dsm5

A 65-year-old man who presented with difficulty in obtaining an erection due to diabetes and severe vascular disease had received a DSM-IV diagnosis of Sexual Dysfunction Due to...[Indicate the General Medical Condition] (coded as 607.84 male erectile disorder due to diabetes mellitus). What DSM-5 diagnosis would be given to a person with this presentation?. Sexual dysfunction due to a general medical condition. Erectile disorder. Somatic symptom disorder. A dual diagnosis of erectile disorder and somatic symptom disorder. No diagnosis.

Which of the following statements about the diagnoses of premature (early) ejaculation and delayed ejaculation is true?. Criterion A for both diagnoses includes a specific time period following penetration during which ejaculation must or must not have occurred. Criterion A for both diagnoses specifies “partnered sexual activity.”. Early ejaculation, but not delayed ejaculation, may be diagnosed even when there is no clinically significant distress. Estimated and measured intravaginal ejaculatory latencies are poorly correlated. For both diagnoses, the severity is based on the level of distress experienced by the individual.

Which of the following statements about sexual dysfunction occurring in the context of substance or medication use is true?. It is more frequently caused by buprenorphine than by methadone. It occurs more commonly in 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) abusers than in heroin abusers. It occurs in approximately 50% of patients taking antipsychotics. Less than 10% of individuals with orgasm delay from antidepressants will experience spontaneous remission of the dysfunction within 6 months. The overall incidence and prevalence of medication-induced sexual dysfunction are well delineated, based on extensive research.

Which of the following conditions would be appropriately diagnosed as “other specified sexual dysfunction”?. Substance/medication-induced sexual dysfunction. Sexual aversion. Erectile dysfunction. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder. Delayed ejaculation.

In the assessment for Erectile Disorder (ED), what is the significance of asking about morning erections?. To classify the severity of the ED as mild, moderate, or severe. To help differenciate between physiological and psychological causes of ED. To determine if the patient has Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder. To rule out Premature (Early) Ejaculation.

According to the note in the criteria for Premature (Early) Ejaculation, what is the status of specific duration criteria for nonvaginal sexual activities?. They are determined by the clinician based on context. They are set at approximately 3 minutes. They are the same as for vaginal intercourse (~1 minute). They have not been stablished.

Which diagnosis includes a criterion where the clinician's judgment, considering factors like age and sociocultural context, is explicitly mentioned as necessary to determine deficiency?. Substance/Medication-induced Sexual Dysfunction. Female Orgasmic Disorder. Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (HSDD). Erectile Disorder.

Which sexual dysfunction is defined by a 'persistent or recurrent pattern' of difficulty rather than a 'marked' difficulty on '(almost) all occasions'?. Premature (Early) Ejaculation. Delayed Ejaculation. Female Orgasmic Disorder. Erectile Disorder.

The proposed diagnosis for Hypersexual Disorder includes 'Repetitively engaging in sexual fantasies, urges, and behaviour in response to dysphoric mood states.' Which of the following is an example of a dysphoric mood state mentioned in the text?. Boredom. Excitement. Euphoria. Contentment.

Whereas in DSM-IV, there were 11 recognized substance classes, DSM-5 has only 10, because certain related substances have been combined into a single class. Which of the following pairs of drugs falls into a single class in DSM-5?. Cocaine and phencyclidine (PCP). Cocaine and methamphetamine. 3,4-LdgrTc6D1fhwq9FJRjMEYhanFr7xNCSaaR (MDMA [Ecstasy]) and methamphetamine. Lorazepam and alcohol. Lorazepam and oxycodone.

Which of the following symptoms is a recognized consequence of the abrupt termination of daily or near-daily cannabis use?. Hallucinations. Delusions. Hunger. Irritability. Apathy.

To meet proposed criteria for the Section III condition neurobehavioral disorder associated with prenatal alcohol exposure, an individual’s prenatal alcohol exposure must have been “more than minimal.” How is “more than minimal” exposure defined, in terms of how much alcohol was used by the mother during gestation?. Fewer than 7 drinks per month, and no more than 1 drink per drinking occasion. Fewer than 7 drinks per month, and no more than 2 drinks per drinking occasion. Fewer than 7 drinks per month, and no more than 3 drinks per drinking occasion. Fewer than 14 drinks per month, and no more than 1 drink per drinking occasion. Fewer than 14 drinks per month, and no more than 2 drinks per drinking occasion.

In DSM-5, the sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic class contains all prescription sleeping medications and almost all prescription antianxiety medications. What is the reason that nonbenzodiazepine antianxiety agents (e.g., buspirone, gepirone) are not included in this class?. They are not generally available in nonparenteral (intravenous or intramuscular) formulations. They do not appear to be associated with significant misuse. They are not associated with illicit manufacturing or diversion (e.g., Schedule I–V drugs in the United States, or included in the list of psychotropic substances recognized by the International Narcotics Control Board and the United Nations). They are not respiratory depressants. They do not appear to be associated with cravings or tolerance.

Which of the following criteria for substance use disorder in DSM-5 was not one of the criteria for either substance abuse or substance dependence in DSM-IV?. Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of substance use. The substance is often taken in larger amounts or over a longer period than was intended. Craving, or a strong desire or urge to use the substance, is present. Recurrent substance use results in a failure to fulfill major role obligations at work, school, or home. A great deal of time is spent in activities necessary to obtain the substance, use the substance, or recover from its effects.

Which of the following statements about alcohol withdrawal is true?. Fewer than 10% of individuals undergoing alcohol withdrawal experience dramatic symptoms such as severe autonomic hyperactivity, tremors, or alcohol withdrawal delirium. Delirium occurs in the majority of individuals who meet criteria for alcohol withdrawal. Approximately 80% of all patients with alcohol use disorder will experience alcohol withdrawal. Tonic-clonic seizures occur in about 15% of individuals who meet criteria for alcohol withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms typically begin between 24 and 48 hours after alcohol use has been stopped or reduced.

A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her friends after a party. They report that the woman had been seen ingesting some unknown pills earlier in the evening. She became increasingly confused throughout the course of the night. She eventually had a witnessed seizure on the street, prompting activation of emergency medical services. Vital signs indicate that the patient is tachycardic and hypertensive. On evaluation, the patient is observed to be thin with dilated pupils. She is smiling to herself, is fidgety, and is oriented to self, place, and date. When queried about auditory hallucinations, the patient admits that she is hearing voices but is unconcerned, stating, “I only hear them while I’m partying, Doc.” Which diagnosis best fits this clinical presentation?. Stimulant-induced manic episode. Stimulant-induced psychotic disorder. Stimulant intoxication, with perceptual disturbances. Other hallucinogen-induced psychotic disorder. Other hallucinogen intoxication.

Which of the following substances is most likely to be associated with polydrug use?. Cannabis. Tobacco. MDMA/ecstasy. Methamphetamine. Alcohol.

Alcohol intoxication, inhalant intoxication, and sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic intoxication have which of the following Criterion C signs/symptoms in common?. Depressed reflexes. Generalized muscle weakness. Blurred vision. Impairment in attention or memory. Nystagmus.

A 25-year-old medical student presents to the student health service at 7 A.M. complaining of having a “panic attack.” He reports that he stayed up all night studying for his final gross anatomy exam, which starts in an hour, but he feels too anxious to go. He reports vomiting twice. The patient is restless and appears flushed, with visible muscle twitching. He is urinating excessively, has tachycardia, and his electrocardiogram shows premature ventricular complexes. His thoughts and speech appear to be rambling in nature. His urine toxicology screen is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?. Panic disorder. Amphetamine intoxication, amphetamine-like substance. Caffeine intoxication. Cocaine intoxication. Alcohol withdrawal.

What is the hallmark feature of caffeine withdrawal?. Vomiting. Drowsiness. Flu-like symptoms. Headache. Dysphoria.

A 22-year-old university student presents to his primary care physician complaining of progressive worsening of numbness, tingling, and weakness in both of his legs over the past several weeks. His gait is unsteady, and he has difficulty grasping objects in his hands. He did not use any substances on the day of presentation but admits that over the past 3 months he has been consistently using one particular substance on a daily basis. Which substance use disorder most likely accounts for this patient’s symptoms?. Cannabis use disorder. Other hallucinogen use disorder. Inhalant use disorder. Opioid use disorder. Other or unknown substane use disorder.

A diagnosis of Gambling Disorder requires the individual to exhibit at least how many criteria within what time period?. 3 in 1 week. 4 in 12 months. 5 shortly after the behaviour. 2 in 12 months.

Which of the following symptom clusters is characteristic of withdrawal from a sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic substance?. Headache, difficulty concentrating, flu-like symptoms. Fatigue, vivid unpleasant dreams, increased appetite. Autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, and potential for grand mal seizures. Dysphoric mood, muscle aches, lacrimation and yawning.

A patient who recently used a substance exhibits vertical nystagmus, hypertension, diminished responsiveness to pain, and ataxia. The onset was rapid after the substance was smoked. Which substance intoxication is most indicated?. Other hallucinogen intoxication. Inhalant intoxication. Phencyclidine intoxication. Alcohol intoxication.

Which of the following is a symptom of stimulant intoxication, but NOT of caffeine intoxication?. Tachycardia. Psychomotor agitation. Pupilary dilation. Insomnia.

Which set of symptoms is required for a diagnosis of Opioid Intoxication?. Pupillary dilation and at least 1 other sign, such as drowsiness or slurred speech. Pupillary constriction and at least 1 other sign, such as drowsiness or slurred speech. At least 2 signs, including tachycardia, sweating, and perceptual disturbances. At least 3 signs, includint muscle aches, nausea, and dysphoric mood.

Abrupt cessation of tobacco use must be followed by how many symptoms within 24 hours to meet the criteria for Tobacco Withdrawal?. 3 or more. 4 or more. 2 or more. 5 or more.

Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder is characterized by the reexperiencing of perceptual symptoms that occurred during intoxication. Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of these perceptual symptoms?. Trails of images of moving objects and halos around objects. Macropsia and micropsia. Geometric hallucinations and flashes of color. Auditory hallucinations with a running commentary.

A patient undergoing withdrawal from an unknown substance is experiencing a state of delirium. According to the source, withdrawal from which of the following substance classes can induce delirium?. Stimulants, cannabis, and hallucinogens. Caffeine, phencyclidine, and opioids. Opioids, sedatives/hypnotics/anxiolytics, and other/unknown. Alcohol, inhalants and tobacco.

A patient reports ceasing heavy, prolonged alcohol use two days ago. They now exhibit sweating with a pulse of 110 bpm, insomnia, anxiety, and complain of seeing 'bugs crawling on the walls' even though they know they aren't real. This presentation is most consistent with: Alcohol intoxication with perceptual disturbances. Substance-induced psychotic disorder. Alcohol withdrawal with perceptual disturbances. Substance intoxication delirium.

In the context of 'Addiction as Dyscontrol,' the term 'Dependence' refers to: How difficult it is to quit, the percentage of users who become dependent, and craving. The ability of a substance to get users to take it repeteatedly. The presence and severity of symptoms that emerge upon cessation of use. The need for increasing amounts of a substance to achieve the desired effect.

Which substance intoxication is characterized by pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, and palpitations, alongside perceptual changes like illusions or hallucinations in a state of full wakefulness?. Phencyclidine intoxication. Stimulant intoxication. Other hallucinogen intoxication. Cannabis intoxication.

A person who stopped using a stimulant several days ago is now experiencing dysphoric mood, fatigue, hypersomnia, and increased appetite. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?. Stimulant withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal. Other hallucinogen withdrawal. Caffeine withdrawal.

Which two classes of substances have intoxication and withdrawal syndromes that share multiple overlapping symptoms, including slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait, and nystagmus during intoxication, and autonomic hyperactivity and insomnia during withdrawal?. Cannabis and hallucinogens. Inhalants and phencyclidine. Opioids and stimulants. Alcohol and sedatives/hypnotics/anxiolytics.

To diagnose Caffeine Intoxication, a patient must exhibit recent caffeine use and how many of the listed signs or symptoms?. 3 or more. 1 or more. 5 or more. 2 or more.

Both Opioid intoxication and Sedative intoxication can present with slurred speech and impairment in attention or memory. What is a key sign that helps differentiate Opioid intoxication from Sedative intoxication?. Stupor or coma. Unsteady gait. Pupillary constriction. Nystagmus.

Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for Gambling Disorder but does NOT have a direct parallel among the 11 criteria for Substance Use Disorder?. Lying to conceal the extent of involvement with gambling. After losing money gambling, often returning another day to ger even ('chasing' one's losses). Unsuccessful efforts to quit. Needing to gamble with increasing amounts of money for the desired excitement.

According to the source material, which of these symptoms is a criterion for Cannabis Withdrawal but NOT for Tobacco Withdrawal?. Sleep difficulty/insomia. Decreased appetite or weight loss. Irritability, anger or agression. Restlessness.

Which of the following substance classes is listed as being able to induce an Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?. Alcohol. Opioids. Cannabis. Other stimulants.

For a diagnosis of Stimulant Withdrawal, a dysphoric mood must be present along with how many other physiological changes?. 2 or more. 4 or more. 3 or more. 1 or more.

Which two distinct withdrawal syndromes share the criterion of 'Autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., sweating or pulse rate greater than 100 bpm)'?. Alcohol and sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic. Stimulant and caffeine. Alcohol and opioid. Cannabis and tobacco.

Vertical or horizontal nystagmus is a key diagnostic sign for intoxication with which substance?. Alcohol. Phencyclidine. Inhalant. Sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic.

The development of a substance withdrawal delirium is listed as a potential consequence for which of the following substance classes?. Opioids. Sedative... Stimulants. Alcohol.

For a diagnosis of Cannabis Intoxication, symptoms like conjunctival injection and increased appetite must develop within what time frame relative to cannabis use?. Within 2 hours. Within 24 hours. Shortly after use. Within 1 hour.

Opioid withdrawal can be precipitated by the administration of an opioid antagonist. Which of the following symptoms is NOT listed as a criterion for Opioid withdrawal?. Dysphoric mood. Anxiety. Muscle aches. Psychomotor agitation.

Perceptual changes occurring in a state of full wakefulness and alertness is a key criterion for intoxication with which substance class?. Cannabis. Other hallucinogen. Inhalant. Phencyclidine.

Which of the following is listed as a potential sign of Stimulant intoxication?. Pupillary constriction. Pupillary dilation. Conjunctival injection. Lacrimation or rhinorrea.

To meet the criteria for Tobacco Withdrawal, an individual must have used tobacco daily for at least how long?. Several weeks. 1 year. 1 week. 3 months.

The specifier 'With perceptual disturbances' can be applied to intoxication with all of the following substances EXCEPT: Cannabis. Opioids. Alcohol. Stimulants.

A person often gambles when feeling distressed (e.g., anxious, depressed) and has lost a significant relationship because of their gambling. They meet no other criteria. Do they qualify for a Gambling Disorder diagnosis? and has lost a significant relationship because of their gambling. They meet no other criteria. Do they qualify for a Gambling Disorder diagnosis?. It cannot be determined without knowing the duration of the symptoms. Yes, because the symptoms have caused clinically significant impairment. Yes, they meet the criteria for a Mild Gambling Disorder. No, because they do not meet the minimum number of required criteria.

A person with Anorexia Nervosa who maintains a low body weight primarily through fasting and excessive exercise, without any episodes of binge eating or purging in the last three months, would be assigned which specifier?. Atypical anorexia nervosa. None. Restricting type. Purging disorder.

According to the DSM-5 criteria provided, what is the minimum frequency and duration for binge eating and compensatory behaviors to diagnose Bulimia Nervosa?. At least 2 a week for 3 months. At least 1 a week for 3 months. At least 2 a week for 1 month. At least 1 a week for 6 months.

Which of the following scenarios best describes 'Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder (OSFED), Purging Disorder'?. An individual engages in recurrent self-induced vomiting to influence their weight, but does not engage in binge eating. An individual binges on large amounts of food and then engages in self-inducted vomiting to prevent weight gain. An individual eats large amounts of food late at night after waking from sleep, feels distressed, but does not purge. An individual restricts their food intake leading to a significantly low body weight and misuses laxatives after meals.

What key feature differentiates Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID) from Anorexia Nervosa?. Marked interference with psychosocial functioning. The presence of significant weight loss. A dependence on oral nutritional supplements. The absence of a disturbance in experiencing one's body weight or shape.

An adult patient with a BMI of 16.5 kg/m2 is diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa. How would their current severity be classified?. Mild. Severe. Extreme. Moderate.

How is the severity of Binge-Eating Disorder determined according to the provided material?. Based on the degree of psychosocial impairment. Based on the number of associated symptoms (e.g., eating rapidly, feeling guilty) present during binges. Based on the patient's current Body Mass Index (BMI). Based on the frequency of binge-eating episodes per week.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a diagnostic criterion for Pica?. The behavior is not part of a culturally supported or socially normative practice. The eating of non-nutritive substances is inappropriate for the developmental level. The behavior persists for at least one month. The behavior is driven by an intense fear of gaining weight.

Which of the following is listed as a symptom of Starvation Syndrome?. Preoccupation with food. A tendency to be still and conserve energy. Enhanced concentration and judgment. Increased sexual interest.

A diagnosis of Binge-Eating Disorder requires the presence of recurrent binge-eating episodes along with three or more associated features. Which of the following is NOT one of those listed features?. Using laxatives or diuretics to compensate for the food intake. Feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed, or very guilty afterward. Eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry. Eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating.

What is the primary characteristic of Atypical Anorexia Nervosa?. The individual meets criteria for Anorexia Nervosa but has been ill for less than three months. All criteria for Anorexia Nervosa are met, except the individual's weight is within or above the normal range despite significant weight loss. The individual's fear of weight gain is absent, but all other criteria for Anorexia Nervosa are met. The individual has a normal body weight and engages in bingeing and purging behaviors.

The PARDI (PICA, ARFID, Rumination Disorder Interview) is mentioned as an assessment tool. Which of the following is NOT listed as a main profile or subscale associated with this tool in the text?. A severity index based on frequency of compensatory behaviors. Four subscales: Restrain, Eating concerns, Shape concerns, Weight concerns. A version dependent on age: child or adult. Three main profiles: Sensitivity, Lack of interest, Fear.

The source material notes a significant issue in the treatment of adolescents with eating disorders. What is described as a 'patient delay'?. The time it takes for an adolescent to respond to nutritional rehabilitation. The delay in physical recovery even after psychological treatment has begun. The long wait times for adolescents to get an appointment at a specialized clinic. Adolescents do not seek help because they do not perceive themselves as being sick.

What is the key difference between Bulimia Nervosa and the Binge-eating/purging subtype of Anorexia Nervosa?. The sense of lack of control during a binge. The type of compensatory behavior used. The frequency of the purging behaviors. The presence of a significantly low body weight.

According to the criteria for ARFID, an individual's persistent failure to meet nutritional needs can be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: Significant weight loss or failure to achieve expected weight gain. Undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation. Significant nutritional deficiency. Dependence on enteral feeding or oral nutritional supplements.

A patient with bulimia nervosa engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors, on average, 10 times per week. What is the severity level of their disorder?. Moderate. Severe. Extreme. Mild.

What is meant by 'doctor's delay' in the context of eating disorders in adolescents?. A problem with caretakers and physicians failing to recognize the signs of an eating disorder. The long period it takes for medical interventions to reverse the physical effects of an eating disorder. A delay in adolescents being willing to talk to a doctor about their problems. The reluctance of doctors to diagnose an eating disorder due to stigma.

A patient is diagnosed with Bulimia Nervosa (of low frequency and/or limited duration). This diagnosis falls under which broader category?. Binge-Eating Disorder. Bulimia Nervosa, In partial remission. Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder. Unspecified Feeding or Eating Disorder.

According to the source, what significant limitation exists in most research on eating disorders?. There is insufficient research on the long-term effectiveness of treatments. Most research has been conducted on white women, limiting its applicability to other populations. Research focuses too heavily on the biological causes and not enough on social factors. Most studies fail to differentiate between the various subtypes of eating disorders.

A patient meets all diagnostic criteria for Anorexia Nervosa, including a significant restriction of energy intake and an intense fear of gaining weight. However, their BMI is 18.5 kg/m2 after significant weight loss. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?. Bulimia Nervosa. Atypical Anorexia Nervosa. Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder. Anorexia Nervosa, Mild.

An individual uses self-induced vomiting several times a week to influence their weight but does not have binge-eating episodes. According to the source material, what is the most likely diagnosis?. Bulimia Nervosa. Anorexia Nervosa, binge-eating/purging type. Purging Disorder. Unspecified Feeding or Eating Disorder.

Which of the following cognitive or emotional symptoms is explicitly listed as part of the starvation syndrome?. Enhanced decision-making skills. Emotional distress and depression. Increased social engagement. Apathy towards food.

A clinician in a busy emergency room evaluates a patient with clear signs of a significant eating disorder but lacks the time and information to determine if it's Anorexia, Bulimia, or another specific type. Which diagnosis is most appropriate for this situation?. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder. Unspecified Feeding or Eating Disorder. Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder. Atypical Anorexia Nervosa.

What is the minimum frequency and duration of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors required for a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa?. 1 a week for 3 months. 2 a week for 1 month. 2 a week for 3 months. 1 a week for 6 months.

According to the source, a patient with Bulimia Nervosa who engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors an average of 15 times per week would be classified with what level of severity?. Extreme. Severe. Mild. Moderate.

The starvation syndrome is noted to cause a 'rapid sense of feeling “full”'. What is the reason provided for this phenomenon?. The stomach has physically shrunk from lack of use. A decline in judgement capabilities makes it hard to gauge hunger. The individual has not eaten for so long. A psychological aversion to the act of eating.

In avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder, the eating or feeding disturbance is manifested by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs associated with one or more of four specified features. Which of the following options correctly lists these four features?. Manic or hypomanic symptoms; ruminative behaviors; compulsive thoughts; marked interference with psychosocial functioning. Significant weight loss; significant nutritional deficiency; dependence on enteral feeding or oral nutritional supplements; marked interference with psychosocial functioning. Significant weight loss; ruminative behaviors; delusions or hallucinations; manic or hypomanic symptoms. Significant nutritional deficiency; increased use of alcohol or other substances; manic or hypomanic symptoms; delusions or hallucinations. Dependence on enteral feeding or oral nutritional supplements; ruminative behaviors; delusions or hallucinations; manic or hypomanic symptoms.

Which of the following statements about onset and prevalence of avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder is true?. The disorder occurs mostly in females, with onset typically in older adolescence. The disorder occurs mostly in males, with onset typically in early childhood. The disorder is more common in childhood and more common in females than in males. The disorder is more common in childhood and equally common in males and females. The disorder is extremely common in elderly adults, who often manifest an age-related reduction in intake.

What are the three essential diagnostic features of anorexia nervosa?. Persistently low self-confidence, intense fear of becoming fat, and disturbance in motivation. Low self-esteem, disturbance in self-perceived weight or shape, and persistent energy restriction. Restricted affect, disturbance in motivation, and low calorie intake. Persistent restriction of energy intake, intense fear of becoming fat, and disturbance in self-perceived weight or shape. Persistent lack of weight gain, disturbance in motivation, and restricted affect.

A 27-year-old graduate student has a 10-year history of anorexia nervosa. Her boyfriend is quite concerned because she has extreme fears related to cleanliness. She washes her hands more than 12 times a day and is excessively worried about contamination. What would be the best decision by the mental health professional at this point regarding these symptoms?. Assume that the patient’s obsessive-compulsive symptoms are related to her anorexia nervosa. Further evaluate the obsessive-compulsive features, because if they are not related to anorexia nervosa, a new diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder might be warranted. Ask the patient to wait 1 year and see how this evolves. Make a diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder. Refer the patient for a colonoscopy.

What are the three essential diagnostic features of bulimia nervosa?. Recurrent episodes of binge eating; recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight. Recurrent restriction of food; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight; mood instability. Delusions regarding body habitus; obsessional focus on food; recurrent purging. Hypomanic symptoms for 1 month; mood instability; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight. Self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight; history of anorexia nervosa; recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to gain weight.

What are the subtypes of bulimia nervosa?. Restrictive. Purging. Purging and restrictive. None. With normal / abnormal weight.

A patient meets the criteria for a manic episode. During this episode, they experience hallucinations of being spied on and delusions that their family is trying to poison them. These themes are not related to grandiosity or invulnerability. How should this episode be specified?. With mood-congruent psychotic features. With anxious distress. With mixed features. With mood-incongruent psychotic features.

For the 'with rapid cycling' specifier to be applied to a bipolar disorder, what is the minimum requirement regarding mood episodes?. At least two manic and two depressive episodes in the previous 12 months. A switch from a depressive to a manic episode at least four times in the individual's lifetime. At least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months. At least four mood episodes of any type in the previous 24 months.

An 8-year-old child displays severe, recurrent temper outbursts three to four times per week. Between outbursts, their mood is persistently irritable. These symptoms have been present for 18 months and started at age 6. The child has never had a period lasting more than a day where they met criteria for hypomania. What is the most likely diagnosis?. Oppositional Defiant Disorder. Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia). Bipolar I Disorder. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder.

A patient with a major depressive episode is described as having 'mixed features.' What does this specifically imply about their symptoms?. Their psychotic symptoms are a mixture of mood-congruent and mood-incongruent themes. They experience at least three symptoms of anxiety along with their depressive symptoms. They experience at least three manic or hypomanic symptoms during the depressive episode. They experience symptoms of both melancholic and atypical depression simultaneously.

A full manic episode emerges during antidepressant treatment and persists at a fully syndromal level well beyond the physiological effect of the treatment. How is this situation handled diagnostically?. The diagnosis is deferred until a spontaneous manic episode occurs without medication influence. It is considered an adverse effect of the medication and not diagnosed as a mood disorder. It is diagnosed as Substance/Medication-Induced Bipolar Disorder. It is sufficient evidence for a manic episode and a Bipolar I diagnosis.

Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of the 'with melancholic features' specifier but NOT the 'with atypical features' specifier?. Significant weight change. Psychomotor changes. Changes in sleep patterns. Feelings of guilt.

A patient experiences a 3-day period of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased goal-directed activity, meeting the symptom criteria for hypomania. They also have a history of major depressive episodes. According to the source, what is the most precise diagnosis?. Cyclothymic Disorder. Bipolar II. Other Specified Bipolar and Related Disorder. Major Depressive Disorder with mixed features.

According to the epidemiology section for major depressive episodes, what is the relationship between anxiety disorders and MDD?. Co-morbidity is rare, with less than 10% of people with MDD having a recent anxiety disorder. The presence of an anxiety disorder decreases the risk of suicide during a depressive episode. Anxiety disorders typically have a later age of onset than MDD. Anxiety disorders often precede the onset of MDD.

How is a diagnosis of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) confirmed?. By laboratory findings of hormonal imbalances during the luteal phase. By prospective daily ratings during at least two symptomatic cycles. By a retrospective report from the patient covering the previous year's cycles. By a one-time clinical interview during the premenstrual phase.

A person has a depressed mood most days for three years. They also report low energy and poor concentration. They meet criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder. During the last 2 years, they have not met the full criteria for a major depressive episode. How should this be specified?. With atypical features. With pure dysthymic syndrome. With persistent major depressive episode. With intermitent major depressive episodes, with current episode.

If a person's mood during a manic or hypomanic episode is described as 'only irritable' rather than elevated or expansive, what is the impact on the symptomatic criteria?. Psychotic features must be present for the episode to be diagnosed. The episode is automatically classified as a 'mixed episode'. The duration requirement for the episode is longer. One additional symptom is required from the list in Criterion B.

The 'with seasonal pattern' specifier requires a regular temporal relationship between mood episodes and a particular time of year. What is an important exclusion criterion for this specifier?. The episodes only occur every other year. The mood episodes are clearly linked to seasonally related psychosocial stressors. The person's depressive episodes are seasonal, but their hypomanic episodes are not. The person has also had non-seasonal episodes in their lifetime.

A patient has symptoms that are characteristic of a depressive disorder and cause significant impairment, but they only have depressed affect and one other symptom from the list for a major depressive episode. The symptoms have persisted for three weeks. Which diagnosis best fits this description?. Other Specified Depressive Disorder (depressive episode with insufficient symptoms). Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia). Major Depressive Disorder, Mild. Short-duration depressive episode (4–13 days).

What symptom is a defining feature of the 'with atypical features' specifier and is described as a long-standing trait that persists even when the person is not depressed?. Hypersomnia. Leaden paralysis. A pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity. Mood reactivity.

A severe rating for the 'with anxious distress' specifier requires how many symptoms?. 2. 4-5. 4-5 with motor agitation. 3.

Which of the following disorders CANNOT coexist with a diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)?. Conduct Disorder. Oppositional Defiant Disorder. ADHD. MDD.

What is the key difference between the 'in partial remission' and 'in full remission' specifiers for bipolar and depressive disorders?. Number of symptoms present during the last month. Wheter the individual is still taking medication for the disorder. Duration of the period without significant symptoms. Level of functional impairment experienced by the individual.

When an individual's symptoms meet the full criteria for both a manic episode and a major depressive episode simultaneously, what is the correct diagnosis?. Manic episode, with mixed features. Bipolar II Disorder, with mixed features. Major Depressive Disorder, with mixed features. Cyclothymic Disorder.

A patient with a major depressive episode exhibits an elevated mood, grandiosity, and is more talkative for the majority of days. What specifier would be most appropriate?. With mixed features. With anxious distress. With psychotic features. With atypical features.

According to the note on the 'With Rapid Cycling' specifier, how are mood episodes demarcated or separated?. By at least one month of euthymic mood. Only by a period of full remission lasting at least 2 months. By a switch to an episode of the same polarity. By at least 2 months of remission or a switch to an episode of the opposite polarity.

Which of the following is a criterion for the 'With Atypical Features' specifier for a major depressive episode?. Significant weight loss or decrease in appetite. Leaden paralysis (heavy feelings in arms or legs). Lack of reactivity to usually pleasurable stimuli. Depression that is regularly worse in the morning.

What is a key diagnostic requirement for Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) regarding age?. The diagnosis cannot be made for the first time after age 10. Temper outbursts must begin after the age of 6. The age at onset must be before 10 years. The diagnosis can only be made in individuals between ages 12 and 18.

Under the 'Other Specified Bipolar and Related Disorder' category, what defines 'Short-duration hypomanic episodes (2–3 days) and major depressive episodes'?. The patient has experienced hypomanic episodes lasting 2-3 days that do not meet the full symptom criteria. The patient's short hypomanic episodes overlap in time with their major depressive episodes. The patient has experienced hypomanic episodes lasting 2-3 days but has never had a major depressive episode. The patient has a history of major depressive episodes and has experienced hypomanic episodes lasting 2-3 days that meet full symptom criteria.

The 'With Melancholic Features' specifier requires one of two core symptoms, plus three or more additional symptoms. Which of the following is one of the two core symptoms?. Excessive or inappropriate guilt. A distinct quality of depressed mood, such as profound despondency. Loss of pleasure in all, or almost all, activities. Marked psychomotor agitation or retardation.

For a diagnosis of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD), symptoms must be present in the final week before menses and then... Worsen after the onset of menses and persist for another week. Start to improve within a few days after the onset of menses. Be confirmed by retrospective self-report for the preceding year. Remain at peak intensity until menses is fully complete.

To apply the 'With Seasonal Pattern' specifier, what must be true about the individual's mood episodes over the last two years?. The episodes can be explained by seasonally related psychosocial stressors, like winter unemployment. Episodes demonstrated a temporal seasonal relationship, and no non-seasonal episodes of that polarity occurred. All mood episodes (manic, hypomanic, and depressive) must have occurred seasonally. At least one seasonal episode has occurred, even if non-seasonal episodes were more common.

For the 'With Anxious Distress' specifier to be rated as 'Severe', what must be present?. Exactly 2 symptoms. 4-5 symptoms without motor agitation. Exactly 3 symptoms. 4-5 symptoms with motor agitation.

According to the epidemiology section for major depressive episodes, what percentage of people with moderate/severe depression die because of suicide?. 20 times higher than the general population. 15%. 7-12%. 60%.

The specifier 'In partial remission' for a mood disorder indicates that... Symptoms of the previous episode are present, but full criteria are not met. During the past 2 months, no significant signs or symptoms were present. The patient has been symptom-free for more than 2 months. The patient has experienced at least four mood episodes in the past 12 months.

Which of the following is a key feature of 'Recurrent brief depression' under the Other Specified Depressive Disorder category?. Depressed affect with only one or two other symptoms, lasting at least 2 weeks. Episodes are linked to the menstrual cycle and last 2-13 days. Episodes last 4-13 days and occur randomly throughout the year. Episodes last 2-13 days and occur at least once per month for 12 consecutive months.

Which of the following factors is most predictive of incomplete recovery between mood episodes in bipolar I disorder?. Being widowed. Living in a higher-income country. Being divorced. Having a family history of bipolar disorder. Having a mood episode accompanied by mood-incongruent psychotic symptoms.

A patient with a history of bipolar I disorder presents with a new-onset manic episode and is successfully treated with medication adjustment. He notes chronic depressive symptoms that, on reflection, long preceded his manic episodes. He describes these symptoms as “feeling down,” having decreased energy, and more often than not having no motivation. He denies other depressive symptoms but feels that these alone have been sufficient to negatively affect his marriage. Which diagnosis best fits this presentation?. Other specified bipolar and related disorder. Bipolar I disorder, current or most recent episode depressed. Cyclothymic disorder. Bipolar I disorder and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). Bipolar II disorder.

In which of the following ways do manic episodes differ from attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?. Manic episodes are more strongly associated with poor judgment. Manic episodes are more likely to involve excessive activity. Manic episodes have clearer symptomatic onsets and offsets. Manic episodes are more likely to show a chronic course. Manic episodes first appear at an earlier age.

A patient with a history of bipolar disorder reports experiencing 1 week of elevated and expansive mood. Evidence of which of the following would suggest that the patient is experiencing a hypomanic, rather than manic, episode?. Irritability. Decreased need for sleep. Increased productivity at work. Psychotic symptoms. Good insight into the illness.

How do the depressive episodes associated with bipolar II disorder differ from those associated with bipolar I disorder?. They are less frequent than those associated with bipolar I disorder. They are lengthier than those associated with bipolar I disorder. They are less disabling than those associated with bipolar I disorder. They are less severe than those associated with bipolar I disorder. They are rarely a reason for the patient to seek treatment.

How does the course of bipolar II disorder differ from the course of bipolar I disorder?. It is more chronic than the course of bipolar I disorder. It is less episodic than the course of bipolar I disorder. It involves longer asymptomatic periods than the course of bipolar I disorder. It involves shorter symptomatic episodes than the course of bipolar I disorder. It involves a much lower number of lifetime mood episodes than the course of bipolar I disorder.

Which of the following features confers a worse prognosis for a patient with bipolar II disorder?. Younger age. Higher educational level. Rapid-cycling pattern. “Married” marital status. Less severe depressive episodes.

Which of the following statements about postpartum hypomania is true?. It tends to occur in the late postpartum period. It occurs in less than 1% of postpartum women. It is a risk factor for postpartum depression. It is easily distinguished from the normal adjustments to childbirth. It is more common in multiparous women.

For an adolescent who presents with distractibility, which of the following additional features would suggest an association with bipolar II disorder rather than attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?. Rapid speech noted on examination. A report of less need for sleep. Complaints of racing thoughts. Evidence that the symptoms are episodic. Evidence that the symptoms represent the individual’s baseline behavior.

A 50-year-old man with a history of a prior depressive episode is given an antidepressant by his family doctor to help with his depressive symptoms. Two weeks later, his doctor contacts you for a consultation because the patient now is euphoric, has increased energy, racing thoughts, psychomotor agitation, poor concentration and attention, pressured speech, and a decreased need to sleep. These symptoms began with the initiation of the patient’s new medication. The patient stopped the medication after 2 days, as he no longer felt depressed; however, the symptoms have continued ever since. What is the patient’s diagnosis?. Substance/medication-induced bipolar and related disorder. Bipolar I disorder. Bipolar II disorder. Cyclothymic disorder. Major depressive disorder.

In which of the following aspects does cyclothymic disorder differ from bipolar I disorder?. Duration. Severity. Age at onset. Pervasiveness. All of the above.

What DSM-5 diagnostic provision is made for depressive symptoms following the death of a loved one?. Depressive symptoms lasting less than 2 months after the loss of a loved one are excluded from receiving a diagnosis of major depressive episode. To qualify for a diagnosis of major depressive episode, the depression must start no less than 12 weeks following the loss. To qualify for a diagnosis of major depressive episode, the depressive symptoms in such individuals must include suicidal ideation. Depressive symptoms following the loss of a loved one are not excluded from receiving a major depressive episode diagnosis if the symptoms otherwise fulfill the diagnostic criteria. Depressive symptoms following the loss of a loved one are excluded from receiving a major depressive episode diagnosis; however, a proposed diagnostic category for postbereavement depression is included in “Conditions for Further Study” (DSM-5 Appendix) pending further research.

A 45-year-old man with classic features of schizophrenia has always experienced co-occurring symptoms of depression—including feeling “down in the dumps,” having a poor appetite, feeling hopeless, and suffering from insomnia—during his episodes of active psychosis. These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic episodes and only during the 2-year period when the patient was experiencing active symptoms of schizophrenia. After his psychotic episodes were successfully controlled by medication, no further symptoms of depression were present. The patient has never met full criteria for major depressive disorder at any time. What is the appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis?. Schizophrenia. Schizoaffective disorder. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). Schizophrenia and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). Unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder.

A depressed patient reports that he experiences no pleasure from his normally enjoyable activities. Which of the following additional symptoms would be required for this patient to qualify for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder with melancholic features?. Despondency, depression that is worse in the morning, and inability to fall asleep. Depression that is worse in the evening, psychomotor agitation, and significant weight loss. Inappropriate guilt, depression that is worse in the morning, and earlymorning awakening. Significant weight gain, depression that is worse in the evening, and excessive guilt. Despondency, significant weight gain, and psychomotor retardation.

A 39-year-old woman reports that she became quite depressed in the winter last year when her company closed for the season, but she felt completely normal in the spring. She recalls experiencing several other episodes of depression over the past 5 years (for which she cannot identify a seasonal pattern) that would have met criteria for major depressive disorder. Which of the following correctly summarizes this patient’s eligibility for a diagnosis of “major depressive disorder, with seasonal pattern”?. She does not qualify for this diagnosis: the episode must start in the fall, and the patient must have no episodes that do not have a seasonal pattern. She does qualify for this diagnosis: the single episode described started in the winter and ended in the spring. She does not qualify for this diagnosis: the patient must have had two episodes with a seasonal relationship in the past 2 years and no nonseasonal episodes during that period. She does qualify for this diagnosis: the symptoms described are related to psychosocial stressors. She does qualify for this diagnosis: the symptoms are not related to bipolar I or bipolar II disorder.

Which of the following statements about the heritability of major depressive disorder (MDD) is true?. Nearly 100% of people with genetic liability can be accounted for by the personality trait of dogmatism. The heritability is approximately 40%, and the personality trait of neuroticism accounts for a substantial portion of this genetic liability. Less than 10% of people with genetic liability can be accounted for by the personality trait of perfectionism. Nearly 50% of people with genetic liability can be accounted for by the personality trait of aggressiveness. The heritability of MDD depends on whether the individual’s mother or father had MDD.

A 12-year-old boy begins to have new episodes of temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. Which of the following is not a diagnostic possibility for this patient?. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. Bipolar disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder. Conduct disorder. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

Which of the following features distinguishes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD) from bipolar disorder in children?. Age at onset. Gender of the child. Irritability. Chronicity. Severity.

Children with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder are most likely to develop which of the following disorders in adulthood?. Bipolar I disorder. Schizophrenia. Bipolar II disorder. Borderline personality disorder. Unipolar depressive disorders.

The diagnostic criteria for disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD) state that the diagnosis should not be made for the first time before age 6 years or after 18 years (Criterion G). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for this age range restriction?. Validity of the diagnosis has been established only in the age group 7–18 years. The restriction represents an attempt to differentiate DMDD from bipolar disorder. The restriction is based on existing genetic data. The restriction represents an attempt to differentiate DMDD from intermittent explosive disorder. The restriction represents an attempt to differentiate DMDD from autism spectrum disorder.

A 14-year-old boy describes himself as feeling “down” all of the time for the past year. He remembers feeling better while he was at camp for 4 weeks during the summer; however, the depressed mood returned when he came home. He reports poor concentration, feelings of hopelessness, and low self-esteem but denies suicidal ideation or changes in his appetite or sleep. What is the most likely diagnosis?. Major depressive disorder. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. Depressive episodes with short-duration hypomania. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), with early onset. Schizoaffective disorder.

A 30-year-old woman reports 2 years of persistently depressed mood, accompanied by loss of pleasure in all activities, ruminations that she would be better off dead, feelings of guilt about “bad things” she has done, and thoughts about quitting work because of her inability to make decisions. Although she has never been treated for depression, she feels so distressed at times that she wonders if she should be hospitalized. She experiences an increased need for sleep but still feels fatigued during the day. Her overeating has led to a 12-kg weight gain. She denies drug or alcohol use, and her medical workup is completely normal, including laboratory tests for vitamins. The consultation was prompted by her worsened mood for the past several weeks. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?. Major depressive disorder (MDD). Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), with persistent major depressive episode. Cyclothymia. Bipolar II disorder. MDD, with melancholic features.

Which of the following symptoms must be present for a woman to meet criteria for premenstrual dysphoric disorder?. Marked affective lability. Decreased interest in usual activities. Physical symptoms such as breast tenderness. Marked change in appetite. A sense of feeling overwhelmed or out of control.

A 23-year-old woman reports that during every menstrual cycle she experiences breast swelling, bloating, hypersomnia, an increased craving for sweets, poor concentration, and a feeling that she cannot handle her normal responsibilities. She notes that she also feels somewhat more sensitive emotionally and may become tearful when hearing a sad story. She takes no oral medication but does use a drospirenone/ethinyl estradiol patch. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Dysthymia. Dysmenorrhea. Premenstrual syndrome. Substance/medication-induced depressive disorder.

A child who speaks in simple sentences, primarily interacts around a narrow special interest, and has markedly odd nonverbal communication best fits the description of which severity level for social communication?. Level 3. Level 2. Level 1. Between 1 and 2, specified by the clinician.

To make a comorbid diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder and intellectual disability, what specific condition must be met regarding social communication?. The intellectual disability must have been diagnosed prior to the autism spectrum disorder. The individual's social communication should be below that expected for their general developmental level. Restricted, repetitive behaviors must be present, regardless of social communication level. The individual's social communication skills must be equivalent to their general developmental level.

What is the key difference in how restricted/repetitive behaviors interfere with functioning between Level 3 and Level 2?. Level 3 behaviors relate to organization and planning, while Level 2 behaviors relate to coping with change. Level 3 behaviors are obvious to a casual observer, while Level 2 behaviors are not. Level 3 involves distress, while Level 2 does not. Level 3 behaviors markedly interfere in all spheres, while Level 2 behaviors interfere in a variety of contexts.

A strong attachment to an unusual object, such as a piece of string or a rubber band, is provided as an example of which specific diagnostic criterion?. Difficulties in sharing imaginative play (A3). Highly restricted, fixated interests (B3). Stereotyped or repetitive use of objects (B1). Unusual interest in sensory aspects of the environment (B4).

Echolalia and the use of idiosyncratic phrases are given as examples of what type of restricted/repetitive behavior?. Poorly integrated verbal and nonverbal communication. Ritualized patterns of verbal behavior. Excessively circumscribed interests. Stereotyped or repetitive speech.

A deficit in 'sharing imaginative play' is listed as an example for which component of the diagnostic criteria?. Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity (A1). Stereotyped or repetitive use of objects (B1). Deficits in developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships (A3). Deficits in nonverbal communicative behaviors (A2).

Which of these is NOT listed as a potential specifier for an Autism Spectrum Disorder diagnosis in the provided text?. With high or low functioning. With or without accompanying intellectual impairment. Associated with a known medical or genetic condition. With or without accompanying language impairment.

What is the minimum number of criteria from Category B (Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior) that must be manifested for a diagnosis?. 1. 2. 3. all 4.

A person who rarely initiates social interaction and, when they do, makes 'unusual approaches to meet needs only' is a core example of the social deficits in which level?. This could apply to any level depending on context. 3. 2. 1.

A failure to show 'normal back-and-forth conversation' is an example of a deficit in which specific area?. Understanding and use of gestures. Developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships. Ritualized patterns of verbal behavior. Social-emotional reciprocity.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a deficit in 'developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships' (Criterion A3)?. An adult does not initiate conversation and provides minimal responses when spoken to. A child repetitively echoes phrases they heard on television. A child consistently avoids eye contact during conversations. A teenager has difficulty adjusting their behavior between a formal classroom setting and a casual lunch with friends.

To satisfy Criterion B, an individual must exhibit at least two of the four types of restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. Which of the following pairs would meet this diagnostic requirement?. Adverse response to specific sounds and an apparent indifference to pain. Extreme distress at small changes and an absence of interest in peers. Simple motor stereotypies and flipping objects. Lining up toys and a strong attachment to an unusual object.

A patient with a known history of alcohol use disorder is hospitalized and experiences prominent auditory hallucinations and delusions starting two days after his last drink. The symptoms persist for three weeks and then resolve. What is the most likely diagnosis?. Delirium Tremens. Schizophrenia. Brief Psychotic Disorder. Substance/Medication-Induced Psychotic Disorder, With Onset During Withdrawal.

A patient presents with delusions and disorganized speech that started 3 weeks ago, immediately after losing their home in a fire. The patient has no prior psychiatric history. Which diagnosis is most fitting, assuming the symptoms resolve within the next week?. Brief Psychotic Disorder, With Marked Stressor(s). Acute Stress Disorder. Delusional Disorder. Schizophreniform Disorder.

A person believes they have made a revolutionary scientific discovery that will solve the world's energy crisis, but that government agencies are actively suppressing their work. This belief has lasted for two years. What type of Delusional Disorder would this be?. Persecutory. Mixed. Grandiose. Unspecified.

Which of the following would NOT meet the minimum symptom requirements for Brief Psychotic Disorder?. Catatonic behavior. Frequent derailment and incoherence. Diminished emotional expression. A conviction that one's lover is unfaithful.

The 'Continuous' course specifier for Schizophrenia is used when: Symptoms that meet the diagnostic criteria remain for the majority of the illness course. The diagnosis has been present for at least six months but less than one year. The patient is currently in a state of full remission that has lasted for over a year. The patient has experienced more than five acute episodes in a two-year period.

A diagnosis of Schizophreniform disorder is made, but the clinician qualifies it as 'Provisional'. What does this mean?. The symptoms are not severe enough to warrant a full diagnosis. The clinician suspects the symptoms are substance-induced but cannot yet prove it. The patient has not yet returned to their premorbid level of functioning. The diagnosis is made before the 6-month period is complete, so it is uncertain if the person will recover or progress to schizophrenia.

A 27-year-old unmarried truck driver has a 5-year history of active and residual symptoms of schizophrenia. He develops symptoms of depression, including depressed mood and anhedonia, that last 4 months and resolve with treatment but do not meet criteria for major depression. Which diagnosis best fits this clinical presentation?. Schizoaffective disorder. Unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder. Unspecified depressive disorder. Schizophrenia and unspecified depressive disorder. Unspecified bipolar and related disorder.

A 55-year-old man with a known history of alcohol dependence and schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department because of frank delusions and visual hallucinations. Which of the following would not be a diagnostic possibility for inclusion in the differential diagnosis?. Schizophrenia. Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder. Alcohol dependence. Borderline personality disorder with psychotic features. Psychotic disorder due to another medical condition.

Which of the following psychotic symptom presentations would not be appropriately diagnosed as “other specified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder”?. Psychotic symptoms that have lasted for less than 1 month but have not yet remitted, so that the criteria for brief psychotic disorder are not met. Persistent auditory hallucinations occurring in the absence of any other features. Postpartum psychosis that does not meet criteria for a depressive or bipolar disorder with psychotic features, brief psychotic disorder, psychotic disorder due to another medical condition, or substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder. Psychotic symptoms that are temporally related to use of a substance. Persistent delusions with periods of overlapping mood episodes that are present for a substantial portion of the delusional disturbance.

A 64-year-old man who had been a widower for 3 months presents to the emergency department on the advice of his primary care physician after he reports to the doctor that he hears his deceased wife’s voice calling his name when he looks through old photos, and sometimes as he is trying to fall asleep. His primary care physician tells him he is having a psychotic episode and needs to get a psychiatric evaluation. Which of the following statements correctly explains why these experiences are not considered to be psychotic?. The voice he hears is from a family member. The experience occurs as he is falling asleep. He can invoke her voice with certain activities. The voice calls his name. Both: The experience occurs as he is falling asleep He can invoke her voice with certain activities.

A 19-year-old college student is brought by ambulance to the emergency department. His college dorm supervisor, who called the ambulance, reports that the student was isolating himself, was pacing in his room, and was not responding to questions. In the emergency department, the patient gets down in a crouching position and begins making barking noises at seemingly random times. His urine toxicology report is negative, and all labs are within normal limits. What is the best description of these symptoms?. An animal delusion—the patient believes he is a dog. Intermittent explosive rage. A paranoid stance leading to self-protective aggression. Catatonic behavior. Formal thought disorder.

Which of the following statements correctly describes a way in which schizoaffective disorder may be differentiated from bipolar disorder?. Schizoaffective disorder involves only depressive episodes, never manic or hypomanic episodes. In bipolar disorder, psychotic symptoms do not last longer than 1 month. In bipolar disorder, psychotic symptoms are always cotemporal with mood symptoms. Schizoaffective disorder never includes full-blown episodes of major depression. In bipolar disorder, psychotic symptoms are always mood congruent.

Which of the following statements about childhood-onset schizophrenia is true?. Childhood-onset schizophrenia tends to resemble poor-outcome adult schizophrenia, with gradual onset and prominent negative symptoms. Disorganized speech patterns in childhood are usually indicative of schizophrenia. Because of the childhood capacity for imagination, delusions and hallucinations in childhood-onset schizophrenia are more elaborate than those in adult-onset schizophrenia. In a child presenting with disorganized behavior, schizophrenia should be ruled out before other childhood diagnoses are considered. Visual hallucinations are extremely rare in childhood-onset schizophrenia.

A 24-year-old male college student is brought to the emergency department by the college health service team. A few weeks ago he was involved in a car accident in which one of his friends was critically injured and died in his arms. The man has not come out of his room or showered for the last 2 weeks. He has eaten only minimally, claimed that aliens have targeted him for abduction, and asserted that he could hear their radio transmissions. Nothing seems to convince him that this abduction will not happen or that the transmissions are not real. Which of the following diagnoses (and justifications) is most appropriate for this man?. Brief psychotic disorder with a marked stressor, because the symptoms began after the tragic car accident. Brief psychotic disorder without a marked stressor, because the content of the psychosis is unrelated to the accident. Unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder, because more information is needed. Schizophreniform disorder, because there are psychotic symptoms but not yet a full-blown schizophrenia picture. Delusional disorder, because the central symptom is a delusion of persecution.

An 18-year-old individual has consistently shown 5 inattentive symptoms and 5 hyperactive-impulsive symptoms for the past year, causing impairment at college. According to the provided criteria, which presentation of ADHD is most indicated?. Predominantly innatentive. Other Specified. Predominantly hyperactive/impulsive. Combined.

According to Criterion B, for an ADHD diagnosis to be considered, several characteristic symptoms must have been present before what age?. 10. 12. 7. 17.

Criterion E serves as an exclusionary clause. It states that the symptoms of ADHD should not be better explained by what?. Anxiety or depression. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder. Schizophrenia or psychotic. Learning or intellectual disability.

According to the provided information processing model for ADHD, which specific cognitive process is most directly impaired, leading to the symptom of inattention?. Feedback loop. Sensory input. Filtering. Executing a plan.

The historical overview of ADHD mentions a significant shift in the DSM-III (1980). What was the nature of this change?. It separated developmental disorders from other mental illnesses for the first time. It moved away from presumed causes (aetiology) to focus on observable behaviors. It introduced medication as a primary treatment for the disorder. It officially named the condition Minimal Brain Damage (MBD).

The text distinguishes between 'attention' and 'concentration' in the context of ADHD. What is the key problem identified for individuals with ADHD?. A deficit in sustained attention (concentration). A tendency to make more mistakes under the influence of amphetamines. A failure in stimulus selection (attention). An inability to stay alert (vigilance).

Which of the following is listed as a non-DSM symptom specifically associated with hyperactivity?. Hyperfocus. Low self-esteem. Negative occupational outcomes. Academic impairment.

The text proposes an alternative name for ADHD. What is this alternative, and what core symptoms does it emphasize?. Executive Function Deficit Disorder. Concentration deficit disorder with restlessness. Attention Regulation Disorder with Impulsivity. Minimal Brain Dysfunction Disorder.

Under what specific circumstance does the text suggest medication is particularly useful for an individual with ADHD?. When the patient is an adult rather than a child. When symptoms are rated as 'Severe'. When the individual has significant comorbidities like anxiety. When the individual has a low IQ and lacks coping mechanisms.

The text suggests a specific reason for impulsivity in ADHD related to internal cognitive processes. What is this reason?. A complete failure to engage in any thinking before acting. A fundamental difficulty with mental processing, similar to an intellectual disability. The head is too full of thoughts, leaving no room to consider consequences. An inherent desire to accept negative consequences.

The source material lists several common comorbidities with ADHD. Which of the following is highlighted as 'one of the most common reasons for psychopathology' in general?. Oppositional defiant disorder. Sleep disorders. Anxiety disorders. Substance use disorders.

What kind of finding in 'intelligence'-testing is mentioned as being characteristic of an ADHD diagnosis?. A profile that is identical to that of autism spectrum disorder. A uniformly low profile across all subtests. A consistently high profile, especially in processing speed. A disharmonic profile.

According to the text, what is the primary difference in first-line medication typically used for children versus adults with ADHD?. Children are given bupropion, while adults are given SSRIs. Children are given methylphenidate, while adults are given (lis)dexamphetamines. There is no difference; medication is chosen based on symptom severity, not age. Children are given amphetamines, while adults are given methylphenidate.

In the information processing model, restlessness (hyperactivity) is explained as a failure to do what?. Filter out unimportant sensory information. Differentiate between primary and secondary objectives. Formulate a coherent plan of action. Perform the planned action while inhibiting other actions.

Which of these inattentive symptoms specifically mentions a potential internal experience for older adolescents and adults?. Is often easily distracted by extraneous stimuli. Often does not seem to listen when spoken to directly. Often has difficulty sustaining attention in tasks or play activities. Often loses things necessary for tasks or activities.

How does the source characterize the effectiveness of Bupropion as a treatment for ADHD?. As a highly effective treatment with strong evidence, used worldwide. As a first-line treatment for adults, equivalent to amphetamines. As a third-line treatment with limited proof of effectiveness, primarily used in the Netherlands. As a type of SSRI that is particularly effective for comorbid depression.

According to the source, what percentage of individuals with OCD also have a comorbid anxiety disorder?. 63%. more than 50%. 16-17%. 76%.

The 'Tic-related' specifier is applied to an OCD diagnosis when: The individual has a first-degree relative with a tic disorder. The individual has a current or past history of a tic disorder. The obsessions are related to an urge to perform a tic. The individual's compulsions are jerky and resemble motor tics.

A college student engages in recurrent cheek chewing to the point of causing sores and significant distress. They have tried to stop multiple times without success. Their symptoms do not fit the criteria for Trichotillomania or Excoriation disorder. What is the most likely diagnosis?. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorde. Unspecified Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorder. Body-focused repetitive behavior disorder.

What is the key difference between an obsession in OCD and the preoccupation in Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)?. Only obsessions in OCD lead to neutralizing behaviors (compulsions). Obsessions are always unwanted, whereas preoccupations in BDD are not. Obsessions are thoughts, while preoccupations are beliefs. The content of the preoccupation in BDD is focused exclusively on perceived flaws in physical appearance.

The 'muscle dysmorphia' specifier for Body Dysmorphic Disorder is unique in what way?. It is the only specifier related to body build rather than a specific feature. It requires the absence of repetitive behaviors like mirror checking. It is applied even if the individual is also preoccupied with other body areas. It is diagnosed more frequently in females than in males.

The four most consistently identified symptom dimensions of OCD are checking, washing/cleaning, obsessions/mental rituals, and which other dimension?. Body-focused repetitive behaviors. Hoarding/acquiring. Somatic/religious preoccupations. Symmetry/ordering.

Deep brain stimulation for OCD involves implanting electrodes into a brain region primarily associated with what function?. Memory formation. Emotional regulation. Sensory perception. Motor control.

Which of the following reactions to a traumatic event was required for the DSM-IV diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) but is not required for the DSM-5 diagnosis?. Intense fear, helplessness or horror. Insomnia or hypersomnia. Avoidance. Foreshortened sense of the future. Flashbacks.

Which of the following statements about reactive attachment disorder (RAD) is true?. RAD occurs only in children who lack healthy attachments. RAD occurs only in children who have secure attachments. RAD occurs only in children who have impaired communication. RAD occurs in children without a history of severe social neglect. RAD is a common condition, with a prevalence of 25% of children seen in clinical settings.

A 4-year-old boy in day care often displays fear that does not seem to be related to any of his activities. Although frequently distressed, he does not seek contact with any of the staff and does not respond when a staff member tries to comfort him. What additional caregiver-obtained information about this child would be important in deciding whether his symptoms represent reactive attachment disorder (RAD) or autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?. Age at first appearance of the behavior. History of language delay. Family history about his siblings. Presence of selective attachment behaviors. Indications that he has experienced severe social neglect.

For a child diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder, which of the following situations would qualify for a disorder specifier of “severe”?. There is a documented history of physical abuse of the child. The disorder has been present for 18 months. The child never expresses positive emotions when interacting with caregivers. The child meets all symptoms of the disorder, with each symptom manifesting at relatively high levels. The child has been in five foster homes.

A 25-year-old woman, new to your practice, tells you that a little more than 3 months ago she was accosted on her way home. The attacker told her he had a gun, was going to rape her, and would shoot her if she resisted. He walked her toward an alley. She was sure he would kill her afterward no matter what she did, and therefore she pushed away from him, aware that she might be shot. She was able to escape unharmed. She describes not being able to fall asleep for the first 2 nights after the attack and of avoiding that particular street in her neighborhood for 2 days following the event. She thinks that the attacker might have touched her breasts but cannot remember for sure. She has recently started feeling anxious all of the time and is tearful, and she has stopped going to work. She fears that something about her makes her “look like a victim.” What is the most likely diagnosis?. PTSD. Acute stress disorder. Adjustment disorder. Dissociative amnesia. Personality disorder.

Following discharge from the hospital, a 22-year-old man describes vivid and intrusive memories of his stay in the intensive care unit (ICU), where he received treatment for smoke inhalation. Now at home, he states that he has memories of people being tortured and hearing their screams. He dreams of this every night, waking from sleep in a terror. He talks about not feeling like himself after the experience, finding little pleasure in life after what happened to him, and being easily angered by his family; in addition, he avoids his physician out of fear that he will be told he needs to return to the ICU. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?. He has acute stress disorder because his life was in danger during the ICU stay. He has posttraumatic stress disorder because his life was in danger during the ICU stay. He has a delirium persisting from the ICU stay. He had a delirium in the ICU and now has an adjustment disorder. He has a psychotic disorder.

A 5-year-old child was present when her babysitter was sexually assaulted. Which of the following symptoms would be most suggestive of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in this child?. Playing normally with toys. Having dreams about princesses and castles. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing. Expressing no fear when talking about the event. Talking about the event with her parents.

Six months after the death of her husband, a 70-year-old woman is seen for symptoms of overwhelming sadness, anger regarding her husband’s unexpected death from a heart attack, intense yearning for him to come back, and repeated unsuccessful attempts to begin moving out of her large home (which she can no longer afford) due to inability to sort through and dispose of her husband’s belongings. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?. Major depressive disorder. B. Posttraumatic stress disorder. Adjustment disorder, with depressed mood. Other specified trauma- and stressor-related disorder (persistent complex bereavement disorder). Normative stress reaction.

A 25-year-old woman with asthma becomes extremely anxious when she gets an upper respiratory infection. She presents to the emergency department with complaints of being unable to breathe. While there, she begins to hyperventilate and then reports feeling extremely dizzy. Her hyperventilation causes her to become fatigued, and when the medical evaluation indicates that she is retaining carbon dioxide (CO2), it becomes necessary to admit her. The woman denies any other symptoms beyond anxiety. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?. Acute stress disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder. Adjustment disorder with anxiety. Psychological factors affecting other medical conditions. Factitious disorder.

How do the diagnostic criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in preschool children differ from those for PTSD in individuals older than 6 years?. The preschool criteria incorporate simpler language that can be understood by children 6 years or younger. The preschool criteria require one or more intrusion symptoms, one symptom representing either avoidance or negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and two or more arousal/reactivity symptoms, whereas the criteria for older individuals require symptoms in all four categories. The criteria for individuals older than 6 years require one or more intrusion symptoms, one symptom representing either avoidance or negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and two or more arousal/reactivity symptoms, whereas the preschool criteria require symptoms in all four categories. The preschool criteria require that the child directly experience the trauma, whereas the criteria for older individuals do not have this requirement. The preschool criteria include only one type of traumatic exposure—witnessing of a traumatic event occurring to a parent or caregiving figure—as a qualifying traumatic event.

match symptom to category. Intrusion. Negative mood. Dissociative. Avoidance. Arousal.

match symptom to category. Intrusion. Negative mood (acute stress disorder). Dissociative (acute stress disorder). Avoidance. Arousal. Negative alterations in cognitions and mood (PTSD).

Eighteen months following the death of her son, a 49-year-old woman consults you for psychotherapy. She reports that her son died following a skiing accident on a trip that she gave him as a gift for his 17th birthday. She is preoccupied with the death and blames herself for providing the gift of the trip. Although she denies any overt suicidal plans, she describes longing for her son and an intense wish to be with him. She has not entered her son’s room since his death, has difficulty relating to her husband and feels anger toward him for agreeing to allow their son to go on the ski trip, and reports arguments between them regarding her social isolation and her lack of interest in maintaining their home and preparing meals for their other children. She was treated with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor at full dose for 6 months after her son’s death but reports that the medication had no impact on her symptoms. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?. Major depressive episode. PTSD. Other specified trauma... Normal grief. Adjustment disorder.

Which of these is NOT listed as a way psychological or behavioral factors can adversely affect a medical condition under Criterion B of that diagnosis?. Constituting additional well-established health risks. Causing the medical condition to manifest as a different mental disorder. Interfering with treatment of the medical condition. Influencing the course of the medical condition via close temporal association.

in somatic symptom disorder, symptomatic for: +3 months. +1 month. +12 months. +6 months.

Which of the following is NOT a specified symptom type for Conversion Disorder?. With cognitive deficits. With anesthesia or sensory loss. With attacks or seizures. With abnormal movement.

For a diagnosis of Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self, if a person has falsified a serious illness on three separate occasions over five years, which specifier is appropriate?. Recurrent episodes. Persistent. Single episode. Severe.

A patient is diagnosed with Conversion Disorder that has lasted for 8 months. What specifier must be added to their diagnosis?. Recurrent. Severe. Acute episode. Persistent.

Which disorder requires clinical findings that provide evidence of incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological or medical conditions?. illness anxiety. psycho factors affecting another medical condition. conversion. somatic symptom.

A patient has a diagnosed medical condition of asthma. They experience severe anxiety, which frequently triggers asthma attacks requiring emergency room visits. According to the source, which diagnosis and severity level best fits this presentation?. Illness anxiety care-seeking type. Psycho factors... extreme. somatic symptom disorder moderate. psycho factors... severe.

According to the source, what is a primary criticism of the DSM-5's approach to Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders (SSRD)?. It fails to recognize the role of psychological factors in somatic conditions. It rigidly separates SSRD from anxiety and depression, ignoring their overlap. It overemphasizes the need for symptoms to be 'medically unexplained'. It creates a risk of pathologizing common health concerns due to unclear threshold criteria.

A person is diagnosed with Somatic Symptom Disorder. They fulfill Criterion B by exhibiting a persistently high level of anxiety about their symptoms and devoting excessive time to their health concerns. They also have multiple somatic complaints. What is the correct severity specification?. Mild. Moderate. Severe. Extreme.

Which of the following would be classified as a 'distal factor' in the psychological model of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders?. Extreme behaviors like reassurance seeking. The somatic symptoms themselves. Anxiety sensitivity. Misinterpretation of bodily sensations.

According to the Vlaeyen et al. pain model cited in the text, what aspect of the pain experience is often more invalidating than the pain sensation itself?. The patient's persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the pain. The objective, measurable intensity of the pain stimulus. Pain-related anxiety, including fear of movement and injury. The amount of time and energy devoted to managing the pain.

A patient meets the criteria for Somatic Symptom Disorder, and their primary complaint, which causes them significant distress and life disruption, is chronic, widespread pain. How should this be specified in the diagnosis?. With severe pain. With predominant pain. With persistent pain. With pain-related anxiety.

Which of the following symptoms is incompatible with a diagnosis of conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)?. Light-headedness upon standing up. Dystonic movements. Tunnel vision. Touch and temperature anesthesia with intact pinprick sensation over the left forearm. Transient leg weakness in a patient with known multiple sclerosis.

A 20-year-old man presents with the complaint of acute onset of decreased visual acuity in his left eye. Physical, neurological, and laboratory examinations are entirely normal, including stereopsis testing, fogging test, and brain magnetic resonance imaging. The remainder of the history is negative except for the patient’s report that since his midteens he has felt that his left cheekbone and eyebrow are too big. He spends a lot of time comparing the right and left sides of his face in the mirror. He is planning to have plastic surgery as soon as he graduates from college. Which of the following diagnoses are suggested?. Somatic symptom disorder and delusional disorder, somatic subtype. Somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder. Body dysmorphic disorder and conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder). Somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder, and body dysmorphic disorder. Delusional disorder, somatic subtype.

A 60-year-old man has prostate cancer with bony metastases that cause persistent pain. He is being treated with antiandrogen medications that result in hot flashes. Although (by his own assessment) his pain is well controlled with analgesics, he states that he is unable to work because of his symptoms. Despite reassurance that his medications are controlling his metastatic disease, every instance of pain leads him to worry that he has new bony lesions and is about to die, and he continually expresses fears about his impending death to his wife and children. Which diagnosis best fits this patient’s presentation?. Panic disorder. Illness anxiety disorder. Somatic symptom disorder. Adjustment disorder with anxious mood. Psychological factors affecting other medical conditions.

Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are primarily motivated by a need for which of the following?. Efficiency. Admiration. Control. Intimacy. Autonomy.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder (NPD)?. Excessive reference to others for self-definition and self-esteem regulation. Impaired ability to recognize or identify with the feelings and needs of others. Excessive attempts to attract and be the focus of the attention of others. Persistence at tasks long after the behavior has ceased to be functional or effective. Preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success or power.

Which of the following cognitive or perceptual disturbances are associated with borderline personality disorder?. Odd thinking and speech. Ideas of reference. Odd beliefs. Transient stress-related paranoid ideation. Superstitiousness.

A 43-year-old warehouse security guard comes to your office complaining of vague feelings of depression for the last few months. He denies any particular sense of fear or anxiety. As he gets older, he wonders if he should try harder to form relationships with other people. He feels little desire for this but notes that his coworkers seem happier than he, and they have many relationships. He has never felt comfortable with other people, not even with his own family. He has lived alone since early adulthood and has been self-sufficient. He almost always works night shifts to avoid interactions with others. He tries to remain low-key and undistinguished to discourage others from striking up conversations with him, as he does not understand what they want when they talk to him. Which personality disorder would best fit with this presentation?. Schizotypal. Avoidant. Schizoid. Paranoid. Dependent.

Which of the following behaviors or states would be highly unusual in an individual with schizoid personality disorder?. An angry outburst at a colleague who criticizes his work. Turning down an invitation to a party. Lacking desire for sexual experiences. Drifting with regard to life goals. Difficulty working in a collaborative work environment.

A 7-year-old boy in second grade displays significant delays in his ability to reason, solve problems, and learn from his experiences. He has been slow to develop reading, writing, and mathematics skills in school. All through development, these skills lagged behind peers, although he is making slow progress. These deficits significantly impair his ability to play in an age-appropriate manner with peers and to begin to acquire independent skills at home. He requires ongoing assistance with basic skills (dressing, feeding, and bathing himself; doing any type of schoolwork) on a daily basis. What is the appropriate severity rating for this patient’s current presentation?. Mild. Moderate. Severe. Extreme.

A 21-year-old man, not previously diagnosed with a developmental disorder, presents for evaluation after taking a leave from college for psychological reasons. He makes little eye contact, does not appear to pick up on social cues, has become disinterested in friends, spends hours each day on the computer surfing the Internet and playing games, and has become so sensitive to smells that he keeps multiple air fresheners in all locations of the home. He reports that he has had long-standing friendships dating from childhood and high school (corroborated by his parents). He reports making many friends in his fraternity at college. His parents report good social and communication skills in childhood, although he was quite shy and was somewhat inflexible and ritualistic at home. What is the least likely diagnosis?. depression. scihzophreniform or schizophrenia. autism. OCD. social anxiety.

Which of the following disorders is generally not comorbid with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?. ADHD. Rett syndrome. Selective mutism. Intellectual disability. Stereotypic movement disorder.

Which of the following is not a criterion for the DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?. Onset of several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms prior to age 12 years. Manifestation of several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms in two or more settings (e.g., at home, school, or work; with friends or relatives; in other activities). Persistence of symptoms for at least 12 months. Clear evidence that symptoms interfere with, or reduce the quality of, social, academic, or occupational functioning. Inability to explain symptoms as a manifestation of another mental disorder (e.g., mood disorder, anxiety disorder, dissociative disorder, personality disorder, substance intoxication or withdrawal).

Which of the following statements about the diagnosis of specific learning disorder is false?. Specific learning disorder is distinct from learning problems associated with a neurodegenerative cognitive disorder. If intellectual disability (intellectual developmental disorder) is present, the learning difficulties must be in excess of those expected. An uneven profile of abilities is typical in specific learning disorder. Attentional difficulties and motor clumsiness that are subthreshold for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder or developmental coordination disorder are frequently associated with specific learning disorder. There are four formal subtypes of specific learning disorder.

Which of the following is a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion for Tourette’s disorder?. Tics occur throughout a period of more than 1 year, and during this period there was never a tic-free period of more than 3 consecutive months. Onset is before age 5 years. The tics may wax and wane in frequency but have persisted for more than 1 year since first tic onset. Motor tics must precede vocal tics. The tics may occur many times a day for at least 4 weeks, but no longer than 12 consecutive months.

A 7-year-old boy who has speech delays presents with long-standing, repetitive hand waving, arm flapping, and finger wiggling. His mother reports that she first noticed these symptoms when he was a toddler and wonders whether they are tics. She says that he tends to flap more when he is engrossed in activities, such as while watching his favorite television program, but will stop when called or distracted. Based on the mother’s report, which of the following conditions would be highest on your list of possible diagnoses?. Provisional tic disorder. Persistnet (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder. Chorea. Dystonia. Motor stereotypies.

Criterion A for the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder (DID) requires the presence of two or more distinct personality states or an experience of possession. Which of the following symptom presentations would not qualify as a manifestation of an alternate identity?. An intrusive but nonhallucinatory voice that is not recognized as being part of one’s own normal thought flow. Suddenly emergent strong impulses or emotions. Acute changes in personal preferences in areas such as food, clothing, or even political convictions. An acute sense of being in a different body, such as an adult feeling like he or she is in a child’s body. A religious experience of being reborn into a new spiritual state that affects multiple domains of the individual’s behavior.

Which of the following statements best describes how panic attacks differ from panic disorder?. Panic attacks require fewer symptoms for a definitive diagnosis. Panic attacks are discrete, occur suddenly, and are usually less severe. Panic attacks are invariably unexpected. Panic attacks represent a syndrome that can occur with a variety of other disorders. Panic attacks cannot be secondary to a medical condition.

The determination of whether a panic attack is expected or unexpected is ultimately best made by which of the following?. Careful clinical judgment. Whether the patient associates it with external stress. The presence or absence of nocturnal panic attacks. Ruling out possible culture-specific syndromes. 24-Hour electroencephalographic monitoring.