Estudio TEMC

208. A correct use for acetone is to. A. thin zinc chromate primer. B. remove grease from fabric. C. thin dope.

209. Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to. A. provide a silver color. B. aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric. C. reflect ultralight from the fabric.

210. Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum, you should. A. wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene. B. remove any conversion coating film. C. avoid touching the surface with bare hands.

211. Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the. A. first, full-bodied, brushed- on coat to prevent fungus damage. B. first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric. C. final, full-bodied, brushed- on coat to reduce blushing.

212. If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will. A. not seal out the finishing material if the delay or heating occurs before spraying. B. be weakened in its ability to adhere to the surface. C. cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove.

213. What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?. A. Corrosion. B. A glossy, blush-free finish. C. A dull finish due to the topcoat 'sinking in' to primer that is still too soft.

214. What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?. A. Corrosion. B. A glossy, blush-free finish. C. A dull finish due to the topcoat 'sinking in' to primer that is still too soft.

215. What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?. A. Too much material applied in one coat. B. Material is being applied too fast. C. Low atmospheric humidity.

216. What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?. A. Reducer. B. Retarder. C. Rejuvenator.

217. Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature?. A. Orange peel. B. Blushing. C. Pinholes.

218. Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process?. A. Overheating of the fabric/finish, especially with the use of power tools. B. Static electricity buildup. C. Embedding of particles in the finish.

219. Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?. A. Synthetic enamel. B. Acrylic lacquer. C. Polyurethane.

220. Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?. A. Old-type zinc chromate primer may not be used directly for touchup of bare metal surfaces. B. Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers may be used over old nitrocellulose finishes. C. Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with epoxy finishes.

221. Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of application?. A. Wash primer. B. Epoxy primer. C. Zinc chromate primer.

237. Fabric rejuvenator is used to. A. restore the condition of dope coatings. B. restore fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level. C. penetrate the fabric and restore fungicidal resistance.

238. Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?. A. To help prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric. B. To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures. C. To provide additional anti- tear resistance under reinforcement tape.

239. Moisture, mildew, chemicals, and acids have no effect on. A. glass fabric. B. linen fabric. C. dacron fabric.

240. The best method of repair for a fabric-covered surface which has an L-shaped tear, each leg of which is approximately 14 inches long, is to. A. re-cover the entire bay in which the tear is located. B. sew from the end of each leg to the center of the tear with a baseball stitch and then dope on a patch. C. sew with a baseball stitch from the center of the tear out toward the extremity of each leg and then dope on a patch.

241. The determining factor(s) for the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the. A. maximum wing loading. B. speed of the aircraft. C. speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading.

242. The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on. A. bearing strength. B. shear strength. C. tensile strength.

243. When and how is finishing tape applied on a fabric-covered aircraft?. A. Sewed or laced on before dope is applied. B. Doped on immediately prior to the finish coat. C. Doped on after the first or second coat of dope.

244. When dope-proofing the parts of the aircraft structure that come in contact with doped fabric, which of the following provide an acceptable protective coating?. A. Aluminum foil and Resin impregnated cloth tape. B. Any one-part type metal primer and Cellulose tape. C. Aluminum foil and Cellulose tape.

245. When testing the strength of Grade A cotton fabric covering an aircraft that requires only intermediate grade, the minimum acceptable strength the fabric must have is. A. 70 percent of its original strength. B. 70 percent of the original strength for intermediate fabric. C. 56 pounds per inch warp and fill.

463. Cuál de los siguientes debe ser cumplido antes de gatear una aeronave?. A. Instalar placas o paneles de esfuerzo crítico. B. Determinar que los tanques de combustible están vacíos. C. Asegurarse que la aeronave está nivelada lateralmente. D. Instalar todos los componentes.

464. Cuál enunciado acerca de Directivas de Aeronavegabilidad (AD´s) es verdadero?. A. AD´s son boletines de alerta emitidos para la aeronave, planta motriz o componentes del fabricante. B. Cumplimiento con una AD no es mandatorio a menos que la aeronave afectada sea de alquiler. C. Cumplimiento con una AD aplicable es mandatorio y debe ser registrada en los documentos permanentes de mantenimiento. D. Es recomendado su cumplimiento.

465. Cuál enunciado es correcto cuando una aeronave no es aprobada para retornar al servicio después de una inspección anual a causa de que un elemento requiere reparación mayor?. A. Un Técnico debidamente habilitado puede ser reparar el defecto y un AIT pueda aprobar la aeronave para retorno al servicio. B. Un Técnico debidamente habilitado puede reparar el defecto y aprobar la aeronave para retorno al servicio. C. Unicamente la persona que realizó la inspección anual puede aprobar la aeronave para retorno al servicio. D. Una FAA repair station.

466. Cuando se realiza un overhaul a todos los equipos eléctricos, toda la información necesaria pued ser obtenida de. A. Las Secciones aplicables de la AC 43.13 -1B/2A. B. Instrucciones de mantenimiento publicadas por el fabricante de la aeronave y/o el equipo. C. Especificaciones de la aeronave y/o la hoja de datos del certificado tipo. D. Circular informativa de la UAEAC.

467. Dónde puede Usted encontrar las recomendaciones para registrar la aprobación o desaprobación de para retornar al servicio una aeronave después de una inspección anual o 100 horas?. A. RAC parte novena. B. RAC parte cuarta. C. RAC parte segunda. D. RAC parte veinte.

468. Instación de un equipo de radio realizadas de acuerdo con un certificado tipo suplementario STC requieren aprobación. A. Usando procedimientos de alteración menor. B. De un técnico TLA. C. De un AIT. D. Usando procedimientos de alteración mayor.

469. Porque es generalmente necesario gatear una aeronave dentro de un sitio cerrado para el pesaje?. A. Porque la aeronave puede ser colocada en un posición nivelada. B. Para estabilizar las pesas. C. Porque las pesas pueden ser calibradas a cero libras. D. Para calibrar las pesas.

470. Una aeronave a la cuál se le realizó una inspección anual puede ser volada. A. Si un permiso de vuelo ha sido emitido para la aeronave. B. Para los propósitos de desarrollar el mantenimiento. C. Para un período de tiempo que no exceda 10 horas. D. Por periodo ilimitado con autorización AIT.

528. Cuáles de los siguientes son componentes estructurales de un plano. A. Flaps, Slats, Alerones. B. Largueros, vigas, spoilers. C. Costillas, piel, largueros. D. Vigas, flaps, costillas.

545. Los productos aeronáuticos clase I son los siguientes. A. Aeronave, motor y hélice. B. Fuselaje, Alas, estabilizadores y trenes de aterrizaje. C. Aeronave, componentes dinámicos, componentes electrónicos. D. OEM, PMA, TSO.

605. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is. A. Three times the thikness of the materials to be joined. B. Two times the rivet length. C. Three times the thikness of the tickest sheet.

606. What is indicated by a black 'smoky' residue streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft?. A. The rivets were excessively work hardened during installation. B. Exfoliation corrosion is ocurring inside the structure. C. Fretting corrosion is ocurring between the rivest and the skin.

607. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its manufacture?. A. 2. B. 17. C. 20.

628. El barniz con que se pintan las telas en los aviones viejos se llama: A. Gusset. B. Dope. C. Skin.

629. El Datum es: A. Un plano vertical imaginario desde el cual se toman todas las distancias horizontales para propositos de peso y balance. B. La localización del centro de gravedad. C. Los datos para peso y balance del avión.

630. El leading edge es: A. Tren de aterrizaje. B. Borde de ataque. C. Borde de salida.

631. El miembro longitudinal principal de una ala recibe el nombre de: A. Larguero. B. Larguerillo. C. Viga.

632. La abreviatura para estación del fuselaje es: A. WL. B. BL. C. FS.

633. La diferencia de presiones que genera el ala, al pasar el aire a través de ella, se conoce con el nombre de: A. Sustentación. B. Drag. C. Ninguna de las anteriores.

634. La piel es fijada a los miembros estructurales por medio de: A. Pernos. B. Tornillos. C. Remaches. D. Soldadura.

635. La tipo monocasco es un fuselaje de coraza o armazón simple. El diseño puede ser divido en: A. Monocasco, semimonocasco y coraza reforzada. B. mamparo y monocasco. C. larguerillos y formadores.

636. La viga armada o triangular es una estructura hecha de miembros tales como vigas, riostras y barras para resistir la deformación por las cargas aplicadas. La estructura puede transportar la combinación de cargas de: A. Tensión. B. Compresión. C. Tensión y compresión.

637. Las alas de un avión son diseñadas para: A. Soportar los motores. B. Producir sustentación o alzamiento (lift). C. Producir resistencia al avance.

639. Los larguerillos son principalmente usados para dar forma y unir la piel. A. Verdadera. B. Falsa.

640. Los miembros estructurales verticales son llamados mamparos, frames y formadores. A. Verdadera. B. Falsa.

641. Los miembros estructurales verticales son llamados: A. costillas. B. Frames y formadores. C. larguerullos.

642. Todas las alas de los aviones son de diseño en cantiliver. A. Verdadera. B. Falsa.

863. El grano áspero es el que. A. No se puede emplear en laminas de aluminio. B. Más material remueve Produce más corrosión. C. No se puede emplear en laminas de acero.

865. El remache MS 20442 es de cabeza tipo. A. Avellanada. B. Brazier. C. Plana. D. Concava.

867. El resultado del proceso de remachado en forma de hongo se conoce como. A. rolado. B. laminado. C. Trabajo en frío (Coldworked). D. Trabajo en caliente (Hotworked).

868. El sujetador permanente es aquel que: A. Es removido y luego reutilizado. B. Es removido y luego descartado. C. Nunca se remueve. D. Se puede utilizar después de descartado.

869. El taladro para ejecutar reparaciones estructurales debe ser accionado. A. Eléctricamente. B. Hidráulicamente. C. Neumáticamente. D. Mixto.

872. En el código de remaches la letra D identifica un remache cuyo material es. A. 2117. B. 2017. C. 1100. D. 5056.

873. En las limas de dentado doble, los ángulos de los dientes son. A. De igual valor. B. De diferente valor. C. Mayores a 90°. D. Mayores a 180°.

875. Ensayos No Destructivos 22. Si se desea inspeccionar una pieza hecha en aluminio que se cree presenta fisuras a nivel superficial, cual es la mejor técnica de inspección. A. Líquidos penetrantes. B. Partículas magnéticas. C. Radiografía Industrial. D. Ultrasonido.

876. La dimensión fundamental de la lima es. A. La forma. B. El tamaño. C. La longitud. D. La resistencia.

878. La longitud del remache es. A. El grip + 1.5D. B. El grip - 1.5D. C. El grip x 1.5D. D. El grip / 1.5D.

888. Las pistolas de remachar pueden ser operadas. A. Eléctricamente. B. Hidráulicamente. C. Neumáticamente. D. Mecánicamente.

891. Los abrasivos son usados para. A. Remover marcas dejadas por herramientas. B. Mejorar la superficie de acabado. C. Quitar rebabas. D. Todas las anteriores.

898. Los remaches sólidos son clasificados por. A. La forma de la cabeza, tratamiento térmico y por su dureza. B. La forma de la cabeza, material de fabricación y por su dureza. C. La forma de la cabeza, material de fabricación y por sus dimensiones. D. La forma de la cabeza, y por sus dimensiones de resistencia.

902. Para hacer una inspección no destructiva la primer técnica recomendada es: A. Líquidos penetrantes. B. Partículas magnéticas. C. Radiografía Industrial. D. Inspección visual.

903. Para hacer una rosca interior en una perforación ciega se emplean los siguientes machuelos. A. Cónico. B. Semicónico. C. Cilíndrico. D. Convergente.

905. Para Líquidos Penetrantes 18. El objetivo del ensayo es: A. Hallar fisuras internas. B. Hallar fisuras externas. C. Determinar las propiedades de los materiales. D. Hallar decoloraciones anormales.

906. Para Partículas magnéticas 20. El objetivo del ensayo es: A. Hallar fisuras internas. B. Hallar fisuras externas. C. Hallar fisuras superficiales y sub-superficiales. D. Hallar deformaciones.

907. El aluminio puro pesa…. A. Dos terceras partes del titanio. B. Dos terceras partes del acero. C. Una tercera parte del acero. D. Una tercera parte del aluminio.

909. Si un abocardado no queda hecho apropiadamente este: A. Se puede corregir dando torque adicional al fitting en la instalación. B. No se puede corregir dando torque adicional en la instalación del fitting. C. Se quebrará al instalar el fitting.

911. A manufacturer emits information concerning to changes or improvements that can be done on its products. This document is known as: A. Airworthiness Directives ( ADs). B. Service bulletins ( S/B). C. Technical Standard Order (TSO). D. Advisory Circulars (A/C).

912. El C. G. de una aeronave se encuentra en el Documento: A. Certificado de Producción. B. Certificado de Aeronavegabilidad. C. Type Certificate Data Sheet. D. Production Approval Holder.

913. El DMI (Deferred Maintenance Items) es: A. Un libro u hoja donde se consignan los reportes que han sido diferidos y es allí donde se consignan las acciones correctivas. B. Es una Directiva de Mantenimiento Inmediata. C. El DMI es un libro que solo lo maneja el gerente de la empresa aérea.

914. El MEL es desarrollado por: A. La autoridad del país de certificación de la aeronave. B. El fabricante de la aeronave. C. La autoridad del país de diseño en conjunto con el fabricante de la aeronave. D. El operador.

915. La diferencia entre un componente “rebuilt” y un componente “overhaulded” es: A. No hay diferencia. B. El componente “rebuilt” vuelve a su TSN “0” (cero). C. El componente “overhaul” vuelve a su TSN “0” (cero).

916. La tenencia de records de una aeronave es en primera instancia responsabilidad de: A. La UAEAC. B. El fabricante de la aeronave. C. El taller donde se tiene el contrato de mantenimiento. D. El operador/explotador.

917. M.E.L. is a document that authorizes an aircraft operation without fulfilling all the requirements of the type certificate. Therefore M.E.L. is: A. An airworthiness directive. B. A service Bulletin. C. An Advisory Circular. D. A supplemental type certificate.

918. What means to control a component "ON CONDITION": A. Control the time of service given by the manufacturer. B. Control the component according to a training program approved by the authority. C. Control the component by periodical tests in order to verify performance and remove it either for reported failures or during the tests. D. Control the component by tests every six months.

919. What means to control a component by "HARD TIME": A. Control the component by periodical tests in order to verify performance and remove it either for reported failures or during the tests. B. Control the component according to a training program approved by the authority. C. Control the component removing it from service before fulfilling a stipulated functional time given either in cycles, hours or days. D. Nothing of previous.

920. A Marzo de 2010, Los Reglamentos Aeronáuticos de Colombia constan de: A. 12 Partes. B. 18 partes. C. 20 partes. D. 24 partes.

921. Cuál de las siguientes definiciones es la Item de Inspección Requerida (RII): A. Es aquella actividad de mantenimiento que si se ejecuta inapropiadamente, puede resultar crítica para la seguridad de la aeronave. B. Es un aquella labor que solo amerita inspección, sin previamente haber sido elaborado un trabajo físico sobre la aeronave. C. Es aquella labor de mantenimiento que solo puede ser inspeccionada por el PMI.

922. De acuerdo con los RAC, cuantas categorías de talleres de estructuras existen. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.

923. En un taller de aviónicos, el técnico que realiza los trabajos es un: A. TEEI. B. TLA. C. TAV. D. TPM.

924. ICAO references are constituted by: A. Federal Aviation Regulations. B. Agreement annexes 1 through 18 and documents. C. R.A.C.

925. La “facultad permanente de inspección” es un privilegio que posee: A. El AIT de la empresa. B. El AIT del taller con el que se tiene contrato de mantenimiento. C. El inspector de la UAEAC.

926. La Aviación Civil Comercial se clasifica en: A. Troncal, Secundaria, Carga. B. Pasajeros, Aerotaxi, Chárter. C. Carga, Charter, Troncal. D. Regular, No Regular, Trabajos Especiales, con sus respectivas subdivisiones.

927. La tenencia de records de una aeronave es en primera instancia responsabilidad de: A. La UAEAC. B. El fabricante de la aeronave. C. El taller donde se tiene el contrato de mantenimiento. D. El operador/explotador.

928. Las directivas de Aeronavegabilidad AD son documentos de estricto cumplimiento emitidas por un: A. TAR aprobado por la UAEAC. B. TAR aprobado por la FAA. C. Autoridad del país certificador del producto aeronáutico. D. El gerente del TAR aprobado por el director de control de Calidad y la dirección de ingeniería.

929. Las Especificaciones de Operación son: A. Un manual (documento), que maneja la división de operaciones. B. Un manual que maneja la autoridad sobre la empresa y que la empresa no conoce. C. Parte del Certificado de Operación de los Operadores Aereos. D. Es un manual que maneja el TAR contratado.

930. Los dos Tipos de Certificados de Aeronavegabilidad contemplados en la Parte Cuarta del RAC son: A. Estándar y de Vuelo. B. Especial y de Aeronavegabilidad. C. Especial de Vuelo y Permiso. D. Estándar y especial.

931. Se llama Certificado de Aeronavegabilidad a un Certificado que. A. Expide la Aerocivil en el cual certifica que el avión es Aeronavegable pese a una fecha de vencimiento y se debe llevar siempre a bordo. B. El que expide el jefe de control de calidad o el técnico licenciado después de efectuar algún trabajo de mantenimiento. C. El que expide la torre de control para efectuar el vuelo. D. Lo expide la oficina de Registro y Matricula de la Aerocivil y debe ir siempre a bordo de la aeronave.

932. Señale la respuesta verdadera: Toda licencia aeronáutica para ser expedida deberá tener en cuenta: A. Atribuciones y experiencia. B. Conocimientos y atribuciones. C. Conocimientos y habilitaciones. D. Conocimientos, experiencia, habilitaciones y atribuciones.

933. Señale la respuesta verdadera: Una empresa de trabajos aéreos especiales (fumigación) que posea mantenimiento propio, deberá regirse básicamente por la parte 4ª capítulos: A. 5, 6 y 7. B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 11. C. 7 y 11.

934. Un Certificado Tipo Suplementario es: A. Un suplemento al certificado tipo de una aeronave, motor, hélice. B. Es el que modifica el Certificado Tipo (de diseño). C. Se ha hecho una alteración insignificante al Certificado Tipo.

935. Un proceso de certificación de empresa aeronáutica nueva, debe ser autorizado por: A. La Oficina de Transporte Aéreo. B. La Secretaría de Seguridad Aérea. C. Cámara de Comercio.

936. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the. A. number of locking collar grooves. B. shape of the head. C. method of installation.

937. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to. A. compressive loads. B. shear loads. C. tension loads.

938. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated. A. by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven. B. by the manufacturer but require reheat treatment before being driven. C. to a temperature of 910 to 930°F and quenched in cold water.

939. Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets. A. utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar for installation. B. utilize a pulling tool for installation. C. may be installed with ordinary hand tools.

940. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the. A. possibility of causing delamination. B. increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener. C. difficulty in forming a proper shop head.

941. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures. A. may be constructed of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners. B. must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. C. must be constructed of high strength aluminumlithium alloy.

942. One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that. A. they can be removed and reused again. B. the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure, tighter fit. C. they can be installed with ordinary hand tools.

943. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in. A. hundredths of an inch. B. tenths of an inch. C. sixteenths of an inch.

944. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is. A. three times the thickness of the materials to be joined. B. two times the rivet length. C. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet.

945. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the. A. body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener. B. body type, head diameter, and type of material. C. manufacturer and type of material.

946. The shop head of a rivet should be. A. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank. B. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank. C. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet.

947. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to. A. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear strength is desired. B. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. C. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where bearing strength is desired.

948. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a. A. thermoplastic. B. thermocure. C. thermoset.

949. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than. A. 4 inches in diameter. B. 2 inches in diameter. C. 1 inch in diameter.

950. Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?. A. Fill. B. Warp. C. Bias.

952. Composite inspections conducted by means of acoustic emission monitoring. A. pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration occurring. B. analyze ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts being inspected. C. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected.

953. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure. A. may be repaired. B. must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous stress concentrations. C. may be filled with putty which is compatible with resin.

954. Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by. A. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers. B. sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic smoothness is obtained. C. trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint.

955. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core. A. cannot be repaired. B. requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing. C. can be repaired by using a typical metal facing patch.

956. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to. A. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure. B. use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution. C. use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area.

957. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to. A. perform a chemical composition analysis. B. have mixed enough for a test sample. C. test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing.

958. Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is likely to result in. A. restored strength and flexibility. B. improved wear resistance to the structure. C. an unairworthy repair.

959. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be repaired by applying. A. a piece of resinimpregnated glass fabric facing. B. one or more coats of suitable resin (roomtemperature catalyzed) to the surface. C. a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps.

960. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that has high resistivity and is the most common is. A. E. B. S. C. G.

961. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is. A. E. B. S. C. G.

962. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the. A. Shelf life. B. Pot life. C. Service life. D. Life limit.

964. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends primarily on. A. a 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio. B. the orientation of the plies to the load direction. C. the ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the matrix.

965. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?. A. Bleeder. B. Breather. C. Release.

966. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb structure?. A. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere. B. Paint the outside area with several coats of exterior paint. C. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a manmade or fibrous material which is not susceptible to corrosion.

967. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that. A. the grain is parallel to the skin. B. it is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be applied. C. the grain is perpendicular to the skin.

968. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate. A. less than full strength curing of the matrix. B. separation of the laminates. C. an area of too much matrix between fiber layers.

969. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be: A. tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn. B. tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn. C. tightened to a firm fit.

970. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using. A. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone). B. soap, water, and a scrub brush. C. a thixotropic agent.

971. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?. A. Water soluble oil. B. Water displacing oil. C. Water only.

972. When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of reducing the amount of warpage is to. A. add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin. B. use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair. C. use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be more flexible.

973. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to. A. two times the thickness of the metal. B. 100 times the thickness of the metal. C. whatever is desired for a neat, clean appearance.

974. Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength?. A. 40:60. B. 2,118055556. C. 2,527777778.

975. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?. A. Zinc chloride will have no effect. B. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge. C. Acetone will soften plastic, but will not change its color.

976. Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites?. A. Stiffness. B. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminun. C. flexibility and high tensile strength. D. Ability to conduit electricity.

1213. A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is. A. under shear loading. B. under tension loading. C. subject to rotation.

1214. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolthead are. A. made of aluminum alloy. B. close tolerance bolts. C. standard steel bolts.

1215. Alclad is a metal consisting of. A. aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core. B. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core. C. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy.

1216. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be. A. equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together, plus approximately one diameter. B. equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together. C. one and one half times the thickness of the material which is fastened together.

1217. Normalizing is a process of heat treating. A. aluminum alloys only. B. iron-base metals only. C. both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals.

1218. The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch. A. has little or no effect on a metal's heat treated characteristics. B. has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment. C. can significantly alter a metal's properties in the reheated area.

1219. The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number '4130' designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the. A. percentage of the basic element in the alloy. B. percentage of carbon in the alloy in hundredths of a percent. C. basic alloying element.

1220. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is. A. upward, or in rearward direction. B. upward, or in a forward direction. C. downward, or in a forward direction.

1221. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to. A. clean, dry threads. B. clean, lightly oiled threads. C. both dry and lightly oiled threads.

1222. What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment?. A. 3003-F. B. 5052-H36. C. 6061-O.

1223. What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed?. A. Rapid cooling; high strength. B. Slow cooling; low strength. C. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear.

1224. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?. A. Stainless steel. B. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel. C. Titanium nickel alloy.

1225. What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished?. A. Concentration cell. B. Intergranular. C. Fretting.

1226. Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?. A. Tempering. B. Normalizing. C. Case hardening.

1227. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?. A. Case hardening. B. Annealing. C. Tempering.

1228. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?. A. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form. B. 6061-T9 stainless steel. C. Clad aluminum alloy.

1229. Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?. A. decrease in internal stress and softening of the metal. B. decrease in internal stress and improved corrosion resistance. C. softening of the metal and improved corrosion resistance.

1230. Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending?. A. The metals become stress corrosion cracked. B. The metals become artifically age and the metals become cold worked, strain or work hardened. C. The metals become cold worked, strain or work hardened.

1231. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?. A. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is permissible to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin hole. B. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness. C. Alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4-inch diameter should not be used in primary structure.

1232. Why is steel tempered after being hardened?. A. To increase its hardness and ductility. B. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses. C. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.