|Which air supplies can pressurize the potable water tank? All engines and the APU. Engines 1 and 2 only. Engines 3 and 4 only. All engines only.
How are the engine air valves controlled? Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated. Electrically controlled and operated. Pneumatically controlled and operated. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized by the air supply system? To enable the hydraulic fluid to reach the correct pressure. To prevent cavitation. The hydraulic reservoirs are not pressurized by air. To provide backup pressure if the hydraulic pressure falls below 50psi.
What happens if electrical or pneumatic power is lost to an air conditioning pack valve? The valve remains in the position at the time of power loss The valve closes The valve opens The valve transits between open and closed as air pressure from the engines varies.
What is correct regarding air conditioning packs? Pack 1 is supplied from the right side engines. Pack 1 is supplied from the left side engines. Pack 1 is called the yellow system. Pack 2 is supplied from the left side engines.
What happens if the air pressure supplied from the engines becomes too high? Nothing. The engine air valve will be automatically shut and latched shut. A regulator valve reduces the pressure. A non return valve prevents the high pressure to reach any vital services.
How many boost pumps are required to maintain full fuel pressure to all of the engines? There must be at least one boost pump per wing operating. Four. One boost pump can feed all four engines. Two, provided centre tank transfer is not required.
What connects the fuel supply from one wing to the engines on the other wing? The cross feed valve. The relevant common feed valve. Centre tank transfer valves. The refuel line.
Is it possible to check the fuel state of the aircraft when there is no power? No. Only if the batteries are turned on. Only if a ground power unit is connected. Yes. The button above the PEDs works provided the battery is connected.
When does the refuel selected light illuminate on the flight deck fuel panel? When either the refuel panel door is opened or the refuel master switch is turned on. When the aircraft is on the ground only and the refuel door is opened. When the aircraft is on the ground and the refuel master switch is not off. When the defuel valve is electrically in the wrong position.
If all the boost pumps fail how are the jet pumps powered? They are not powered and you must land within 23 minutes. By yellow powered standby pumps. By green powered standby pumps. By the standby generator.
How can jet pumps be powered? The standby pumps. The inner boost pump. Fuel flow from a boost or standby pump. Air pressure generated via the NACA duct.
How is the low pressure fuel supply to the engine cut off in an emergency? Mechanically, by pulling the appropriate fire handle. By an electrical emergency fuel shut off valve. By a hydraulically operated automatic fuel shut off. By closing the appropriate thrust lever.
How is fuel transferred from the centre tank? It is pumped out by the centre tank boost pumps. It is sucked out by two jet pumps normally powered by flow from the inner feed tank
boost pumps. Engine air pressure forces it out into the wings, governed by a float valve. It is sucked out by two jet pumps normally powered by flow from the standby pumps.
If power to the boost pumps fails, how are the jet pumps powered? The hydraulically powered standby pumps power the 4 inner feed tank jet pumps only. The jet pumps are not powered, gravity flow alone is used. The jet pumps are powered by yellow system hydraulics. The standby generator is the alternative power supply to the boost pumps.
What would you expect to see on the standby gear position indicators after the battery is
switched on? All indicators show red. No indication when pressed. Each indicator shows green when pressed. Each indicator shows green when pressed, or red if the gear is unsafe.
What other warnings on the flight deck accompany the INTAKE 4 LOW PRESS
annunciator on the overhead panel? Amber attention getters and a single chime. Red and amber attention getters, system repeater, bright up and triple chime. Amber attention getters, system repeater and bright up. Amber attention getters, system repeater, bright up, and a single chime.
If we get an APU fire with PULL GRND OP selected, how can the fire bell be cancelled?
It can only be cancelled by putting out the fire. By pressing either red attention getter. By pressing any attention getter. It cannot be cancelled because the red alert attention getters are suppressed.
How should an EDP normally be isolated from its services? By closing the isolation valve. By moving the thrust lever to the fuel off position. By pulling the fire handle and closing the isolation valve. By pulling the fire handle.
Which services are supplied by both the yellow and green systems at the same time? Rudder, lift spoilers and brakes. Flaps, rudder and brakes. Brakes, roll spoiler, rudder and flaps. Flaps, rudder and lift spoilers.
Which system is normally used for the brakes? Yellow. Green. Both. AC pump.
What provides back-up in the event of EDP 2 failure? DC pump. AC pump. PTU. PTU and DC pump.
What provides back-up in the event of EDP 3 failure? AC pump. DC pump. PTU. AC pump and DC pump.
Why should the AC pump not be used to top up the brake pressure during engine start? Because AC power is not always available. It cannot supply enough pressure. It would oppose the pressure being generated by the EDP. Because of the very large electrical load.
If a fluid loss occurs in the green system, how can fluid loss be avoided from the yellow
system? No need for any action on the yellow system. By turning off the PTU. By closing the green isolation valve. By turning off the AC pump.
If only the PTU is powering the green system, which services will be lost? All green services. Non essential yellow services. Brakes. Standby Generator.
If the yellow system fluid was lost because of a roll spoiler leak, what services can the DC
pump power? Brakes, gear and flaps. Brakes and emergency gear lock down. Brakes only. Brakes, gear and air brakes.
If the aircraft batteries are the only power supply, will the DC pump work? No. Yes. Yes, if the voltage is 28v minimum. Yes if the accumulators are charged.
What is the function of the accumulator in the green system? To provide emergency pressure in the event of EDP 3 failure. To provide green brake pressure in the event of EDP 2 failure. To provide a rapid start of the standby generator. To pressurise the green reservoir.
What can the accumulator in the yellow system provide pressure for? Brakes. Gear lowering. Gear lowering and brakes. To provide a rapid start for the standby generator.
The aircraft is fitted with a standby generator. What drives the standby generator? A hydraulic motor powered by the yellow system A separate battery The engine generators A hydraulic motor powered by the green system.
Which are the normal power supplies for the AC busbars? Generator 1 and 4. Generator 1 and the APU generator. External AC power. Generator 1 and 2.
Which is the highest priority power supply if the engine generators are not available? External AC power APU generator Standby hydraulic generator Standby inverter.
Which busbars comprise AC channel 1? AC BUS 1, essential AC and emergency AC AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 Essential AC and emergency AC AC BUS 1 and essential AC.
When will the green EXT PWR AVAILABLE annunciator illuminate on the overhead
control panel? When external AC power is connected to the aircraft and selected on. Immediately external AC power is connected to the aircraft irrespective of the supply
quality. When external AC power is connected to the aircraft. When external AC power is connected to the aircraft, and will turn off when it is
Which busbars can be supplied from the standby inverter? Emergency AC only. Essential and emergency AC. Essential and emergency DC. Essential DC only.
Which busbar is the battery normally charged from? Emergency DC Essential DC DC Bus 1 DC Bus 2.
What supplies the left air system? Engines 1 and 2 only. Engines 3 and 4, or the APU. Engines 1 and 2, or the APU. Engines 3 and 4 only.
Which busbars can the APU generator supply power to in flight? AC bus 1 or AC bus 2 AC bus 1 only AC bus 2 only AC bus 1 and AC bus 2.
When is the APU normally used to supply the air conditioning system? In the cruise. On the ground only; APU air should not be used in flight. Only when the APU generator is not being used. On the ground, and during take-off and landing.
If the APU generator is to be used for engine starting, what should you ensure? That only a single air conditioning pack is used. That APU air is off. That CABIN AIR is set to RECIRC. That EGT is monitored for a temperature exceedance.
When will an APU fire warning shut the APU down? On the ground only. In flight only. On the ground or in flight. Only on test.
What does APU PWR AVAILABLE indicate? That the APU is operating at governed speed. That the APU is supplying bleed air for air conditioning. That the APU generator is supplying power to the busbars. That the APU control switch is selected to START.
When should APU air be selected ON? As soon as APU START is selected. As soon as the APU reaches governed speed. One minute after the APU reaches governed speed, provided that the APU generator
is not being used. One minute after the APU reaches governed speed.
When is it acceptable to leave APU air on during an engine start? When CABIN AIR is selected to RECIRC. When only a single pack is being used. When there is a likelihood of a hot start. When the APU generator is not being used.
Where is fuel to the APU normally supplied from? The left inner feed tank. Any of the feed tanks. The left or right inner feed tank. The left outer feed tank.
Where can the water tank be pressurized from? From APU air or ground supply only. From ground supply only. From engines 2 and 3 only. From any engine, or APU, or by ground charge.
What protection is provided to prevent water freezing in the supply pipes whilst in flight? No protection is needed as the water pipes are warmed by the air conditioning system. All water pipes are insulated. Electrical pipe heaters, controlled from the forward cabin attendants’ panel. A water heater is fitted in the potable water tank to protect against freezing.
What facilities for completely draining the water from the aircraft are provided? No facilities for draining the aircraft are fitted. The fill/drain and overflow valve will allow water to drain. The fill/drain valve, overflow valve and rear drain valve will allow water to drain. The fill/drain valve will allow water to drain.
When on ground the screen heaters are reduced to: A screen heaters reduced to one third power and B screen heaters to 25% power. A screen heaters remain at 100% power and B screen heaters 33% power. A screen heaters reduced to one third power and B screens have the same power as
in the air. A screen reduced to approximately 40% power and B screens the same as in the air.
Name all the areas of the aircraft which are anti-iced by hot air: The entire leading edges of both wings ant the leading edge of the tail. The inner section of each wing leading edge, inboard of numbers 2 and 3 pylons, and
the leading edge of the tail. The outer section of each wing leading edge, outboard of numbers 2 and 3 pylons, and
the leading edge of the tail. The entire leading edges of both wings, the leading edge of the tail, and the leading
edge of the fin.
Following a disconnection of the aileron circuits, why is the AILERON DISCONNECT T-handle
pulled? To reconnect the aileron circuits. To reconnect the aileron circuits.
b. To mechanically disconnect the collapsible strut connecting the handwheels. To connect the free aileron to both handwheels. To ensure that the disconnect device in the aileron interconnect circuit has operated.
Following an instinctive breakout of the elevator circuit, why is it important to pull the ELEV
PULL DISCONNECT T-handle? To permanently disconnect the control columns to prevent them from reconnecting
when they are re-aligned In order to be able to reconnect the elevator circuits when the control columns are
re-aligned To disconnect the interconnect cable between the elevators. To reconnect the elevator circuits.
If a jam is detected in the first officer’s elevator control circuit, what artificial feel systems
will be available? None. Q pot. Q pot and G weight. G weight.
Where is air pressure to the stall air reservoir normally supplied from? Engines 2 and 3. The APU. Engine 2 only. Engines 1 and 4.
What is the purpose of the rudder limiter? To limit rudder travel at low speed. To hydraulically limit the rate of deflection of the rudder as airspeed increases. To limit the force required by the pilot to operate the rudder as speed decreases. To limit rudder movement as speed increases to prevent structural overstress.
Which of the following controls are powered only by the yellow hydraulic system? The roll spoilers. The lift spoilers. The flaps. The airbrake.
How is flow to a pilot’s oxygen mask tested? By opening the main valve on the right side console. By checking the gauge at the left side console. By checking the green flow indicator in the hose. By operation of the test button on the mask stowage unit.
How is the pilot’s oxygen mask removed from its stowage? Grip the red mask plates and squeeze. Pull the hose on the front of the mask. Open the “main” valve. The mask in released by operating the test button.
Why is engine anti ice selected on before start? In order to improve the stall characteristics of the HP compressor. To open the valve for ice protection right away. To protect against high EGT during engine start after starter cut out. To prevent engine flameout during engine start.
An airspeed switch is fitted to give warning if rudder limiter is not fully retracted below
which speed? 145kts 160kts 220kts 227kts.
How many packs are necessary to pressurize the cabin? 1 2 3 4.
What happens to the pack valve if the PACK HI TEMP annunciator is lit? It remains in the position it was in. It is automatically shut. It is automatically opened. It changes position from high rate to low rate flow.
What protection is provided to the passengers in the event of cabin depressurization in
flight? No protection is needed as the aircraft will have to descend to below 10.000 ft Therapeutic oxygen will be distributed around the cabin by the cabin attendants. Each drop-out unit must be opened manually by the cabin attendants Oxygen masks in the passenger cabin will drop out either automatically or manually.
What is the maximum altitude at which the APU generator can be used? 15.000 feet 20.000 feet 25.000 feet 30.000 feet.
What is the maximum EGT allowed when starting the APU? 1032 deg C 718 deg C 613 deg C 649 deg C.
What is the oxygen system pressure when fully charged? 70 psi 1500 psi 1850 psi 2800 psi.
What is minimum indicated N2 for in-flight start? 10 % 8% 6% 12%.
At what level will the ENG VIBN caption be activated? 0.2ips 1.2ips 2.0ips 1.0ips.
What is the maximum ground temperature allowed for take-off and landing? 65 degrees celsius 50 degrees celsius 40 degrees celsius 30 degrees celsius.
What is maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing? 35 kts. 30 kts. 50 kts. 40 kts.
What is maximum tailwind? 10 kts. 15 kts. 25 kts. 20 kts.
Minimum runway width for the AvroRJ/Bae146 is? 40 meters 45 meters 30 meters 60 meters.
Is it allowed to have both Eng. Ant. Ice. and Eng. Air ON for take-off? Yes No Only if certain temperature limitations are fulfilled. Only below certain airfield altitudes.
The maximum time for the engines at take-off rating is: 5 min. 2 min. 10 min 15 min.
Maximum airfield elevation for take-off and landing? 2000 feet 4000 feet 8000 feet 10000 feet.
What must be selected if engine air is used for cabin air conditioning during take-off or
landing? No special consideration is necessary. CABIN AIR must be selected to FRESH. CABIN AIR must be selected to RECIRC. PACK 1 or 2 must be off.
What is the EGT limit for engine start? 649°C (713°C for 15 seconds) 649°C (1032°C for 15 seconds) 713°C (749°C for 15 seconds) 649°C.
What is the max EGT for MCT rationg? 600°C 613°C 649°C 713°C.
What is the bird impact limit speed? 250 KIAS below 10.000 ft 260 KIAS 280 KIAS 250 KIAS below 8.000 ft.
There are four cabin doors; two passenger doors on the left and two smaller service doors
on the right. Which of these doors are also emergency exits? The two passenger doors The two service doors The two forward doors All four doors.
In case of “CABIN HIGH ALT” on the Master Warning System (MWS), what should be
your priority? Alerting all of the Cabin Crew Members. Alerting Air Traffic Control. Put Oxygen masks on. Check the pressurization.
When selecting the gear down you notice that the nose wheel is not locked and does not
show green. You should: Immediately check the standby gear indicators. Read and do according to the emergency checklist. Immediately recycle the landing gear Check the circuit breaker “GEAR CTRL” (B2).
In case of an emergency evacuation and with a blocked cockpit door, which emergency
exit should be used for the flight deck crew? Hatch to the electrical bay on the cockpit floor Windscreen C on both sides (most aft windscreens) Windscreen B on both sides (middle windscreens) Windscreen A on both sides (most forward windscreens).
Who shall normally read the emergency checklist when airborne? MP (Monitoring pilot) PF (Pilot Flying) Commander First Officer.
What is a Symbol generator? The EFIS visual display is produced by the symbol generator. The SG is a computer
that collects inputs from sensors, systems and inputs from the pilots and produces a
visual display on the PFD and ND. The Symbol Generator generates 115V AC and sometimes 28V DC power. It’s the Symbol Generator that generates power to the Standby instruments in case of
total power loss a and b are both correct.
What is the correct name of the Display Unit (DU) shown below? Navigation Display (ND) Primary Flight Display (PFD) Attitude Indicator None of the above.
What is the correct name of the Display Unit (DU) shown below? Navigation Display (ND) Primary Flight Display (PFD) Weather Radar None of the above sdf.
Are the Display Units (DU) cooled by any means? Yes, keeping the cockpit temperature below 40°C is enough to keep the DU's cooled
down No, the DU's do not need to be cooled down Yes, each pair of DU's has a cooling fan No, but if the cockpit temperature exceeds 30°C, the DU's shall be turned off in order
not to overheat.
Give the correct statement of the picture shown below: Typical compact display, used if one DU fails Typical display when flying CAT II approach Typical display when flying a Precision approach Typical display when flying a Non Precision approach.
How many Air Data Computers (ADC) are fitted; is it possible to test it/them? There is only one ADC fitted; it can be tested on the flight deck GRND TEST panel. There are two ADCs fitted; only technical staff can test them. There is only one ADC fitted; it does not need to be tested. There are two ADCs fitted; both can be tested on the flight deck GRND TEST panel.
What does the enhanced image on the PFD below represent? Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) Pilot Aiming Point (PAP) Landing Pitch Indicator (LPI) Takeoff Pitch Indicator (TPI).
What does FMC stand for? Flight maintenance Crew Flight Management System Forward Management Computer Flight Management Computer.
What does FMS stand for? Flight Maintenance Service Flight Management System Flight maintenance System None of the above.
What is the correct name of the image shown below? FMS CDU (Control Display Unit) MCDU (Multipurpose Control Display Unit) all of the above.
What is the main purpose of the EGPWS? To help prevent accidents by controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) To assist in CAT II and CAT III approaches To assist in non-precision approaches To help prevent accidents when one pilot is incapacitated.
How many weather radars are fitted on the aircraft? None One Two One radar with two display units.
A weather return is displayed in one of four colors; select the correct colors: Black, Green, Yellow and Red Black, Yellow, red and Blue Brown, Green, Yellow and Red Black, Green, Yellow and Magenta.
Select the correct statement regarding TCAS: Flight Crew shall always obey ATC, regardless of TCAS advisories. Flight Crew shall always make evasive maneuvers when presented with TA Flight crew is expected to respond promptly to a RA, unless it is considered unsafe to
do so. TA and RA have nothing to do with TCAS.
If presented with a TCAS RA, on which instrument on the AVRO RJ will you be able to
see the required action? Weather radar Navigation Display (ND) Primary Flight Display (PFD) None of the above.