Flight Planning and Monitoring Test Astana +

A normal commercial IFR flight has an estimated EOBT of 1540 UTC with the estimated take-off time as 1555 UTC. What is the latest time for filing the ICAO flight plan?. 1440 UTC. 1510 UTC. 1525 UTC. 1455 UTC.

An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the: Maximum authorised altitude (MAA). Base of the airway (AGL). Minimum enroute altitude (MEA). Minimum holding altitude (MHA).

You are cruising at FL250 and need to be at FL50 10 NM before a VOR/DME. Your rate of descent is 1250 ft/min and your GS in the descent 250 kt. How far before the VOR/DME should you start your descent?. 83.3 NM. 76.7 NM. 98.5 NM. 66.7 NM.

The Point of Safe Return (PSR) is the last point along a planned route where it is possible to return to the departure aerodrome: With minimum drag speed. In still air conditions. With specific reserves intact. With no reserves intact.

If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination specified in the flight plan, he must: Rapport to ATC to apologise. Ensure that the ATSU at the original destination is informed within 60 minutes. Ensure that all ATSUs which were addressees on the flight plan are notified of his landing. Ensure that the ATSU at the original destination is informed within 30 minutes.

Which is the correct statement with reference to an RNAV SID?. The RNAV SID can be flown without ground-based radio navigation aids. RNAV SIDs are unavailable if a ground-based radio navigation aid is used. The aircraft must be fitted with an auto-flight system to follow the RNAV SID. An RNAV SID is a departure procedure that is limited by the transition altitude.

In which document would you find information on known short-term unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB?. NOTAM. ATCC. SIGMET. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

Given: • GSOUT =178 • GS HOME = 249 • Distance A to B = 450 NM • Endurance 3 hours What is the distance to the Point of Safe Return from A?. 262 NM. 204 NM. 311 NM. 415 NM.

Flight plans for flights affected by Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM) rules, and in areas such as the North Atlantic, must be filed at least _____before EOBT. Never less than 10 minutes. 30 minutes. 3 hours. 1 hour.

What’s the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?. Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load. Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft. Reduce contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to destination. Increase safety of the flight.

An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible?. Yes, but only with permission from ATC. No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan. Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "Cancelling my IFR flight". No, only ATC can order you to do this.

When completing an IFR flight plan the "Total Elapsed Time" in item 16 is from: From first taxiing under own power until the IAF for destination airport. Take-off to the IAF for the destination airport. Take-off to overhead the destination airport. Take-off until landing at the destination airport.

A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a Trip Fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the Trip Fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption does not change. Which statement is right?. At destination the required reserves remain intact. At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons. At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks. The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact.

An aircraft is carrying Maritime Survival Equipment. The correct entry at item 19 is: Cross out indicators P, D and J, tick M. Tick indicator M. Circle indicator M. Cross out indicators P, D and J.

You are required to uplift 40 US gallons of AVGAS with SG of 0.72. How many litres and kilograms is this?. 182L 289 kg. 182L 131 kg. 109L 151 kg. 151L 109 kg.

Refer to the Lido, Amsterdam Schiphol (EHAM) RNAV STAR Chart. You are flying on the EEL 1A STAR inbound IAF ARTIP to enter the holding. The waypoint/ holding fix is a (1) and the FL expected to hold at is (2)?. (1) Fly-by (compulsory) RNAV Waypoint (2) FL100. (1) Fly-over (non-compulsory) Waypoint (2) FL70-FL100. (1) Fly-by (compulsory) RNAV Waypoint (2) FL70-FL100. (1) Fly-over (compulsory) Waypoint (2) FL100.

Refer to the Lido, London City (EGLC) ILS DME + NDB Instrument Approach Chart (IAC) for Rwy 09. Flying a LOC DME approach what is the angle at which arriving aircraft must descend towards London City Airport with?. 3.5°. 3.0°. 5.5°. 5.51°.

An airway is annotated 5000T. What does this represent?. Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA). Minimum En-Route Altitude (MEA). Maximum Authorised Altitude (MAA). Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA).

Refer to Jeppesen, GATWICK (EGKK) STAR chart (20-2E). You are making an arrival at Gatwick via NEVIL 1G for an approach to Runway 26L. If required to hold at TIMBA what is the Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA)?. FL 70. FL 220. FL 140. 3000 ft.

Refer to the Lido, Gatwick (EGKK) ILS DME Approach chart (7-30 The highest depicted terrain or man-made obstacle in the Approach Plan View of the approach chart is. 2100 ft. 2000 ft. 1050 ft. 3000 ft.

From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities?. ATCC. NAV/RAD charts. NOTAM. AIP.

Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180° (M) is: FL 90. FL 100. FL 105. FL 95.

VFR flights at night shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than: 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 km from the aircraft. The highest obstacle. 500 ft above the highest obstacle.

What is the meaning of the text “EET/EISNO210” if entered under ITEM 18 OTHER INFORMATION of an ICAO ATS Flight Plan (FPL)?. Crossing EISN FIR boundary after 2 hours and 10 minutes. Elapsed time to EISN is 210 minutes. Elapsed time to destination EISN is 2 hours and 10 minutes. Altitude change as from EISN to Flight Level 210.

During the pre-flight briefing, the Commander of a Commercial Air Transport flight notices thunderstorm activity en-route that could lead to deviations of more than 50 NM. For the preflight fuel calculation, given that deviations would increase the distance to be flown, the Commander. Should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Reserve Fuel. Should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Trip Fuel. Should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Extra Fuel. Should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Trip Fuel.

Your aircraft has a Maximum Certified Take-off Mass of 140000 kg. Today your calculated Take-off Mass is 130000 kg. What letter should appear in the WAKE TURBULENCE CATEGORY on the flight plan form?. H. M. L. Leave blank.

Information on Search and Rescue (SAR) procedures may be obtained: From the Aeronautical Information Publication. From NOTAMs. By RT communication with the FIR within which the aircraft is operating. From the latest AIC.

A filed flight plan is: The flight plan, including changes, if any, cleared prior to the aircraft's present position. The flight plan, including changes, if any, cleared prior to take-off. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances. The flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated representative, without any subsequent changes.

Given: • DOM 33510 kg • Traffic load 7600 kg • Taxi fuel 250 kg • Trip Fuel 2500 kg • Contingency fuel 125 kg • Final reserve fuel 983 kg • Alternate fuel 1100 kg What is the estimated landing mass at the destination?. 43318 kg. 42218 kg. 45818 kg. 43193 kg.

Under what circumstances may an Aircraft Operator (AO) submit Repetitive Flight Plans (RPLs) rather thanvindividual flight plans? When_____flights are operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and on at least_____occasions or every day over a period of at least_____consecutive days. The elements of each flight shall have a high degree of_____. IFR, ten, ten, stability. VFR, seven, seven, familiarity. IFR, seven, seven, familiarity. VFR, ten, ten, stability.

On an ATC flight plan in the box marked "cruising speed", you are required to indicate the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is. Equivalent airspeed. Indicated airspeed. True airspeed. Estimated ground speed.

On a Jeppesen chart the figures "FL80 2700a" are displayed below an airway. What does the "FL80" indicate?. The route MORA (a safety altitude). Maximum authorized altitude. The base of the airway. Minimum en route altitude.

Given: • Track 185°(T) • Variation 9° east • Heading 182°(M) Which is the lowest suitable ICAO IFR cruising level?. FL280. FL270. FL290. FL310.

What are the reasons for the format of the ICAO Flight Plan?. The format ensures that minimum writing is required, to reduce pilot workload in flight. The format is internationally agreed, is printed in two languages, usually English and the language of the State concerned, to help ensure correct completion which is essential for electronic data transfer. Itis designed to fit into a standard pilot's bag, and have plenty of room for flight data. The format is agreed between EC member states, for use in Europe only.

Refer to Jeppesen, BUDAPEST Liszt Ferenc (LHBP) Approach charts (11-5) and (11-5A). An aircraft is planning to fly an ILS approach to Runway 31L at BUDAPEST Liszt Ferenc (LHBP). Using the data below, what is the lowest minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence any approach? • Aircraft approach category: C • Aircraft approach capability: CAT III and LNAV/VNAV • Aircraft downgraded to CAT I. No technical downgrades to airport. An RVR of 450 m. A Meteorological visibility of 550 m. An RVR of 550 m. An RVR of 300 m.

What will be the effect on the FMC fuel and time predictions if the aircraft is in a non-standard configuration?. Only the next waypoint ETA and remaining fuel will be accurate. All ETAs and remaining fuel predictions will be correct. There will be NO effect as the FMC will make an automatic correction. The FMC will NOT be able to provide ETAs or remaining fuel predictions.

Refer to Lido, Budapest Liszt Ferenc (LHBP) Approach charts (7-30). An aircraft is planning to fly an ILS approach to Runway 31L at BUDAPEST Liszt Ferenc (LHBP). Using the data below, what is the lowest minimum meteorological visibility or RVR required to commence any approach? • Aircraft approach category: C • Aircraft approach capability: CAT III and LNAV/VNAV • No technical downgrades to aircraft or airport. A Meteorological visibility of 550 m. An RVR of 400 m. An RVR of 300 m. An RVR of 450 m.

Refer to Jeppesen, Geneva (LSGG) STAR 10-2K chart. When flying the arrival rout FRIBOURG 2S (FRI 2S), what is MOCA between waypoint D33.0 CBY and SALEV?. 10,600 ft. 6200 ft. 7000 ft. FL90.

Normally, flight plans should be filed on the ground at least _____ before clearance to start up is requested. Exceptionally, when it is not possible to meet this requirement, operators should_____and never _____. 60 minutes, give as much notice as possible, less than 30 minutes. 3 hours, cancel the flight, cause such trouble again. 30 minutes, give as much notice as possible, less than 60 minutes. 3 hours, give as much notice as possible, 30 minutes.

Refer to Lido, Toulouse (LFBO) SID East chart. You have just departed RWY 32L, flying the AMOLO 6A/B6 procedure. When at waypoint AMOLO what is lowest safe altitude?. 5000 ft. 4157 ft. 5300 ft. FL200.

VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than: 500 ft above the highest obstacle. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. The highest obstacle. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.

Your aircraft is approved for MNPS and RVSM. What do you have to insert in item 10 of the ATC flight plan?. W. Y. W, X. Xx.

When a commercial air transport is operated with no destination alternate aerodrome, the minimum amount of fuel that is required before entering a holding above the destination aerodrome is?. 15min + 40min. 15min + 30min. 20min + 30min. 15min + 45min.

What is meant if a SID is RNAV only? The SID. Provides several routes that can be flown by different aircraft. Is limited to aircraft fitted with approved RNAV equipment only. Can be flown with approved ground-based radio navigation receivers only. Requires a reversionary navigation system to be carried on board.

What is Decision Point Procedure? It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by: Reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to destination. Reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to destination. Reducing contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to destination. Reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel.

Why is there a star in the Save Tower frequency box?. Tower operates part time. Radar capability. ATIS available. Pilot controlled lightning only.

For Commercial Air Transport operations over a mountainous area where the terrain elevation is up to 7000 ft, what is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed by MOCA?. 600 m. 450 m. 300 m. 900 m.

In the Jeppesen SID, STARs & IAP directions are given as: Magnetic heading. Magnetic course/track. True course/track. True heading.

Where may details of temporary Danger and Restricted Airspace be found?. NOTAM and Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC). ATCC. SIGMETs.

The Minimum Off-Route Altitude (MORA) according to the Jeppesen formula provides known obstruction clearance within which distance from the route centreline?. 15 NM. 20 NM. 10 NM. 5 NM.

Refer to Jeppesen VOR approach chart BUDAPEST Liszt Ferenc 13-2 An aircraft is approaching Budapest (LHBP) in bad weather to fly the VOR procedure for Rwy 31R. If the aircraft is following the 020° radial to the TPS, what is the Minimum Sectaor Altitude (MSA)?. Initially 3100 ft then within 15NM 2200ft. Initially 3800 ft then within 15NM 2200ft. 3100 ft. 3600 ft.

Which sections of a CA48 are not normally transmitted to other ATSUs? 1. Addressees 2. Items 3 to 18 - the main body of the message 3. Supplementary information. (1) only. (3) only. (1) and (2). All are always transmitted.

Which of the following RNP Approaches (RNP APCH) are approaches without vertical guidance? 1. LNAV 2. LPV 3. LNAV/VNAV 4. LP. 1 & 4. 2 & 4. 1 & 2. 1, 2 & 3.

A current flight plan is: The filed flight plan without any changes. Flight plan with correct time of departure. The filed flight plan with amendments and clearances included. One that is stored via repetitive flight plan procedures.

Given: X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and B E = Endurance D = Distance A to B O = Ground Speed 'on' H =Ground Speed 'back’ The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is: X = (D x H) / (O + H). X = (D x O) / (O + H). X = E x O x H / (O + H). X = D x O x H / (O + H).

An aircraft is making a 2D (LNAV) approach under IMC, to an aerodrome where the temperature is significantly different from ISA Which of the following is correct regarding temperature corrections to the MDA?. The Pilot-in-Command is responsible for making a correction if the temperature is much higher than ISA. The Pilot-in-Command is responsible for making a correction if the temperature is much lower than ISA. The Controller will pass on a correction when the temperature is much lower than ISA. The Controller will pass on a correction when the temperature is much higher than ISA.

For non-augmented GNSS operations, why must the availability of the GNSS service be checked before use?. Non-augmented GNSS operations must be registered with the service provider in advance. There is NO indication on the flight deck in the case of the loss of a required satellite signal. The GNSS receiver must be programmed with the availability check. Only specific satellites produce the required signals for non-augmented operations.

Refer to Lido, GATWICK (EGKK) SID chart DAGGA 1X and SIDPT DAGGA 1X. You have just departed RWY 26L, according to your routing what is the highest altitude you can climb to?. 3000 ft. 4000 ft. 5000 ft. 2000 ft.

ATC must be informed of changes which occur to the flight plan speed and ETA. Many nations stipulate their own limits but PANS-RAC require changes of_____in TAS and_____of ETA be notified. Which answer fills the blanks correctly?. 3% 5 minutes. 5kt 30 minutes. 3kt 3 minutes. 5% More than 2 minutes.

The Point of Equal Time (PET) is the point along a planned route from the departure (A) to the destination (B) where, under certain conditions... Itis only possible to return to A by using reserves. It takes equal time to proceed to B or to return to A. Itis the last chance to return to A. The pilot must return to A in the event of an emergency.

Except for a take-off or landing, an IFR flight has to be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the State overflown. If no such minimum flight altitude has been established, what is the minimum altitude of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas?. At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of the aircraft. At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

Refer to Jeppesen, Gatwick (EGKK) chart 20-9 What is the airport and terminal area operational and meteorological information service frequency at Gatwick (EGKK) aerodrome?. 121.955. 136.525. 121.805. 124.230.

What would be an advantage of using GNSS/FMC equipment in flight?. Great circle routes CANNOT be flown without GNSS/FMC equipment. Limitations imposed by the Instrument Flight Rules can be disregarded in uncontrolled airspace. Additional aeronautical information can be stored in the database. Visual Meteorological conditions limitations are reduced.

In the event of a delay in excess of_____of_____for a controlled flight, or a delay of_____for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old plan cancelled, whichever is appropriate. 30 minutes, Estimated Off-block Time, 3 hours. 60 minutes, planned take off time, 3 hours. 30 minutes, planned take off time, 1 hour. 30 minutes, EOBT, 1 hour.

Which of the following calculations would be equal to the amount of trip fuel?. Trip Fuel = TOM - DOM - Contingency Fuel - Alternate Fuel - Final Reserve - Extra Fuel. Trip Fuel = TOM - DOM - Traffic Load - Taxi Fuel - Contingency Fuel - Alternate Fuel - Final Reserve - Extra Fuel. Trip Fuel = TOM - DOM - Traffic Load - Contingency Fuel - Alternate Fuel - Final Reserve - Extra Fuel. Trip Fuel = TOM - Traffic Load - Contingency Fuel - Alternate Fuel - Final Reserve - Extra Fuel.

When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered. NONE. ZZZZ followed by an entry in Item 18. XXXX followed by an entry in Item 18. The most descriptive abbreviation.

A flight from BIRMINGHAM (EGBB) to DUBLIN (EIDW) has an EOBT of 09:30 UTC, actual airborne time of 09:50, expected trip time of 1 hour, estimated flying time to SHANNON FIR (EISN) boundary of 55 minutes. How should you complete item 18 of the ICAO flight plan regarding your estimate for the FIR boundary?. EET/EIDW1045. EET/EISNOO55. EET/EISN1025. EET/EISNO060.

What are the types of NOTAM?. Temporary, short-notice, permanent. A, B, C. NOTAMN, NOTAMR, NOTAMC. AEL.

At a fuel Relative Density of 0.80 an aircraft turbine engine burns 220 litres per hour. If Relative Density is 0.75 what is the fuel burn?. 235 L/h. 206 L/h. 220 L/h. 176 L/h.

The legend for a chart states that the procedure is an APV Baro or APV SBAS instrument approach procedure. The significance of this is that the approach is an approach procedure with vertical guidance, which is…. 3D approach down to minima published as LNAV/VNAV or LPV. 2D non - precision approach down to minima published as MDA, LNAV or LP. 3D precision approach down to minima published as DA or DH. 2D non - precision approach down to minima published as LNAV or LP.

The Maltese Cross symbol depicted in approach profile view identifies: FAF for precision approaches. FAF for non-precision approaches. ATIS available. Radar capability.

Refer to the Lido, Innsbruck (LOWI) RNAV STAR Chart. You are flying the ELMAM 1A STAR just passing waypoint UMVEG inbound RTT. What is the MEA for this segment?. 13 000 ft. 9500 ft. 11 600 ft. 12 000 ft.

An airway is marked 3700T 2300 a. This indicates that.. The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3700 ft. The airway base is 3700 ft MSL. The airway is a low level link route 2300 ft - 3700 ft MSL. The minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3700 ft.

Which of the following PBN approaches does this definition describes? A 3D approach with vertical guidance (APV), like a conventional ILS but using GNSS augmented by SBAS. No barometric input is used. LPV. LP. LNAV/VNAV. LNAV.

Given: • A to B Distance 2050 NM • Safe Endurance 6 hours • GS OUT = 480 kt • GS ON = 450 kt • GS HOME = 380 kt Calculate the distance and time to the Point of Equal Time from A. 1272 NM 2 h 39 min. 1111 NM 2 h 19 min. 906 NM 1h 53 min. 939 NM 1 h 57 min.

A NOTAM shall be originated and issued concerning which of the following information?. The unserviceability of location, destination, or other instruction signs on the aerodrome movement area. The lack of apron marshalling services and road traffic control. Routine maintenance work on aprons and taxiways that does not affect the safe movement of aircraft. The occurrence or correction of major defects or impediments in the manoeuvring area.

Refer to Lido, Zurich (LSZH) RNAV 1 SID chart An aircraft receives the following ATC clearance from the Zurich (LSZH) Delivery: "Cleared to destination via the VEBIT 4H standard departure from runway 34, squawk 4552 What are the altitude/FL and speed restrictions during your departure?. ZH570 MNM 3500 ft MAX 210KT ZH568 MNM 5000 ft MOMOL MNM FL80. ZH570 MNM 3500 ft MAX 210KT BEREGO MNM 5000 ft ZH556 MNM 6000 ft ZH559 MNM 7000 ft. ZH570 MNM 3500 ft MAX 210KT BEREGO MNM 5000 ft ZH554 MNM 6000 ft ZH558 MNM 7000 ft. ZH570 MNM 1959 ft MAX 210KT ft ZH569 MNM 2960 ft BREGO MNM 2608 ft.

If the actual in-flight wind produces a greater headwind than the forecast wind input into the FMC, what should be expected?. Speeds will be increased to maintain ETAs. The optimum level will be lowered. Anew cruise level will be generated by the FMC. Earlier ETAs will be generated by the FMC.

A Performance class (1) aeroplanes’ means multi-engined aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with an MOPSC of more than (2) or a maximum take-off mass exceeding (3) , and all multi-engined turbo-jet powered aeroplanes: (1) A (2) 19 (3) 5700kg. (1) B (2) 9 (3) 5700kg. (1) A (2) 9 (3) 5700kg. (1) B (2) 19 (3) 7000kg.

Refer to Jeppesen, Trondheim (ENVA) ILS approach chart (11-2) What type of Approach Lighting is there on Rwy 27?. HIALS. PADIS. Standard ALSF II. HIALS Calvert I.

Details of temporary danger areas are published: By VOLMET. In AlCs. On the appropriate chart. In NOTAMs.

A NOTAM gives the following information for the destination aerodrome: OBST HGT 256ft AGL / 302ft AMSL; OCA/OCH for all approaches is given as 600ft AMSL What is the height difference between the obstacle and OCA/OCH?. 398 ft. 344 ft. 204 ft. 298 ft.

On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information "90". This means that within this quadrant: The altitude of the highest obstacle is 9 000 ft. The floor of the airway is at 9 000 ft. The minimum safe altitude is 9 000 ft (Grid MORA). The minimum flight level is FL90.

What will be the effect of an incorrect cruise level entry into the FMC?. The incorrect entry will be detected and the input will be prevented. There will be NO effect as the FMC will make an automatic correction. The aircraft will NOT be able to reach the ATC assigned cruise level. The FMC will calculate incorrect speeds, times and fuel flows.

Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: Magnetic headings. True headings. True course. Magnetic course.

Refer to Jeppesen, GATWICK (EGKK) SID chart (20-3G). You have just departed RWY 26L, according to your routing what altitude do u need to be at when passing KKS14 and on what radial to the MAY VOR?. A030-A050 – R103. A030 – R283. A040-A050 – R283. A050 – R193.

The trip fuel for a Commercial Air Transport flight should include. 5% contingency fuel. Taxi fuel. Missed-approach fuel. Any step-climb/descent fuel.

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is a form of ABAS whereby a GNSS receiver processor determines the (1) of the GNSS navigation signals. At least one additional (2) needs to be available, for the receiver to perform the RAIM function. (1) integrity; (2) satellite. (1) availability; (2) receiver. (1) integrity; (2) receiver. (1) availability; (2) satellite.

An aerodrome has an ILS approach to runway 20 with a decision altitude of 250 feet. If the aerodrome elevation is 110 feet, what is the category of approach?. Category I. Category III. Category II. No Category.

You plan to fly from A to B at a TAS of 230 kt, a GS of 255 kt and an initial cruising pressure altitude of 15000 ft. How should you complete item 15 of the ICAO Flight Plan?. N0230 F150. N0230 FL150. N0255 S1500. K0230 F150.

With reference to the availability of a GNSS satellite, what is the difference between a planned and an unplanned outage?. Unplanned outages will be notified weekly. Planned outages will be notified in advance. Unplanned outages will NOT be notified. Planned outages will be notified as they occur.

Who is responsible for terrain clearance in flight?. The PIC at all times unless under radar vectors. The ATC in ABCD airspace. The PIC and the ATC. The PIC at all times.

The highest obstacle located within 8 km of a specific IFR route segment is 1220 ft. What is the minimum altitude providing the required obstacle clearance for that segment?. 2300 ft. 3220 ft. 3300 ft. 2220 ft.

An aircraft has been planned to fly via a significant point based upon the TIR VORDME, QDM120 at range of 95 NM. The correct entry for the ICAO flight plan is: TIR120095. 300095TIR. TIR30095. TIR300095.

The air distance and time to climb is 197 NAM and 33 min respectively. What is the required ground distance with a 40 kt headwind component?. 184 NGM. 222 NGM. 175 NGM. 157 NGM.

An aircraft is airborne from an airfield, elevation 1560 ft AMSL, on a QNH of 986 mb/hPa. On its track of 269°(M) there is a mountain 12090 ft AMSL. To clear this obstacle by a minimum of 2000 ft its correct ICAO VFR Flight level is: (1 mb/hPa = 30 ft). FL155. FL165. FL160. FL145.

A flightis due to operate between London and Glasgow on a Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL). Prior to departure Glasgow is closed due to heavy snow. The operator intends to operate this flight to Edinburgh instead. The correct action regarding flight plans is: This cannot be done, go back to airport hotel. Take-off for Glasgow and divert along route. Operations should inform the London ATC Unit at least 10 minutes before departure. Cancel the RPL and file a standard ICAO flight plan to Edinburgh.

According to ICAO, what is the lowest altitude that may be used which provides a minimum clearance of 300 m (1000 ft) above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centred on a radio aid to navigation?. MSA. MCA. MOCA. MEA.

Refer to the Jeppesen, Budapest (LHBP) Approach Chart (11-3) The highest depicted terrain or man-made obstacle in the Approach Plan View of the approach chart is. 5000 ft. 2478 ft. 3800 ft. 1358 ft.

For how long is this NOTAM valid? Q) EGPX/QMRLC/IV/NBO/A/000/999/5557N00322W005 B) FROM: 15/01/01 2130 C) TO:15/03/3121:30 E) RWY 12/30 CLOSED TO FIXED WING AIRCRAFT, ROTOR AIRCRAFT CAN USE THE HELICOPTER AIMING POINT (HAP) DURING DAYLIGHT HOURS. 24 hours. 3 months. 48 hours. One year.

The planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome with a CAT II approach must be: Ceiling (DA/H +400ft) and RVR/VIS +1500m. CAT II RVR. Ceiling (DA/H +200ft) and RVR/VIS +800m. CAT I RVR.

An aircraft has to fly a distance of 123 NM. The planned time to cover this distance is 93 minutes. Actually, it covers the distance in 41 minutes. How fast did the aircraft fly?. 180 kt. 160 kt. 142 kt. 79 kt.