|1. A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.) better security easy to create better device performance when acting as both client and server lacks centralized administration less cost to implement scalable.
2. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks? a router a firewall a web server a DSL modem.
3. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.) the types of data that need to be prioritized the cost of the end devices utilized in the network the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal the number of intermediary devices installed in the network the environment where the selected medium is to be installed.
4. Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.) Intermediary devices generate data content. Intermediary devices alter data content. Intermediary devices direct the path of the data. Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network. Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process.
5. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.) They originate the data that flows through the network. They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures. They filter the flow of data to enhance security They are the interface between humans and the communication network. They provide the channel over which the network message travels.
6. Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources? extranet intranet wired LAN wireless LAN wireless WAN.
7. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping? an intranet the Internet an extranet a local area network.
8. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access? an intranet the Internet an extranet a local area network.
9. Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to computers in a home office? (Choose two.) cellular DSL satellite cable dial-up telephone.
10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.) DSL cellular satellite dialup dedicated leased line.
11. Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity? convergence congestion optimization synchronization.
12. What type of network traffic requires QoS? email on-line purchasing video conferencing wiki.
13. Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth? a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources.
14. A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords. Which data protection goal does this policy support? data integrity data quality data confidentiality data redundancy.
15. Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing? A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP. Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world. Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring. Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.
16. What is the Internet? It is a network based on Ethernet technology It provides network access for mobile devices. It provides connections through interconnected global networks. It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
17. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology? New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN. A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling. A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet. Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.
18. What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user? denial of service to your email server replication of worms and viruses in your computer capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft spyware that leads to spam emails.
19. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.) implementing a firewall installing a wireless network installing antivirus software implementing an intrusion detection system adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device.
20. Fill in the blank.
A ___________ network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the same communication channels.
21. Fill in the blank.
The acronym _______ refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices in the business office to access the network and other resources.
22. Match the description to the form of network communication. (Not all options are used.) Web pages that groups of people can edit and view together Interactive websites where people created and share user-generated content with friends and family real-time communication of between two or more people an audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience .
23. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all options are used.) Not suited for heavily wooded areas typically has very low bandwidth splits the access line into three signals uses coaxial cable as a medium Tipically uses a T1/E1 T3/E3 circuit.
24. Match the definition to the security goal. (Not all options are used.) maintaining integrity ensuring confidentiality ensuring availability .
1. What is the function of the kernel of an operating software? It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task. The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer. It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device. The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.
2. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen? Telnet Console AUX SSH.
3. Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment? Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network. Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.
4. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy? end exit Ctrl-Z Ctrl-C.
5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display? global configuration mode setup mode privileged EXEC mode user EXEC mode.
6. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.) providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command selecting the best command to accomplish a task.
7. Which information does the show startup-config command display? the IOS image copied into RAM the bootstrap program in the ROM the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM.
8. Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device? a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set a hostname must be configured before any other parameters to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet) to allow local access to the device through the console port.
9. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.) Branch2! RM-3-Switch-2A4 Floor(15) HO Floor 17 SwBranch799.
10. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches? It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network. It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files. It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch. It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the purpose of this command? to display a message when a user accesses the switch to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1 to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command.
12. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM? Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration. Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device Close and reopen the terminal emulation software. Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
13. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device? It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified. It is stored in NVRAM. It should be deleted using the erase running-config command. It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
14. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.) RAM provides nonvolatile storage. The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM. The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle. RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers. RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.
15. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch? the AUX interface the console port interface the switch virtual interface the first Ethernet port interface.
16. Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch? FastEthernet 0/1 GigabitEthernet 0/1 VLAN 1 VLAN 99.
17. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address? to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs to enable the switch to function as a default gateway to enable the switch to be managed remotely to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs.
18. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer? ping ipconfig show interfaces show ip interface brief.
19. A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser, and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network with no additional configuration? The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory. The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP. The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server. The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.
20. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC? if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire if there is connectivity with the destination device the path that traffic will take to reach the destination what type of device is at the destination.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is testing connectivity in a new network. Based on the test results shown in the exhibit, which device does the technician have connectivity with and which device does the technician not have connectivity with? (Choose two.) connectivity: switch 2 connectivity: PC-D connectivity: PC-B no connectivity: switch 1 no connectivity: switch 2 no connectivity: PC-C.
22. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.) Two physical interfaces have been configured. The switch can be remotely managed. One device is attached to a physical interface Passwords have been configured on the switch. Two devices are attached to the switch. The default SVI has been configured.
23. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.) first mode second mode third mode final mode .
24. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.) displays the next screen scrolls backwards through previously commands provides context-sensitive help completes abbreviated commands and parameters aborts commands shuch as trace and ping.
1. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly? encapsulation flow control access method response timeout.
2. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network? broadcast multicast unicast allcast.
3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination? access control decoding encapsulation flow control.
4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission? HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP.
5. Which statement is correct about network protocols? Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks. They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination. They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP. They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
6. Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models? The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions. The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer. The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions. The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.
7. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols? A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer. Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully. Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol. Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.
8. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.) ARP DHCP DNS FTP NAT PPP.
9. What are proprietary protocols? protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite.
10. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols? Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor. A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data. Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market. Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
11. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used? only application and Internet layers only Internet and network access layers only application, Internet, and network access layers application, transport, Internet, and network access layers only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers.
12. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.) application presentation session transport data link physical network.
13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated? physical layer data link layer network layer transport layer.
14. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation? physical layer data link layer network layer transport layer.
15. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host? file frame packet segment.
16. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model? bits frame packet segment.
17. Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.) A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB. A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA. A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA. A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB. A frame with the destination MAC address of ServerB.
18 Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame? source IP address source MAC address destination IP address destination MAC address.
19. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host? The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network. The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host. The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway. The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks. A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
20. Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer? the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router .
21. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.) The organization promotes the open development, evolution, and use of the internet throughout the world This organization is the largest developer of international standars in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is know for its Open System Interconection (OSI) reference model. This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers.
22. Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.) governing the way a web server and a web client interact taking the segments from transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media managing the individual conversations between web servers and web clients .
23. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.) message encoding message encapsulation message sizing.
24. A computer in a given network is communicating with a specific group of computers. What type of communication is this? broadcast multicast unicast ARP HTTP.
25. Which protocol is responsible for controlling the size and rate of the HTTP messages exchanged between server and client? HTTP ARP TCP DHCP.
26. A user is viewing an HTML document located on a web server. What protocol segments the messages and manages the segments in the individual conversation between the web server and the web client? DHCP TCP HTTP ARP.
27. Which IEEE standard enables a wireless NIC to connect to a wireless AP that is made by a different manufacturer? 802.1 802.11 802.3 802.2.
28. What is a function of Layer 4 of the OSI model? to specify the packet type to be used by the communications to apply framing information to the packet, based on the attached media to represent data to the user, including encoding and dialog control to describe the ordered and reliable delivery of data between source and destination.
29. What is a benefit of using a layered model for network communications? fostering competition among device and software vendors by enforcing the compatibility of their products enhancing network transmission performance by defining targets for each layer avoiding possible incompatibility issues by using a common set of developing tools simplifying protocol development by limiting every layer to one function.
30. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model? frame packet protocol data unit segment.
31. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network? Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer. Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer. Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer. Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
32. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol? ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network.
33. Which address provides a unique host address for data communications at the internet layer? data-link address logical address Layer 2 address physical address.
34. Which protocol is used by a computer to find the MAC address of the default gateway on an Ethernet network? ARP TCP UDP DHCP.
35. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications? The host is unable to communicate on the local network. The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks. The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network. There is no impact on communications.
36. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination? the MAC address of the default gateway the IP address of the destination host the MAC address of the destination host the IP address of the default gateway .
1. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.) to reduce the number of collisions on the media to distinguish data bits from control bits to provide better media error correction to identify where the frame starts and ends to increase the media throughput.
2. What is indicated by the term throughput? the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP the capacity of a particular medium to carry data the measure of the usable data transferred across the media the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver.
3. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.) EMI crosstalk RFI signal attenuation extended length of cabling.
4. Which characteristic describes crosstalk? the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point.
5. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk? twisting the wires together into pairs wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath terminating the cable with special grounded connectors.
6. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices? 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through.
7. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination? The woven copper braid should not have been removed. The wrong type of connector is being used. The untwisted length of each wire is too long. The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
8. Which type of connector does a network interface card use? DIN PS-2 RJ-11 RJ-45.
9. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling? It is usually cheaper than copper cabling. It is able to be installed around sharp bends. It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling. It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
10. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection? The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading. They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection. They increase the speed at which the data can travel. They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
11. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.) mobility options security interference coverage area extensive cabling packet collision.
12. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media? application transport data link physical.
13. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.) It encrypts data packets. It determines the path to forward packets. It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames. It provides media access control and performs error detection. It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.
14. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies? The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology. Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames. Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network. Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.
15. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time? full duplex half duplex multiplex simplex.
16. Which statement describes an extended star topology? End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices. End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device. All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit? All three networks use CSMA/CA None of the networks require media access control. Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA. Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD. Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
18. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame? logical address physical address data error detection.
19. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame? The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame. The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached. The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address. The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.
20. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame? to verify the integrity of the received frame to verify the physical address in the frame to verify the logical address in the frame to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame.
21. Fill in the blank.
The term __________ indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).
22. Fill in the blank.
What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame? .
23. Fill in the blank.
A physical topology that is a variation or combination of a point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topology is commonly known as a _______ topology.
24. Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.) LED as light source several paths of light into the fiber generally used with LANs only one ray of light into the fiber generally used for campus backbone laser as light source supports full-dúplex operation.
1. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch? The frame is dropped. The frame is returned to the originating network device. The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network. The frame is sent to the default gateway.
2. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.) 56 bytes 64 bytes 128 bytes 1024 bytes 1518 bytes.
3. What statement describes Ethernet? It defines the most common LAN type in the world It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication. It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works. It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.
4. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.) Logical link control is implemented in software. Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard. The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data. The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite. The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.
5. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses? They must be globally unique. They are only routable within the private network. They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU. They have a 32-bit binary value.
6. Which statement is true about MAC addresses? MAC addresses are implemented by software. A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN. The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI. The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.
7. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame? 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF 127.0.0.1 01-00-5E-00-AA-23.
8. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table? the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames.
9. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame? The switch will discard the frame. The switch will forward the frame only to port 2. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4. The switch will forward the frame to all ports. The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
10. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame? cut-through fast-forward fragment-free store-and-forward.
11. What is auto-MDIX? a type of Cisco switch an Ethernet connector type a type of port on a Cisco switch a feature that detects Ethernet cable type.
12. True or False?
When a device is sending data to another device on a remote network, the Ethernet frame is sent to the MAC address of the default gateway. true false.
13. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together? Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address.
14. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next? PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address. RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address. RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address. SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address. SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D? Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D. Host D sends an ARP request to host A. Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the host D, which in turn responds. Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A? only host D only router R1 only hosts A, B, and C only hosts A, B, C, and D only hosts B and C only hosts B, C, and router R1.
17. Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local link? They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network. They are received and processed by every device on the local network. They are dropped by all switches on the local network. They are received and processed only by the target device.
18. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.) Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing. On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays. Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic. Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network. Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
19. Fill in the blank.
A collision fragment, also known as a _______ frame, is a frame of fewer than 64 bytes in length.
20. Fill in the blank.
On a Cisco switch, ________ memory buffering is used to buffer frames in queues linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports.
21. Fill in the blank.
ARP _______ is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts in the LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.
22. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.) has low latency may forward runt frames begins forwarding when the destination address is received always stores the entire frame checks the CRC before forwarding checks the frame length before forwarding does not forward broadcast .
1. Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying packets for multiple types of communications among many hosts? the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts.
2. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.) does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection operates independently of the network media retransmits packets if errors occur re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end guarantees delivery of packets.
3. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary? Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission. Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host. Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport services are not available. The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.
4. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly? Time-to-Live Sequence Number Acknowledgment Number Differentiated Services.
5. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet? Protocol Identification Version Differentiated Services.
6. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4? smaller-sized header little requirement for processing checksums smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses efficient packet handling.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2? 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.10.1 192.168.10.10 25 22.214.171.124 255.255.255.255.255 On-link 126.96.36.199 306 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 On-link 192.168.10.10 281 192,168.10.10 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.10.10 281 .
8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet? FastEthernet0/0 FastEthernet0/1 Serial0/0/0 Serial0/0/1.
9. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router? static route default route directly connected route dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP.
10. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network? directly-connected routes local routes remote routes C and L source routes.
11. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router that has the default hardware configuration? It does not have an AUX port. It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access. It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console. It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS.
12. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash? Perform the POST routine. Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM. Load the bootstrap program from ROM. Load the running-config file from RAM.
13. What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.) SVI LAN DHCP Telnet WAN.
14. Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.) Cisco IOS backup IOS file IP routing table basic diagnostic software startup configuration file.
15. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this? The IOS image is corrupt. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM. The POST process has detected hardware failure.
16. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router? to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS.
17. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.) interface fastethernet 0/0 line vty 0 4 line console 0 enable secret cisco login password cisco.
18. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4? IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing. The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling. Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities. The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.
20. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.) service password-encrytion enable copy running-config startup-config login ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0.
1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address? 32 64 128 256.
2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.) subnet portion network portion logical portion host portion physical portion broadcast portion.
3. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent? network address multicast address host address broadcast address.
4. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address? to uniquely identify a host on a network to identify whether the address is public or private to determine the subnet to which the host belongs to mask the IP address to outsiders.
5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20? 255.255.255.248 255.255.224.0 255.255.240.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.192.
6. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it? limited broadcast multicast directed broadcast unicast.
7. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.) The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 188.8.131.52 to 184.108.40.206. A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information. The range of 220.127.116.11 to 18.104.22.168 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network. Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses. Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
8. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.) 10.1.1.1 22.214.171.124 126.96.36.199 172.16.4.4 192.168.5.5 188.8.131.52.
9. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.) trunking dual stack encapsulation tunneling multiplexing.
10. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057? 3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57 3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057 3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57 3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057 3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57 3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057.
11. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface? global unicast link-local loopback unique local.
12. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.) multicast loopback link-local anycast broadcast.
13. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.) an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.
14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured? SLAAC stateless DHCPv6 stateful DHCPv6 RA and EUI-64.
15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host? ARPv6 DHCPv6 ICMPv6 UDP.
16. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.) the number of routers between the source and destination device the IP address of the router nearest the destination device the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source the destination device is reachable through the network the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond.
17. What is the purpose of ICMP messages? to inform routers about network topology changes to ensure the delivery of an IP packet to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution.
18. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address? The host is cabled properly. The default gateway address is correctly configured All hosts on the local link are available. The link-local address is correctly configured IP is properly installed on the host.
19. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet? when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message when the RTT value reaches zero when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message when the value in the TTL field reaches zero when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero.
20. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired? TTL field CRC field Hop Limit field Time Exceeded field.
21. Fill in the blank.
The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is _____.
22. Fill in the blank.
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is __________.
23. Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? ___.
24. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.) a link-local address a TEST-NET address an experimental address a private address a loopback address.
1. What is a result of connecting two or more switches together? The number of broadcast domains is increased. The size of the broadcast domain is increased. The number of collision domains is reduced. The size of the collision domain is increased.
2. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there? 1 2 3 4.
3. What are two reasons a network administrator might want to create subnets? (Choose two.) simplifies network design improves network performance easier to implement security policies reduction in number of routers needed reduction in number of switches needed.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 184.108.40.206/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit? 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.128 255.255.255.192 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240.
5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet? IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76 IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33 IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33 IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46 IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1.
6. If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network? 256 254 62 32 16 14.
7. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available? 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.128 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240.
8. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0? 510 512 1022 1024 2046 2048.
9. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks? two three four five.
10. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed
The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks? 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.192 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248 255.255.255.252.
11. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.) 192.168.1.16/28 192.168.1.64/27 192.168.1.128/27 192.168.1.96/28 192.168.1.192/28.
12. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide? 4 6 8 10 12.
13. Refer to the exhibit.
Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many total host addresses are unused in the assigned subnets? 56 60 64 68 72.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts? 10.16.10.160/26 10.16.10.128/28 10.16.10.64/27 10.16.10.224/26 10.16.10.240/27 10.16.10.240/28.
15. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices? random static addresses to improve security addresses from different subnets for redundancy predictable static IP addresses for easier identification dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses.
16. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.) It eliminates most address configuration errors. It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address. It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one. It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network. It reduces the burden on network support staff.
17. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts? 254 251 252 253.
18. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site? 0 4 16 256.
19. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64? 2001:DB8:BC15 2001:DB8:BC15:A 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12.
20. Consider the following range of addresses:
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is ____.
21. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.) 192.168.1.64/27 192.168.1.32/27 192.168.1.96/27.
22. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.) Network C Network A Network D Network B.