ENGINE WORKSHOP BANK 4

Question 534/702 The thrust control module has redundant components in the linkage between each thrust lever, reverse thrust lever, and ______. resolvers. EEC. CCS. RDC.

Question 535/702 The RDCs send signals from the fuel control module to the ______. engine fuel pump. CCS. thrust levers. fuel manifold.

Question 536/702 The thrust control module controls the forward and reverse thrust of the ______. engines. fuel flow. thrust levers. compressors.

Question 537/702 The TCM includes PCBs and an ARINC 429 interface housed in ______ enclosures. plastic. aluminum. steel. titanium.

Question 538/702 Each fuel control switch has a ______ to permit replacement without removal of the TCM. connector. cap. handle. cover.

Question 539/702 The T/R lever is blocked when the forward thrust lever is forward of idle by ______. 2 degrees. 3 degrees. 4 degrees. 5 degrees.

Question 540/702 Deployment of T/R levers can only be done at the ______ position. maximum power. idle power. mid power. reverse thrust.

Question 541/702 Each lever travel is 87 degrees from stowed to ______ movement position. minimum. maximum. mid. reverse.

Question 542/702 The detent force for the T/R lever is ______ lb (kg). 5 (2.3). 6 (2.7). 7 (3.1). 8 (3.6).

Question 543/702 The switches on the forward thrust lever knob operate at ______ V DC. 12. 24. 28. 32.

Question 544/702 The A/T disconnect switches are momentary pushbutton, single-pole single-throw, ______ units. single-break. double-break. riple-break. quad-break.

Question 545/702 The fuel control switches have ______ positions. ON/OFF. START/STOP. RUN/CUTOFF. OPEN/CLOSED.

Question 546/702 The T/R switches use ______ V DC power. 12. 24. 28. 32.

Question 547/702 The solenoid in the interlock mechanism operates with a maximum ______ lb (kg) force. 4 (1.8). 5 (2.4). 6 (2.7). 7 (3.1).

Question 548/702 The solenoid has a circuit that controls the current flow to maximize ______ pull force. motor. actuator. lever. solenoid.

Question 549/702 Each lever operates two isolated ______ through a dual gear/linkage drive. actuators. solenoids. resolvers. sensors.

Question 550/702 The thrust management system controls the ______ servo drive. auto-throttle. fuel control. EEC. TCM.

Question 551/702 The servo drive system provides two-way communication with the auto-throttles on the ______ interface. ARINC 410. ARINC 420. ARINC 429. ARINC 430.

Question 552/702 Built-In Test (BIT) is included in the ______ system. fuel control. auto-throttle servo drive. resolver. RDC.

Question 553/702 Servo motors drive the levers directly through a ______ system with a high gear ratio. worm/gear. lever/gear. motor/gear. throttle/gear.

Question 554/702 The servo motors drive the levers through a ______ clutch that allows manual override. hydraulic. pneumatic. friction. mechanical.

Question 555/702 The mechanism includes two Motor Control Units (MCU) and one ______. Signal Control Unit (SCU). Signal Conversion Unit (SCU). Servo Control Unit (SCU). Speed Control Unit (SCU).

Question 556/702 The MCUs and SCU are housed in an ______ enclosure. plastic. aluminum. steel. titanium.

Question 557/702 he PCBs are housed in an aluminum housing on the ______. EEC. RDC. TCM. CCS.

Question 558/702 The electronics box interfaces with the module through ______ connectors. three. four. five. six.

Question 559/702 The electronics box is environmentally sealed for ______. insulation. protection. cooling. safety.

Question 560/702 The thrust control module supplies control for forward and ______ thrust of the engines. idle. maximum. reverse. reduced.

Question 561/702 The auto-throttle servo drive system communicates using the ______ interface. ARINC 420. ARINC 429. ARINC 430. ARINC 431.

Question 562/702 The built-in test (BIT) feature in the servo drive system is used for ______. monitoring. testing. controlling. indicating.

Question 563/702 The engine oil is stored in a reservoir that supplies oil to the ______ and pressure filter housing. oil pump. fuel pump. hydraulic pump. coolant pump.

Question 564/702 The scavenge pump elements remove the oil from the bearing compartments and gearboxes and return it to the ______. oil tank. fuel tank. coolant tank. hydraulic tank.

Question 565/702 Sensors send oil pressure and temperature data to the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC) and an oil quantity transmitter sends oil quantity data to the ______. Fuel Control Module (FCM). Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC). Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE). Engine Monitoring Unit (EMU).

Question 566/702 The oil tank contains the necessary quantity of engine oil and serves as the oil system servicing point with an oil fill cap at the opening in the top of the oil tank, which is the oil system ______ point. maintenance. inspection. servicing. refilling.

Question 567/702 A graduated oil level sight glass on the side of the oil tank shows the ______ of oil in the oil tank. color. quality. temperature. quantity.

Question 568/702 The engine oil storage system has interfaces with other engine oil system components through tubing and with the Common Core System (CCS) through the Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC) connection to the oil ______ transmitter. pressure. temperature. quantity. flow.

Question 569/702 The oil pump assembly contains a pressure pump and ______ scavenge pumps. 5. 8. 10. 12.

Question 570/702 The oil flows from the filter element to the Engine Oil Surface Coolers (EOSC) and/or the engine oil ______ to decrease the temperature of the oil before it goes to the engine bearings and gearboxes. strainers. sensors. filters. coolers.

Question 571/702 The scavenge pump elements pull the oil from the bearing compartments and gearboxes and send it back to the oil tank through the Oil Debris Monitoring System (ODMS) and ______ scavenge filter. secondary. primary. dedicated. common.

Question 572/702 The oil distribution system includes sections for oil pressurization, oil cooling, oil scavenge, and ______. oil filtration. breather air. fuel temperature. oil temperature.

Question 573/702 The pressure pump pulls the oil from the oil tank and pressurizes the oil for the distribution system. A pressure pump pressure relief valve controls the maximum system pressure and opens to let oil go back into the pump ______. inlet. outlet. reservoir. tank.

Question 574/702 The oil goes from the Engine Oil Surface Coolers (EOSC) or the surface cooler Bypass Valve (BPV) to the engine Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE) and then through the last-chance oil ______ to the bearing compartments and gearboxes. strainers. filters. screens. coolers.

Question 575/702 Excitation power for the high pressure oil filter differential pressure transducer comes from channel A of the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC), while channel B of the EEC gives excitation power to the scavenge oil filter differential pressure transducer. Power for the Oil Debris Signal Conditioner (ODSC) and the Oil Debris Sensor (ODS) comes from channel A of the ______. HMU. MEDC. EEC.

Question 576/702 The oil pump and pressure filter housing pull engine oil from the engine oil tank, and the maximum pressure before the oil starts to go back to the pump inlet is ______ psi. 500. 535. 600. 635.

Question 577/702 The maximum pressure relief valve opens to let some of the oil flow back to the pump inlet during ______ conditions. cold start. high pressure. low pressure. normal operating.

Question 578/702 The oil goes through the pressure oil filter to remove particle contamination, and this filter is monitored for ______. flow rate. temperature. pressure. differential pressure.

Question 579/702 The oil goes from the Engine Oil Surface Coolers (EOSC) or the surface cooler Bypass Valve (BPV) to the engine Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE) and then through the last-chance oil ______ to the bearing compartments and gearboxes. strainers. filters. screens. coolers.

Question 580/702 The scavenge air/oil mixture goes through the oil debris separator and the scavenge filter before it goes back to the ______. oil pump. oil tank. oil cooler. oil filter.

Question 581/702 he core flow is used for combustion, driving the turbine sections, making some forward thrust, turbine cooling and sealing, Engine Section Stator (ESS) anti-icing, and High Pressure Compressor (HPC) servo air for valve control muscle pressure. The internal engine cooling and sealing gets air from IPC stage 8 - IP8, HPC stage 3 - HP3, and HPC stage 6 - ______. HP6. HP5. HP4. HP7.

Question 582/702 A Secondary Air System (SAS) gets air from the compressor section. When selected, it uses this air to cool the engine (turbine) internally and seal and pressurize the main bearing ______. shaft. compartments. casings. chambers.

Question 583/702 An airflow control system maintains stable airflow through the IPC and HPC over a wide range of speeds by changing the guide vane airflow angle of the IPC inlet air and opening compressor ______ valves at low speed and when airflow is disrupted. bypass. bleed. relief. exhaust.

Question 584/702 The engine anti-icing system is designed to prevent any ice accretion that may occur, particularly in and around the areas of the ESS vanes at the inlet to the Intermediate Pressure Compressor (IPC), and the Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) that guide the airflow into the ______. ESS. IPC. HPC. fan.

Question 585/702 Zone 1 is ventilated by ram air through an inlet in the inlet cowl and goes out through a vent that is combined with the right VFSG access door. Zone 2 fan air goes into the zone through inlets at the front edge of the core fairings and returns to the fan stream through outlets at the 3:00 and 9:00 positions near the A frame root. Zone 3 fan air goes into the zone through tubes on the thrust reverser inner wall and goes out between the aft edge of the thrust reverser inner wall and the ______. nacelle. exhaust sleeve. thrust reverser. fan stream.

Question 586/702 . The EICAS display only functions as a primary data screen. true. false.

Question 587/702 2. Before START is selected on the P5 panel, all engine indications are visible on the EICAS display. true. false.

Question 588/702 3. The EEC sends start parameter data to the EICAS during the start sequence. true. false.

Question 589/702 4. The EICAS Start mode indications include AUTORESTART. true. false.

Question 590/702 5. The stable idle green tick mark disappears after the start sequence is complete. true. false.

Question 591/702 6. AUTOSTART is displayed above the N2 display during the engine start sequence. true. false.

Question 592/702 7. Monitoring oil pressure increase is unnecessary during the engine start sequence. true. false.

Question 593/702 8. Fuel flow should be monitored during the engine start sequence. true. false.

Question 594/702 9. EGT increase and maximum should be monitored during the engine start sequence. true. false.

Question 595/702 10. N1 and N3 increase should not be monitored during the engine start sequence. true. false.

Question 596/702 The ignition system for each engine contains these components: Exciter box, High tension ignition lead, and ______. Ignition coil. Spark plug. Igniter plug. Starter motor.

Question 597/702 Each ignition lead supplies the electrical output from the related ignition exciter to its ______. ignition coil. spark plug. igniter plug. starter motor.

Question 598/702 The electrical output from the ignition exciter causes sparks at the tip of the related igniter plug, resulting in the ignition of the fuel and air mixture in the ______. fuel manifold. compressor. combustion section. turbine.

Question 599/702 Electrical power from thermal circuit breakers on the P300 and P400 panels provide the power to the ignition system when the fuel control switch is set to ______. ON. OFF. RUN. START.

Question 600/702 The EEC sends a signal for a high-energy output voltage from the exciter when necessary. One of the two ignition systems operates at each ground start to prevent one plug from becoming more worn than the other and to ensure no ______. engine flooding. fuel leakage. system faults. performance issues.

Question 601/702 The EEC uses igniter 1 and 2 alternately during ground starts and both igniters for in-flight starts or auto-relight, ensuring ______. balanced wear. optimal performance. redundancy. cost-effectiveness.

Question 602/702 The engine exhaust system consists of four main subsystems: Turbine Exhaust (Collector/Nozzle System), Thrust Reverser (T/R) System, T/R Actuation and Control System, and ______. Exhaust Manifold System. Exhaust Gas Recirculation (EGR) System. Exhaust Aftertreatment System. T/R Proximity Sensors.

Question 603/702 The collector/nozzle system comprises the exhaust nozzle and the ______. fan blade. centerbody. turbine. thrust reverser.

Question 604/702 The exhaust nozzle, forming the outer contour of the exhaust system, attaches to the outer flange of the Low Pressure Turbine (LPT), providing protection to the aft pylon with a ______. heat shield. fire seal. thermal barrier. insulation layer.

Question 605/702 The forward and aft centerbody sections, part of the primary exhaust system, attach to each other and to the LPT case, forming the inner annulus of the exhaust system to streamline the gas flow from the LPT away from the engine, thus contributing to the generation of ______. reverse thrust. forward thrust. engine cooling. exhaust gases.

Question 606/702 The T/R system controls the direction of the fan exhaust airflow, supplementing the brakes to decelerate the airplane on the ground, and is commanded by the ______. autothrottle. reverse thrust lever. engine electronic controller. fuel control switch.

Question 607/702 The Thrust Reverser Actuation and Control System (TRACS) includes various components such as the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) with Isolation Valve (IV) and Directional Control Valve (DCV), track lock, hydraulic linear actuators, synchronization mechanism, feedback units, and ______. throttle lever. manual drive units. fuel flow transmitter. engine oil filter.

Question 608/702 The TRACS ensures proper deployment and stowage of the translating sleeves, synchronization of their operation, and enables both ______ and ______ for maintenance purposes. hydraulic drive, manual drive. electrical drive, hydraulic drive. manual drive, electrical drive. pneumatic drive, manual drive.

Question 609/702 Electrical power for the left thrust reverser functions is supplied from the ______ panel, while the right thrust reverser functions receive power from the ______ panel. P100, P200. P200, P300. P300, P400. P400, P500.

Question 610/702 The CCS controls the T/R translation based on inputs from the reverse thrust lever switch, ensuring proper deployment and stowage of the thrust reverser, thus contributing to aircraft ______. fuel efficiency. aerodynamic performance. structural integrity. safety.

Question 611/702 The fuel storage system includes __ and the fuel vent system. fuel tanks. fuel lines. fuel pumps. fuel injectors.

Question 612/702 The __ provide access to the fuel tanks for inspection and maintenance. tank end ribs. tank access panels. vent channels. baffle ribs.

Question 613/702 __ valves are used to remove fuel and water from the fuel tanks. Fuel vent float. Fuel sump drain. Surge tank pressure relief. Baffle rib check.

Question 614/702 The __ prevent large pressure differences between the tanks and the external air pressure. fuel vent crossflow check valves. surge tank pressure relief valves. baffle rib check valves. vent tubes.

Question 615/702 __ are used in the vent scoops to ensure a flame does not enter the fuel tanks through the vent system. Flame arrestors. Fuel sump drain valves. Check valves. Vent tubes.

Question 616/702 Each of the main tanks has a capacity of __ gallons (21,085 L). 4000. 5570. 6000. 7500.

Question 617/702 __ valves on the vent tubes open to let the tank vent or close to prevent fuel in the vent tubes. Surge tank drain check. Fuel vent float. Baffle rib check. Fuel sump drain.

Question 618/702 The __ decrease the flow of vent air into the vent system. fuel vent crossflow check valves. baffle rib check valves. vent tubes. surge tank pressure relief valves.

Question 619/702 __ in the surge tanks provide a small positive pressure to the tanks when the airplane has forward airspeed. Vent scoops. Check valves. Vent tubes. Fuel sump drain valves.

Question 620/702 The pressure refueling system includes the __. Refueling Control Panel (RCP). Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS). Engine Fuel Feed System (EFFS). Refuel door proximity sensor.

Question 621/702 The __ gives a signal that the RCP door is open. Refuel adapter. Refuel valve body. Refuel valve actuator. Refuel door proximity sensor.

Question 622/702 The __ controls the pressure refueling system. Fuel Control Panel (FCP). Refueling Control Panel (RCP). Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS). Engine Fuel Feed System (EFFS).

Question 623/702 The __ give a mechanical connection between the refuel valve actuators and the refuel valve body and driveshaft. Refuel valve adapters. Refuel adapters. Refuel door proximity sensors. Refuel/jettison manifold components.

Question 624/702 The refuel/jettison manifold drain valves are used to __. Let the fuel drain from the manifold to the center tank. Transfer fuel from one tank to another. Control the refuel valve actuators. Provide pressure to the refuel valve body and driveshaft.

Question 625/702 The __ sends data to open and close the refuel valve body and driveshaft with the refuel valve actuators. RCP. FQMS. FCP. EFFS.

Question 626/702 Fuel from the refuel/jettison manifold tubes goes to the __. Refuel valve body and driveshaft. Refuel adapters. Refuel valve actuators. Refuel door proximity sensor.

Question 627/702 To transfer fuel from one tank to a different tank, you use the __. Refuel door proximity sensor. Refueling Control Panel (RCP) and the Fuel Control Panel (FCP). Refuel adapters and refuel valve actuators. Surge tank and center tank.

Question 628/702 The engine fuel shutoff valves close when the __. Fuel control switch is set to RUN. Fuel control switch is set to CUTOFF. Engine fire control switch is set to NORMAL. Engine start switch is set to START.

Question 629/702 The __ open the engine fuel shutoff valves. Fuel control switch set to RUN. Engine fire control switch set to NORMAL. Engine start switch set to START and released to NORM, when on the ground. All of the above.

Question 630/702 When the fire handle is set to the FIRE position, the __. Fuel control switch is set to RUN. Engine fuel shutoff valve closes. Engine start switch is set to START. Refuel/jettison manifold opens.

Question 631/702 APU fuel feed is not controlled by the APU Controller (APUC) and the Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS) function. true. false.

Question 632/702 The left aft boost pump comes on regardless of the APU switch position when AC power is available. true. false.

Question 633/702 The APU DC pump can supply fuel to both the left and right engines. true. false.

Question 634/702 How does the NGS air conditioning system increase pressure and regulate temperature of the cabin air supply?. By increasing pressure/temperature using MDC. By regulating temperature of MDC discharge air with HX and ram air control valve. By utilizing HX to get air through ground cooling valve on ground. By allowing ram air flow from right air conditioning ram air duct through ram duct check valve.

Question 635/702 What is the purpose of the software monitoring the NEA generated by the ASM for oxygen content?. To detect a degraded ASM condition. To control flow control valve position when NGS operates in O2 concentration mode. To modulate position of ram air control valve to ensure correct temperature for ASM efficiency. To regulate the flow rate of NEA to fuel tanks.

Question 636/702 2. NGS components are controlled by RPDUs and RDCs. true. false.

Question 637/702 3. The ground cooling valve closes at startup. true. false.

Question 638/702 4. The Motor cooling SOV opens after MDC starts. true. false.

Question 639/702 How is the fire protection system categorized?. Fire detection and fire extinguishing. Smoke detection and fire extinguishing. Fire detection and smoke extinguishing. Smoke detection and smoke extinguishing.

Question 640/702 Which areas does the fire detection system monitor for smoke, overheat, or fire conditions?. Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, MLG, Lavatories, Crew Rests. Cockpit, Wings, Fuselage, Galley. Fuel Tanks, Wingtips, Cabin, Cargo doors. Engines, APU, Wings, Cargo Compartments.

Question 641/702 How many fire detection channels does each engine have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Question 642/702 What sends signals to the main engine data concentrator (MEDC)?. Remote data concentrator (RDC). Fire detector elements. Flight control system. Engine control module.

Question 643/702 How does overheat detection differ from fire detection in terms of cockpit indications?. Master caution shows instead of master warning. Master warning shows instead of master caution. Caution aural warning bell instead of fire bell. Caution aural warning bell instead of fire bell.

Question 644/702 What does the cargo fire detection system (CFDS) provide capability for within each lower cargo compartment?. Fire detection, Overheat detection. Smoke detection, Fire detection. Overheat detection, Smoke suppression. Fire suppression, Overheat detection.

Question 645/702 What indication occurs when the pressure in the APU fire extinguishing bottle is low?. EICAS messages and indicator lights. Master caution light. Master warning light. Fire bell aural warning.

Question 646/702 Where is the remote APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch located?. On the P40 panel on the NLG strut. On the flight deck. On the cargo fire/engine control panel. On the APU compartment.

Question 647/702 What action is required to arm the APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE switch?. Pushing in the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch. Pulling the fire switch out. Turning the fire switch left or right. Pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch.

Question 648/702 How is the APU fire extinguishing bottle discharged manually?. By turning the fire switch left or right. By pressing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch. By pulling the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch. By pushing the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch.

Question 649/702 Where is the APU compartment located in the aircraft?. In the aft fuselage. In the nose con. In the wings. In the main cabin.

Question 650/702 What are the APU flight deck controls?. APU selector, APU maintenance switch, APU fire switch. Engine start switch, Engine shutdown switch, APU fire switch. APU start button, APU stop button, APU reset button. Engine control switch, Engine reset switch, APU fire switch.

Question 651/702 What components make up the APU oil indicating system?. APU oil level sensor. APU oil temperature sensor. APU oil level sight glass. A,B and C are correct.

Question 652/702 Which interface does the APU oil level sensor communicate with?. Gearbox sump. APU controller (APUC). APU oil level sight glass. APU oil temperature sensor.

Question 653/702 What is the function of the oil temperature sensor in the APU oil indicating system?. It measures the level of the oil. It shows the oil level. It senses the temperature of the oil. It provides an indication of the oil quantity to maintenance personnel.

Question 654/702 What is the function of the duplex fuel nozzles in the APU fuel system?. To supply fuel for APU start and continued operation. To control the fuel flow from the fuel module. To filter the fuel before it enters the fuel module. To provide electrical power to the APU fuel system.

Question 655/702 Which component of the fuel system controls the operation of the fuel pump?. Fuel pump motor controller. DC electric motor. Fuel filter. Primary and secondary fuel solenoid valves.

Question 656/702 Backup power is from the ________ or FCE battery. APU. HBB. EFB. FCC.

Question 657/702 If the mode master AFF finds a fault and causes the A/P to disengage, the MCP selects a different ________. AFF. FCM. MCP. PFD.

Question 658/702 he A/P disengage logic is in the ________ in the FCEs. MCP. AFF. PFD. ND.

Question 659/702 If the three AFF partitions fail, the autopilot will ________. Engage. Remain engaged. Disconnect. Switch to manual.

Question 660/702 In FD mode, the AFF sends command data to the ________. FMF. DCAF. IRS. CDU.

Question 661/702 The BDA servo drive sends the commands to the ________. ACEs. BDAs. RVDTs. PFCF.

Question 662/702 The AFDS operates in two modes: autopilot and ________. Manual. FD. LNAV. VNAV.

Question 663/702 In autopilot mode, the AFF sends commands to the ________. PFCF. DCAF. CDU. IRS.

Question 664/702 The PFCF sends autopilot commands to the BDA servo drive in the ________ ACE. C1. C2. C3. C4.

Question 665/702 At 80 knots during takeoff, the autothrottle mode changes to ________. OFF. ARM. HOLD. THR REF.

Question 666/702 To start the takeoff mode, one of the two ________ switches on the thrust levers should be pushed. A/P. TO/GA. FD. LNAV.

Question 667/702 The takeoff pitch commands include pitch attitude, combination of airspeed and pitch attitude, and target ________. Altitude. Speed. Thrust. Roll.

Question 668/702 Mode master makes the selection of automatic mode transitions, while the non-master FCE A/P channels operate in the same modes as the ________. FD (Flight Director). PFCF (Primary Flight Control Function). AFF (Autoflight Function). DCAF (Display and Crew Alerting Function).

Question 669/702 A/P disengage logic is located in the ________ in the FCEs. PFD. FMC. AFF. IRS.

Question 670/702 The AFF calculates AFF pitch, roll, and ________ commands. Thrust. Speed. Yaw. Altitude.

Question 671/702 The MCP gets 28V DC from which sources?. Capt inst bus through RPDU 71. F/O inst bus through RPDU 72. Both. None.

Question 672/702 The heading/track commands are calculated for heading select, heading hold, track select, and ________. Track hold. Approach hold. LNAV hold. Navigation hold.

Question 673/702 The AFF uses localizer deviation, localizer deviation rate, and ILS course inputs to calculate ________ commands. Roll. Pitch. Thrust. Altitude.

Question 674/702 During runway alignment, the AFF uses ________ course and airplane heading inputs to calculate commands. GPS. IRS. ILS. FMF.

Question 675/702 The yaw command for the rollout mode is calculated using localizer deviation, localizer deviation rate, and ________ position. Elevator. Rudder. Aileron. Flap.

Question 676/702 8. The primary components of the pneumatic system are installed in the cockpit. true. false.

Question 677/702 9. The Engine BLEED PRV regulates temperature in the pneumatic system. true. false.

Question 678/702 10. Both Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) exchange data via a CAN bus for wing double loop detection. true. false.

Question 679/702 How is the engine air bleed pressure pneumatically regulated in the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

Question 680/702 When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

Question 681/702 What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high altitude.

Question 682/702 Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF. Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire. Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft. Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature.

Question 683/702 How does the Overpressure Valve (OPV) operate, and at what pressure levels does it open and close?. Normally open, closes pneumatically at 75 psi, fully closed at 85 psi. Normally closed, opens pneumatically at 75 psi, fully open at 85 psi. Normally open, closes pneumatically at 44 psi, fully closed at 36 psi. Normally closed, opens pneumatically at 44 psi, fully open at 36 psi.

Question 684/702 What does the transducer connected to both BMCs measure, and where is this pressure indicated?. Regulated pressure downstream from the PRV, indicated on ECAM. Transferred pressure downstream from the HPV, indicated on MCDU. Fan airflow to the precooler, indicated on ECAM. Bleed air temperature, indicated on ECAM.

Question 685/702 What does the transducer connected to the related BMC measure, and which components does this pressure monitor?. Transferred pressure downstream from the HP Valve (HPV), monitors PRV and HPV. Fan airflow to the precooler, monitors precooler temperature. Regulated temperature downstream from the precooler, monitors system. Heat exchanger outlet temperature, monitors precooler.

Question 686/702 What is the function of the Fan Air Valve (FAV), and how is it controlled?. Pneumatically regulates fan airflow for bleed air temperature, controlled by FAV control thermostat (CTL THERMST). Electrically regulates fan airflow for engine bleed pressure, controlled by ECAM. Pneumatically regulates precooler temperature, controlled by heat exchanger sensor. Electrically regulates precooler airflow, controlled by BMC.

Question 687/702 What does the heat exchanger outlet temperature sensor measure, and what message is generated if it reaches a certain temperature?. Regulated temperature downstream from the precooler, generates a class 2 maintenance message "AIR BLEED" on ECAM. Engine fire temperature, generates a class 1 maintenance message "ENGINE FIRE" on ECAM. Fan airflow temperature, generates an alert on MCDU. PRV closure temperature, generates a class 3 maintenance message on ECAM.

Question 688/702 The engine air bleed pressure is pneumatically regulated by the __________ when air is supplied by the HP stage, or by the __________ when the air is supplied by the Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

Question 689/702 When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

Question 690/702 What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high.

Question 691/702 Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF. Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire. Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft. Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature.

Question 692/702 What controls the APU Bleed Control Valve for the APIC APU?. Electrically and pneumatically. Manually by the crew. Electrically controlled and fuel operated by a servo valve. Automatically by air pressure.

Question 693/702 In the absence of fuel pressure or electrical power, what happens to the APU Bleed Control Valve for the APIC APU?. It remains in its last position. It springs open automatically. It shuts off the bleed supply to the aircraft pneumatic system. It moves to the cross-bleed position.

Question 694/702 What controls the primary motor of the X-BLEED valve?. The BMC. Manual operation. Electrical DC motors. BMC controls the position of the valve according to the APU bleed configuration.

Question 695/702 In which position is the X-BLEED selector used to confirm automatic closure during bleed leak detection?. OPEN. AUTO. SHUT. OFF.

Question 696/702 Which bleed system is supplied when the X-BLEED selector is in the OPEN position for ground air supply?. Both LH and RH systems. Only the RH system. Only the LH system. Neither LH nor RH system.

Question 697/702 When can the ground air supply be used for Engine 2 start?. OPEN position. Engine 2 start using ground air supply. SHUT position. OFF mode.

Question 698/702 Which areas have a double loop for monitoring in the leak detection system?. RH wing, pack 2. LH and RH pylons. LH wing, pack 1, and mid fuselage APU duct. Protected areas with double loop for RH wing and pack 2, LH wing, pack 1, and mid fuselage APU duct.

Question 699/702 What does each loop in the leak detection system consist of?. Each loop consists of sensing elements connected in series. Isolated sensors. Redundant sensors. Multiple loops.

Question 700/702 The crossbleed (X-BLEED) valve is an electrically controlled shut-off valve operated by two electrical DC motors. The primary motor is used for AUTOmatic mode, and the secondary motor is used for ____________ operation. electrical. hydraulic. manual. pneumatic.

Question 701/702 The X-BLEED selector on the overhead panel controls the position of the valve. In the OPEN position, it is used for various purposes, including left and right pack supply using single engine bleed and Engine crossbleed start using opposite engine bleed. In the SHUT position, it is used to confirm automatic closure during ____________. bleed leak detection. engine start. system shutdown. emergency procedures.

Question 702/702 A ground cart may supply the pneumatic system, and the supply duct is located on the left-hand side of the cross bleed valve. Only the LH bleed system is supplied when the X-BLEED selector is in the ____________ position for ground air supply. OFF. AUTO. OPEN. SHUT.