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TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESEGlaeserneManufaktur

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del test:
GlaeserneManufaktur

Descripción:
FlugzeugeTp2

Autor:
AVATAR

Fecha de Creación:
18/09/2017

Categoría:
Otros

Número preguntas: 126
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Temario:
9407. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment A— to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. B— to be inoperative anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed. C— to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.
9380. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A— Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B— If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. C— Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
9381. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A— Notify ATC immediately. B— Squawk 7600. C— Monitor the VOR receiver.
9386. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A— No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B— Advise ATC immediately. C— Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
9387. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required? A— Descend below Class A airspace. B— Advise dispatch via company frequency. C— Notify ATC immediately.
8278. If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A— A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. B— Original dispatch release. C— Certificate holder’s manual.
9174. Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A— Altimeter setting. B— Actual pressure at field elevation. C— Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
9164. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A— Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B— Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C— Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
9099. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard A— effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. B— corrections for static pressure systems. C— corrections for instrument error.
9173. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A— They are both the same, 31,000 feet. B— True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. C— Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
9173-1. When the temperature is -20°C at 15,000 feet indicated, you know that A— altimeters automatically compensate for temperature variations. B— the altimeter is indicating higher than true altitude. C— the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.
9172. If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A— Lower than pressure altitude. B— Higher than pressure altitude. C— Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.
9813. Given Pressure altitude .............................................. 1,000 ft True air temperature ............................................ 10°C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A— 1,000 feet MSL B— 650 feet MSL C— 450 feet MSL.
9163. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A— 585 feet. B— 1,300 feet. C— Sea level.
9080. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and f ixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A— Increase in indicated airspeed. B— Decrease in indicated airspeed. C— Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.
9081. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A— The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B— The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. C— No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
9082. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A— No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. B— Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. C— Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.
9222. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not? A— Indication will drop to zero. B— Indication will rise to the top of the scale. C— Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.
8206. ( See Figure shown below.) You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the A— pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. B— standby indicator is defective because there is no red ‘X’ on the speed tape display. C— airspeed means attitude is incorrect.
9769. Automated flight decks or cockpits A— enhance basic pilot flight skills. B— decrease the workload in terminal areas. C— often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
9769-1. Automated flight decks or cockpits A— improve basic flight skills. B— decrease the workload in terminal areas. C— sometimes hide errors.
9769-2. When flying an aircraft with electronic flight displays (EFDs), risk increases A— if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance f light safety and remove pilot error. B— when the pilot expects the equipment to malfunction on occasion. C— if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for lack of skill and knowledge.
9830. Automation has been found to A— create higher workloads in terminal areas. B— improve crew situational awareness skills. C— substitute for a lack of aviation experience.
9853. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits, A— greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved. B— risk is increased. C— risk is decreased.
9854. Automation in aircraft has proven A— to present new hazards in its limitations. B— that automation is basically flawless. C— effective in preventing accidents.
9855. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation A— are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. B— have proven to increase safety in operations. C— may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
9857. Humans are characteristically A— disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. B— disposed to expect automation to fail often. C— poor monitors of automated systems.
9410. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A— who was responsible for any accident or incident. B— evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. C— possible causes of accidents or incidents.
9356. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used? A— Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. B— Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. C— Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830.
9357. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A— 60 days B— 90 days. C— 30 days.
9428. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A— maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B— request ATC clearance for the deviation. C— notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
425. TCAS I provides A— traffic and resolution advisories. B— proximity warning. C— recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.
9426. TCAS II provides A— traffic and resolution advisories. B— proximity warning. C— maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.
9750. With no traffic identified by TCAS, you A— can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area. B— must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. C— must scan only for hot air balloons.
9427. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A— maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B— request a new ATC clearance. C— expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
9427-1. With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you A— can rest assured that no other aircraft is near. B— must continually scan for other traffic. C— must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.
8150. If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A— when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. B— in VFR conditions. C— in day VFR conditions.
8151. An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A— conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. B— carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo.” C— conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather.
8148. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A— Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. B— Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. C— Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.
8154. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A— All turbine powered airplanes. B— Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C— Large turbine-powered airplanes only.
8140. Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. B— may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C— may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
8141. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A— All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B— Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. C— All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.
8143. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated A— from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. B— from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. C— when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.
8142. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system, A— a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. B— a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. C— a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
9258. ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure A— wake turbulence avoidance. B— traffic separation only. C— wind shear avoidance.
9261. Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A— 122.1 MHz. B— 122.0 MHz. C— 123.6 MHz.
9702. The Federal Aviation Administration’s Flight Information Services Data Link (FISDL) is designed to provide data on a common frequency to flight crews from A— 17,500 feet AGL down to 5,000 feet MSL. B— 17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL. C— 5,000 feet MSL to 17,500 feet MSL.
9712-1. The Federal Aviation Administration’s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A— METARS, SIGMETS, PIREP’s, and AIRMETS. B— SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM’s, and AIRMETS. C— Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW’s, and NOTAMs.
9712-2. The Federal Aviation Administration’s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) products, such as ground radar precipitation maps, A— may be used instead of the aircraft radar. B— are not appropriate for finding a path through a weather hazard area. C— may be used to find a path through a weather hazard area.
8135. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A— ARINC. B— Any FSS. C— Appropriate dispatch office.
9783. When should transponders be operated on the ground during taxiing? A— Only when ATC specifically requests that the transponder to be activated. B— Any time the airport is operating under IFR. C— All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
9783-1. If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect A— your VHF receiver is inoperative. B— your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone. C— the radio is performing a self-test function.
9784. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should A— operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi. B— operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. C— be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.
9019. What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable? A— A test signal, “TESTING,” is sent every 30 seconds. B— Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent “OFF” flag would appear. C— The identifier would be removed.
9020. Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable? A— Coded identification T-E-S-T. B— Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent “OFF” flag might appear. C— An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.
9375. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other? A— 4° on the ground and in flight. B— 6° on the ground and in flight. C— 6° in flight and 4° on the ground.
9405. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/ FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may A— be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and subtracted from all VOR courses. B— be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. C— not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/ FROM should read TO.
9406. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A— plus or minus 6°. B— plus 6° or minus 4°. C— plus or minus 4°.
9376. Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check? A— Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. B— Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. C— Date, place, bearing error, and signature.
9404. What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check? A— The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. B— The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. C— The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent record.
9377. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR? A— VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months. B— ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. C— Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.
9408. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight? A— At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. B— In terminal radar service areas. C— Above 12,500 feet MSL.
9023. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet? A— 0 DME miles. B— 2 DME miles. C— 2.3 DME miles.
9024. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC? A— High altitudes close to the VORTAC. B— Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. C— Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
9570. (Refer to Figure 112.) While arcing left on the IAH 10 DME Arc, the pilot experiences a left crosswind component. Where should the bearing pointer be referenced relative to the 90° (wingtip) position to maintain the 10 DME range? A— On the left wingtip reference. B— Behind the left wingtip reference. C— Ahead of the left wingtip reference.
8145. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on “victor airways,” which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A— VOR. B— ADF. C— VOR and DME.
8195. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A— VOR. B— VOR and ILS. C— VOR and DME.
8195-1. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-thetop conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio navigation equipment is required? A— single VOR and DME installed. B— dual approved independent navigation systems. C— dual VOR, ILS’s, and DME.
8149. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A— proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B— continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. C— proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.
8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies? A— The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B— The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds. C— The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.
8146. When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped? A— In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. B— Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required . C— For flights at or above FL 180.
8152. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A— One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. B— Airborne radar. C— DME.
9751. ( See Figure shown below.) The moving map below reflects a loss of A— position information. B— the AHRS. C— the ADC.
8999. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond? A— 4. B— 15. C— 17.
9000. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “E” correspond? A— 5. B— 6. C— 15.
9001. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond? A— 10. B— 14. C— 16.
9002. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond? A— 1. B— 8. C— 11.
9003. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “B” correspond? A— 9. B— 13. C— 19.
9004. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond? A— 6. B— 7. C— 12.
8984. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV? A— 5.0 NM. B— 7.5 NM C— 10.0 NM.
8985. (Refer to Figure 139.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV? A— R-175. B— R-165. C— R-345.
8986. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO? A— 175. B— 165. C— 345.
8987. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV? A— 1°. B— 2°. C— 4°.
8988. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI? A— 174. B— 166. C— 335.
8989. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO? A— 166. B— 346. C— 354.
8990. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond? A— 9 and 6. B— 9 only. C— 6 only.
8991. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond? A— 11. B— 5 and 13. C— 7 and 11.
8992. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond? A— 9. B— 4. C— 12.
8993. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond? A— 1. B— 10. C— 2.
8994. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond? A— 8 only. B— 8 and 3. C— 3 only.
8995. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond? A— 4 B— 11. C— 5.
8996. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond? A— 7 only. B— 7 and 11. C— 5 and 13.
8997. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “H” correspond? A— 8. B— 1. C— 2.
8998. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “I” correspond? A— 4. B— 12. C— 11.
9352. Which publication includes information on operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace? A— 14 CFR Part 121. B— ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 2. C— 14 CFR Part 91.
9353. How may an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the minimum navigation capability required by 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix C? A— By operating under VFR conditions only. B— By requesting a deviation from the Administrator. C— By operating only between 2400Z and 0600Z.
8196. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the A— Airplane Flight Manual B— International Flight Information Manual. C— Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.
8197. Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? A— Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications. B— International Flight Information Manual. C— Airplane Flight Manual.
9811. What document(s) must be in a person’s possession for that person to act as a flight navigator? A— Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight Navigator Certificate. B— Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current Second-Class (or higher) Medical Certificate. C— Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid passport.
8199. A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when A— operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. B— operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. C— the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.
8961. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A— 108.10 to 118.10 MHz. B— 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. C— 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
8966. What functions are provided by ILS? A— Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B— Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C— Guidance, range, and visual information.
8958. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C— Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
8959. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second, identified as a high pitch tone. B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second, identified as a low-pitched tone. C— Alternate dots and dashes identified as a lowpitched tone.
8960. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker? A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C— Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
8962. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker? A— A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. B— Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light. C— A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.
8956. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A— Inner marker. B— Middle compass locator. C— Outer compass locator.
8957. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A— Inner marker. B— Middle compass locator. C— Outer compass locator.
9403. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A— VOR/DME FIX. B— Surveillance radar. C— Compass locator.
8970. If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative, A— the RVR required to begin the approach in increased by 20%. B— the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet. C— the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
8968. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A— When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to fullscale right, or vice versa. B— When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C— When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to halfscale right, or vice versa.
8969. Which “rule-of-thumb” may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath? A— 5 times groundspeed in knots. B— 8 times groundspeed in knots. C— 10 times groundspeed in knots.
9749. The rate of descent for a 3.5º angle of descent glidescope is A— 740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed. B— 740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed. C— 740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.
8971. (Refer to Figures 135 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A— 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B— 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C— 430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.
8972. (Refer to Figures 136 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated? A— 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B— 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C— 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
8973. (Refer to Figures 137 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated? A— 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope. B— 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope. C— 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.
8963. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A— DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B— DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. C— DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
9411. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A— Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR. B— RCLS and REIL. C— All of the required ground components.
9412. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A— After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B— When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C— When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.
9413. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL? A— RCLS and REIL. B— Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR. C— Each required ground component.
8967. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC? A— LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. B— LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS – aligned with runway. C— LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°.
8965. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC? A— SDF – 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. B— SDF – offset from runway plus 4°, ILS – aligned with runway. C— SDF – 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°.
9794. (Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you A— should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. B— can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums. C— must know ahead of time whether or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.
9795. (Refer to Figure 253.) You are cleared to LXV in your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY 16 approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums will be A— 11,360' MDA and 3/4 mi. B— 11,360' MDA and 1-1/4 mi. C— 11,360' MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1-1/2 mi.
9796. (Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. The preflight briefer issued an unreliable advisory before takeoff. Your avionics are good and you have full GPS service. You A— can descend to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and 2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory. B— descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400 RVR in your CAT B aircraft. C— can descend to the LNAV MDA of 518 feet due to the FSS advisory.
9796-1. (Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you an “unreliable” advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signal. You A— know you can only fly the approach down to LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS advisory. B— can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 RVR in your CAT B airplane. C— can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA of 560'.
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