoptic pages.

Question: From the list of areas with fire detection systems, identify the four areas that are equipped with Halon fire bottles. main landing gear bay. lavatory. cargo compartment. engine. APU.

Question: The switchlights for activating the fire bottles in the event of an engine or APU fire are located on the... CARGO FIREX control panel. right and left glareshields. LDG GEAR control panel. FIRE DETECTION/FIRE MONITOR control panel.

Question: If the pilot presses the left FIRE PUSH switchlight, the left fire bottle discharges into the engine. True. False.

Question: Does the main landing gear bay have a fire detection and extinguishing system?. Yes. No.

Question: True or False: If the pilot selects either illuminated BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight, Halon under pressure is released from both cargo bay FIREX bottles. True. False.

Question: True or False: When smoke has been detected in the lavatory, only the cabin crew are alerted. True. False.

Question: Which statement best describes the Canadair Regional Jet fuel tanks?. two wet wing design tanks with optional wing tip tanks for extended ranges. four fuel tanks of which two are wet wing designed tanks and two are collector tanks. three integral-type fuel tanks located in the wings and center fuselage wing box structure. two wet wing design fuel tanks and one collector tank sealed with fuel resistant sealant.

Question: With all systems operating normally, which statement is false?. the fuel computer enables fuel distribution to be automatic. one channel of the fuel system computer is active. the fuel computer continuously performs a Built-In-Test (BITE) of the fuel computer system. channel one of the fuel computer calculates fuel weight and density and channel two calculates fuel temperature.

Question: On which EICAS displays can the pilot monitor the Fuel System?. menu, primary and status pages. primary, fuel synoptic and status pages. fuel synoptic page only. menu, maintenance diagnostic and fuel synoptic pages.

Question: Using pressure refueling, the center tank can be filled to a maximum of: 2164 kg. 2267 kg. 227 kg. 408 kg.

Question: The fuel tanks are vented by: venturi vents on the upper trailing surface of the wing. one-way valves on the wing ribs. interconnecting vent lines and low drag vents. pressure air flow through the gravity filler caps.

Question: Shortly after takeoff, you notice that the center tank quantity readout has increased by 91 kg. This is caused by... an inaccurate indication from the fuel computer. fuel trapped in the vent lines that has been diverted into the center tank. the fact that fuel computer data for the center tank is only accurate on the ground. wing tank imbalance that has activated fuel transfer.

Question: The main, scavenge and transfer ejectors are powered by... low pressure fuel. DC power. motive flow pressure. hydraulic pressure.

Question: With the fuel pump switchlights selected on, what is the function of the boost pumps?. to supply fuel for engine starting and serve as backup pumps to the main ejectors. to remain inactive until transfer of fuel is required. to provide fuel balance by pumping fuel from one tank to the other tank. to supply fuel from the wing tanks to the APU.

Question: What does the APU fuel feed and fuel crossflow have in common?. both provide fuel balance between wing tanks. fuel movement for both is provided by the XFLOW / APU pump. in the event of a main ejector failure, both provide an alternative source of fuel. both are initiated by the fuel computer when wing tank fuel levels are low.

Question: If the APU fuel pump fails, an alternative fuel source for the APU is... the right engine fuel feed manifold. not available. the left engine fuel feed manifold. gravity feed.

Question: Which of the following statements best describes the function of the APU compressor?. air is bled off from the radial turbine for the 14th stage bleed air manifold. compressed air is delivered to the 14th stage bleed air manifold. supplies compressor bleed air to the 10th stage pneumatic systems. a fixed geometry diffuser regulates compressor speed.

Question: How is the "accessory gearbox" portion of the APU powered?. the power section supplies electrical power. the accessory gearbox is powered mechanically from the power section. the accessory gearbox is mechanically driven from the main engine. bleed air is used to drive the accessory gearbox.

Question: The APU inlet door positions are closed, mid and open. Which of the door positions are displayed on the EICAS?. all. none. two - mid and open. two - closed and open.

Question: With the plane on the ground and the APU operating, the inlet door is commanded to the.. full open position. mid position. closed position.

Question: In flight the position of the inlet door is controlled by: FCU. LCV. SOV. ECU.

Question: Will the APU automatically shutdown to protect itself? (Conditions: in flight / APU operating / Generator 1 unserviceable / APU OIL TEMP caution message.). Yes. No.

Question: After landing, does the APU automatically shutdown?. Yes. No.

Question: Did the APU LCV open? (Conditions: in flight / left & right engines supplying 10th stage bleed air / APU operating.). Yes. No.

Question: Identify the control panel that contains the switch for the Cargo Bay Environmental Control System. CABIN PRESS control panel. AIR-CONDITIONING control panel. ELECTRICAL POWER SERVICES control panel. BLEED AIR control panel.

Question: If smoke is detected in the cargo bay, the recirculating SOV automatically closes. True. False.

Question: When an overheat condition is detected in the aft cargo bay, the heat is de-energized. Yes. No.

Question: The duct area between the engine and the engine bleed air shutoff valve is monitored by the Bleed Air System. True. False.

Question: All Hydraulic System components are represented on the hydraulic synoptic page. True. False.

Question: During ground operations, activation of which Hydraulic System is required to close the nose gear doors?. System 1. System 2. System 3. System 1 & 2.

Question: How is the fluid in Hydraulic Systems 1 & 2 cooled during ground operations?. an electric fan draws air from the cabin across the heat exchanger. ram air naturally flows across the heat exchanger. an electric fan draws air from the ram air duct and discharges it across the heat exchanger. the hydraulic fluid does not require cooling.

Question: If the Roll Disconnect System is activated due to an aileron cable jam. Control of the on-side spoileron is available... automatically by the spoiler electronic control unit (SECU). when either pilot selects the illuminated ROLL SEL switchlight. once the SECU illuminates the PLT SEL switchlight. when the pilot with aileron control selects the ROLL SEL switchlight.

Question: What happens when the pilot with the operable aileron and spoileron selects the illuminated ROLL SEL switchlight?. The control cable is split and each pilot controls an aileron and a spoileron. Roll control is provided by one aileron and both spoilerons. The pilot controls the onside aileron and the cross-side spoileron. The SECU automatically provides the pilot with both ailerons and spoilerons.

Question: A failed aileron flutter damper is displayed on the primary page and the hydraulic synoptic page. True. False.

Question: Flight spoilers provide... assistance when roll is required and are part of the ground lift dumping (GLD) on the ground. speed braking and lateral stabilizing. speed braking in flight and GLD on the ground. assist the spoilerons and ailerons.

Question: The GND LIFT DUMPING Switch is in AUTO and the left and right N2 are at 86%. Is the Ground Lift Dumping System now armed?. Yes. No.

Question: Select the statement that describes when N1 vibration gauges are displayed. when engine core vibration exceeds pre-determined value. continuously when both engines are running and oil pressures are normal.

Question: Oil pressure indications are presented on the primary page shown to the right. Why are the oil pressure analogue gauges presented?. There are no analogue gauges only digital oil pressure readouts. The engines are running and oil pressure is within normal range. Oil pressure analogue gauges are only presented on the status page.

Question: Engine oil temperature indications are presented on the primary page only. True. False.

Question: EICAS components and displays receive information from the... cockpit voice recorder. DCU. CRTs. FMS.

Question: Click on the item below that is associated with the triple chime. caution message. warning message.

Question: When EICAS displays an amber message the... master warning light flashes. associated control shuts down. master caution light flashes. triple chime sounds.

Question: If a white light or switchlight is illuminated on a control panel... a white status message appears on an EFIS display. an accompanying white status message will appear on the status page. the pilot must take immediate action. white messages are inhibited during normal flight.

Question: From the list below, identify the item that is only displayed on the MFD. airspeed. heading. altitude. flight director. radar. attitude.

Question: Identify the panel used to set the barometric altitude. air data reference panel. flight control panel. reversionary display panel. display control panel.

Question: Identify the panel used to access cross-side NAV data. air data reference panel. flight control panel. reversionary display panel. display control panel.

Question: High integrity, 3-axis, rate and acceleration information is generated by the... IAPS. AHRS. EFIS. AFCS.

Question: The mode for normal AHRS operation is DG. Yes. No.

Question: Based on the primary flight display shown, is AHRS alignment complete?. Yes. No.

Question: From the following list below, identify 3 formats that can be displayed on the MFD with the MFD FORMAT knob. HSI. status. NAV sector map. FMS present position map. PFD. TCAS.

Question: From the list below, select the MFD formats that can NOT display the weather radar or terrain information. NAV sector map. HSI. FMS map. FMS plan. radar.

Question: Channel 1 of the three channel DME is selected from the... air data reference panel (ARP). FMS. radio tuning unit (RTU). radar control panel.

Question: The control panel used to select the ADF display is the... display control panel (DCP). air data reference panel (ARP). reversionary panel. audio control panel.

Question: Navaid sector is the only MFD format that can display the ADF pointers. True. False.

Question: From the list below, identify one of the functions of the EGPWS. permits VHF navigation to be retuned to a new station. alerts the flight crew of impending ground contact. supplies en route and terminal area guidance information. provides 3-dimensional position information from satellites in space.

Question: Identify the flight deck panel that provides EGPWS visual warnings. radar control panel. radar control panel. radio tuning unit (RTU). left and right glareshields.

Question: What indication will inform the pilots that FCC 2 has determined the conditions are correct for a pilot selected flight director mode?. left status light of the selected mode button illuminates green. right status light of the selected mode button illuminates green. both status lights of the selected mode button illuminate green.

Question: From the list below, select the source that DOES NOT provide AC power. APU generator. air driven generator. transformer rectifier units. IDG.

All AC and DC information is displayed on the primary page, AC synoptic page and DC synoptic page. yes. no.

Circuit breaker panel 1, 2, and 5 are located in the flight deck. True. False.

The external AC power cart connection is indicated... on the primary page. on the status page. on the AC synoptic page. on the AC synoptic page and status page.

If GEN 2 fails, will all AC electrical buses remain powered?. yes. no.

If you start the APU and select the APU generator ON, will the AC BUS 2 continue to be supplied by generator 1?. Yes. No.

Conditions: aircraft in flight / AC BUS 1 shorted /GEN 1 off-line Will GEN 2 power AC BUS 1?. Yes. no.

Conditions: aircraft in flight / AC BUS 1 shorted / GEN 1 off-line Will AC BUS 1 be powered if the APU is started and the APU generator selected to on?. Yes. No.

Condition: in flight / all buses powered normally If TRU 2 fails, DC BUS 2 becomes unpowered. True. False.

Conditions: aircraft in flight / all buses powered / ESS TRU2 failed If the ESS TIE switchlight is pressed will the SERV TRU act as a backup for the DC ESS BUS?. Yes. No.

Question: An overheat detection unit and single detector loops are used to monitor the main landing gear. True. False.

Two fire bottles and two smoke detectors are the components that make up the... Main Landing Gear Overheat Detection System. Cargo Compartment Fire Protection System. Lavatory Smoke Detection System. Engine Fire and Overheat Detection System.

In the event of a cargo fire, indications are presented in the cockpit as a red SMOKE CARGO message on the primary display and as 2 illuminated red CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlights on the... CARGO FIREX control panel. right and left glareshields. LDG GEAR control panel. FIRE DETECTION/FIRE MONITOR control panel.

A fire bottle and a smoke detector provide fire protection for the lavatory. true. false.

To relieve the build up of air pressure generated by the refueling process, the fuel tanks are vented through interconnecting vent lines and NACA scoops. True. False.

The center fuel tank quantity readouts may increase... when the aircraft is descending. upon landing. when ram air is supplying positive pressure on the fuel tanks. during climb as fuel may enter the center tank from the vent system.

System testing prior to refueling occurs at the... FUEL control panel. magnetic level indicators. refuel-defuel panel. miscellaneous test panel.

APU exhaust gas temperature data is used by the ECU to: schedule fuel and prevent auto shutdown in flight. control APU load control valve and determine fuel scheduling. monitor inter turbine temperature (ITT).

EGT indication are displayed on the status page. True. False.

The APU control system reduces bleed air flow when the EGT reaches the amber range. Why?. to give priority to the APU generator electrical loads. to allow engine bleed to take over the air load. to lower air conditioning pack inlet temperature.

APU load control valve interlock protection is built into the 10th stage bleed air switches of the BLEED AIR control panel. Why is this electrical control logic provided?. to prevent APU compressor stall or surge. to allow the APU and engines to simultaneously satisfy bleed air demands. to prevent Air Conditioning System shutdown.

The minimum battery voltage required to start the APU is 24 volts. True. False.

The Ignition System is de-energized when N2 pm is below 55%. True. False.

Which Ignition System uses a single ignitor?. start ignition. continuos ignition.

The emergency stow switchlight is illuminated and the left thrust lever has automatically been pulled back to idle. What has occurred?. the Thrust Reverser System has been used to assist in braking the aircraft. a rejected takeoff has occurred and the Anti-ice System has been disabled. a thrust reverser has deployed and the Thrust Retarder System has been engaged. the pilot has prepared for landing.

Which condition is NOT required for engine thrust reverser operation?. 14th stage bleed air is available. WOW signal confirming ground contact. associated THRUST REVERSER switch selected to ARM. hydraulic systems pressurized.

What is the maximum altitude the APU can be started?. 15,000 ft. 30,000 ft. 37,000 ft. 13,000 ft.

What is the primary purpose of the APU?. to supply pneumatic power for the flight and ground operation. to supply AC electrical power throughout the entire flight envelope. to supply pneumatic power for all environmental systems. to supply AC electrical power for the flight and ground operation.

Bleed air, supplied by the APU can be used to... start the engines up to 15,000 ft. operate the climate control system up to 25,000 ft. start the engines and operate the air conditioning with no altitude restrictions. start the engines up to 13,000 ft.

Which of the following synoptic pages provide information about APU operation?. fuel, ECS, AC electrical. AC electrical, hydraulic, anti-ice. fuel, doors, ECS.

If the right pack fails, how is the passenger cabin air conditioned?. ram air is used to ventilate the passenger compartment. the left pack supplies conditioned air at a lower volume to the passenger compartment. the passenger compartment is supplied with recirculated air from the flight deck. the right pack only supplies the flight deck.

During a flight emergency, ram air may be used to... cool the high temperature 10th stage manifold. ventilate the flight deck and passenger cabin. cool the high temperature 14th stage manifold air. ventilates the cargo and avionics bays.

Click on 3 items from the list below that will show ram air has been selected OPEN. primary page. CABIN PRESS control panel. status page. BLEED AIR control panel. ECS page. AIR-CONDITIONING control panel.

How many levels of supplementary galley heating are available?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

At a cabin altitude over 10,000 ft., the no smoking and seatbelt signs, when selected to AUTO, are activated by the: EICAS DCUS. air data computer. CPAM. PSEU.

Can the 14th stage isolation valve be operated if the wing anti-icing is off?. yes. no.

What is the failed-safe position of the 14th stage bleed air shutoff valve?. Open. Closed.

Hydraulic fluid is normally pressurized to... 1700 psi. 3300 psi. 2200 psi. 3000 psi.

Skydrol is hazardous because it is: highly flammable. highly corrosive. highly explosive.

Which statement correctly states the type of pumps that power Hydraulic System 1?. two EDPs. two ACMPs. one ACMP and the ADG. one EDP and one ACMP.

Which of the aircraft services below are powered by more than one Hydraulic System?. elevators, rudders and ailerons. nose landing gear and elevators. outboard brakes and spoilerons. main landing gear and inboard brakes.

What is the control(s) used to isolate an elevator cable jam?. rudder pedals and control wheel. ROLL SEL switchlight. ROLL DISC handle. PITCH DISC handle.

What mechanism isolates a jammed rudder control cable and permits control of the rudder using increased pedal force?. anti-jam breakout mechanism. pitch disconnect mechanism. load limiter mechanism. jam tolerant mechanism.

The yaw damper DISC pushbutton has been selected and the yaw dampers are disengaged. What control(s) re-engages both yaw dampers?. pressing the DISC pushbutton again. pressing YD 1 and YD 2 pushbuttons. the two-channel yaw damper computer will automatically re-engage the yaw dampers when needed. pressing either YD 1 or YD 2 pushbuttons.

Can the autopilot operate with only one yaw damper engaged?. Yes. No.

To prevent accidental movement, the flap lever has gates at... 0 and 45 degrees. 8 and 30 degrees. 20 and 45 degrees. 8 and 20 degrees.

if a single channel of the FECU fails, or a PDU motor fails, the flaps... operate normally. continue to operate but at half speed. have electrical power removed from the motors. return to the neutral position.

Flap extension and retraction are limited by the following airspeeds: 8 degrees 230 KIAS, 20 degrees 230 KIAS, 30 degrees 185 KIAS and 45 degrees 170 KIAS. a) True. b) false.

Conditions: manual flight - aileron jam has occurred / roll disconnect handle has been pulled to gain control of the aircraft / pilot flying is moving the flight controls Do you have control of both ailerons and spoilerons?. a) Yes. b) No.

Conditions: manual flight - aileron jam has occurred / roll disconnect handle has been pulled to gain control of the aircraft / pilot flying is moving the flight controls Does the Roll Disconnect System and ROLL SEL enable you to gain control of both ailerons and both spoilerons? Click on the correct answer below. Yes. No.

Conditions: aircraft on ground at end of runway / thrust levers advanced above 70% N1 If the STAB TRIM is not in the green band, will you get an EICAS message?. Yes. No.

The TCAS traffic advisory (TA) allows the flight crew to monitor an indication of an intruding aircraft. True. False.

From the list below, identify one of the functions of the EGPWS. permits VHF navigation to be retuned to a new station. alerts the flight crew of impending ground contact. supplies en route and terminal area guidance information. provides 3-dimensional position information from satellites in space.

Does the EICAS System provide automatic system monitoring?. yes. no.

What is the default page for ED 2?. status. primary. menu. synoptic.

Click on the response that correctly lists the four message types from highest priority to lowest priority. caution, advisory, warning, status. advisory, status, warning, caution. caution, warning, status, advisory. warning, caution, advisory, status.

Advisory messages are displayed on the primary page. yes. no.

What other alerts accompany an amber caution message?. single chime, flashing caution lights. single chime, flashing warning lights. triple chime, flashing caution lights. triple chime, flashing warning lights.

Selected warning and caution messages are inhibited during takeoff and landing. yes. no.

Conditions: during cruise flight The APU gauges are presented continuously on the status page. True. False.

The pilot can access the MDC information by selecting a red guarded switch. The switch is located on the circuit breaker panel behind the copilot's seat. True. False.

Conditions: aircraft in flight The standby attitude indicator can supply all navaid data. a) True. B) false.

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is used by the FMS as a.... radio transmitter. navigation sensor. traffic avoidance sensor. marker beacon receiver.

Where are the flight director modes displayed?. CDU. MFD 1 and MFD 2. FMA area of the PFD. EICAS primary page.

Does the flight control computer (FCC) provide steering guidance from the armed mode of the FMA?. yes. no.

ALT is altitude hold selected at the FCP and ALTS is a system capture of a preselected altitude. yes. no.

Prior to commencing takeoff, which FMA modes become active when either TOGA switch is selected?. HDG TO. TO IAS 150. TO TO.

What flight director mode maintains speed in a climb?. VS. XFR. PTCH. CLB.

Brake temperature information is displayed on the... hydraulic synoptic page. status and primary pages. AC electrical and hydraulic synoptic pages. primary and hydraulic synoptic pages.

Which EICAS page displays brake system faults?. DC electrical. status. AC electrical. primary.

Touch down protection is ... a condition needed for the Anti-skid System test. a braking indication presented on the hydraulic synoptic page. a feature of the Anti-skid System. associated with landing gear retraction.

The parking brake must be on prior to performing an anti-skid test. yes. no.

Can the pilot make all communications changes to the data presented on the main page of the RTU?. yes. no.

RTU 1 displays the information from COM 1, NAV 1, and ADF 1. This relationship is termed... logical. off-side. on-side. cross-side.

Is the displayed frequency in the PRE window, the active frequency?. a) Yes. b) no.

From the following list, click on the two items that are pneumatic anti-icing systems. windshields and windows. air data probes and sensors. wing leading edges. windshield wipers. ice detector probes. engine nose cowls.

The Ice and Rain Protection System uses hot 14th stage bleed air to anti-ice... (select all that apply). wing leading edges. horizontal stabilizer leading edges. vertical stabilizer leading edge. engine nose cowls.

A green ICE message on the status page indicates that the aircraft is still in icing conditions and... ice is building up on the wing. the Cowl Anti-icing System is being tested. Wing Anti-icing is ON and the leading edges are at an acceptable level. the Wing Anti-icing System is selected OFF.

Does the Cowl Anti-icing System need to be manually activated when ice is detected by the Ice Detector System?. yes. no.

Do the flight deck side windows de-mist when the LH WSHLD and RH WSHLD switches are selected to LOW?. yes. no.

The higher heat schedule for the flight deck windshield is normally used... on initial start of de-icing. when the low temperature setting cannot shed accumulated ice. at cruise altitude only. when the side windows will not de-mist.

When either pilot selects wiper operation from their side panel... pilot side switch selection has priority. only the wiper for the side selected operates. both wipers will operate at the selected speed. high speed is automatically selected if the flaps are down.

The wing inspection lights are controlled at the... LANDING LTS panel. EXTERNAL LTS panel. MISC LTS panel. pilot's light panel.

Activation of the emergency lighting system DOES NOT cause the illumination of... exit signs. ceiling floodlights. floor level lights. boarding lights.

Are the emergency lights controlled at the EMERG LTS control panel and the forward attendant panel?. yes. no.

How often must the flight management computer data base be updated?. once a month. every 28 days. every 24 hours. once a week.

The FMC DBU (data base unit) is... mounted in the flight deck only. a remote portable unit only. manually updated by data entry personnel. either flight deck mounted or a portable unit.

FMS data can be displayed on the PFD and all MFD formats. yes. no.

Click on the 5 functions of the FMS from the list below. manage the primary flight controls. radio tuning. flight planning. backup of emergency alternate routes. navigation sensor management. performance calculations. manage emergency communications. flight director steering commands.

When the next way point in the flight plan is approached... the waypoint identifier flashes and the pilot sequences the next leg in the flight plan. the waypoint identifier flashes then the FMS sequences the next leg in the flight plan. the pilot enters the next set of steering commands.

When the FMS is controlling a turn for the CRJ200, does the flight management computer do a continuous calculation to avoid overshoot?. yes. no.

Which mode would the pilot choose to estimate fuel consumption for the entire flight plan?. measured mode. predicted mode.

Protective breathing equipment consists of a... passenger service unit (PSU). portable oxygen bottle. crew mask / regulator unit. smoke hood.

Is the air regeneration process started automatically when the user puts the smoke hood on?. yes. no.

Portable oxygen bottles may be used for... supplying air to the crew mask/regulating units. recharging passenger service units (PSUs). supplying oxygen to the smoke hoods. administering first aid.

Halon vapours from the fire extinguishers can cause... headaches and nausea. dizziness and reduced mental sharpness. no harm to the passengers or crew. blurred vision.

How are indications of unsafe aft equipment bay door operations different from the avionics and cargo bay doors?. no indications exist for the aft equipment bay. indications for the avionics and cargo bay door are displayed on the door synoptic page only. aft equipment bay indications include only status lpd caution messages. avionics and cargo bay door indications include only warning messages.

The Cargo Bay Door, Avionics Door and the AFT equipment bay door are all monitored by the PSEU. yes. no.