When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation
during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights
are visible? After passing the visual descent point (VDP). When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more.
When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. (Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you
an “unreliable” advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics
indicates good signal. You know you can only fly the approach down to LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft.
because of the FSS advisory can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 RVR in your CAT B airplane can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA of 560'. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR
runway? Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a
caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet
of runway for a caution zone. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the
event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
60 days. 90 days. 30 days. An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating
condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo.” conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas
of weather. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will cancel the approach mode annunciation. require flying point-to-point on the approach to comply with the
published approach procedure. have no affect if the approach is flown manually. A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an
air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and
District of Columbia when operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more
than 1 hour. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation
receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an
instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning
navigation. proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument
approach and land. The rate of descent for a 3.5º angle of descent glidescope is 740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed. 740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed. 740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white. If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will
increase from the MAWP an extension of the outbound final approach course. an extension of the inbound final approach course. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the
relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? They are both the same, 31,000 feet. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes
prior to landing. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be
notified of an occurrence. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a
multiengine turbine powered airplane may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30
minutes. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes
prior to landing. may all be erased, prior to each flight, unless the NTSB has requested that it be kept for 60 days. Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the
end. Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side
denoting distance to end. When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate
airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected
to be operational and available at the ETA. a GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the
ETA. authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS
II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request ATC clearance for the deviation. notify ATC of the deviation as soon aspracticable. When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you can taxi past this point at your own risk. must hold short until “cleared” to taxi onto or past the runway. may not cross the line until ATC allows you to “enter” or “cross” by
instruction. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes
prior to landing. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be
notified of an occurrence. (Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area markings denote where you are clear of the runway. where you must be to start your ILS procedure. where you are clear of the ILS critical area.
