Guía de estudio A320

The Service Interphone allows communication between the flight deck and up to seven_______ locations. service interphone jack. ground jack. flight attendant.

The Flight Crew can call the F/A Stations or the Ground Crew by use of Pushbuttons on the________. RMP. CALLS panel. ACP.

If an Emergency Call to the Flight Deck from the Cabin is made during takeoff and landing, the BUZZER is inhibited. True. False.

An Emergency Evacuation system alert can be activated from the Flight Deck or the Cabin. The Flight Deck EVAC controls are located on__________. the center instrument panel. the overhead panel. the pedestal.

The DFDR can store at least the last ______ hours of operating data. 30. 10. 25. 22.

What is the porpouse of an Audio Control Panel (ACP)?. To select a STBY frecuency on a radio. To select a frecuency on a radio. To select wich radio is used for transmission.

When is the Call's buzzer in the Flight Deck inhibited?. During taxi. During take off and landing. Calls to flight deck are never inhibited.

Normally, RMP 1 is assigned to tune VHF 2. True. False.

Flight Control Protection Symbols display in ________ on the PFD at +/- 67 bank, to mark the bank limits. Red. Green. Ambar.

The E/WD display always has priority over the SD display. True. False.

The ROSE LS mode displays a compass rose with the raw data localizer and glideslope deviation bars in — . Blue. Magenta. Red.

A ________ diamond is used to display the aircraft track. Green. Blue. Yellow.

A red ribbon Ground Reference displays on the right side of the Barometric Altimeter scale. The ribbon is driven by the Radio Altimeter signal and displays below _______. 570 ft. 500 ft. 670 ft.

If the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude by more than 250', the altitude window flashes amber and a ______ is provided. Master Caution. intermittent aural warning. continuous aural warning.

When the aircraft is above 2500 ft., the displays are amber if the vertical speed exceeds ________ ft/min. 6000. 5000. 2000.

If the PFD displayed pitch angle exceeds_______ , large red arrowheads indicate excessive attitude and show the direction to move the nose in order to reduce the pitch angle. 30 '. 25 '. 33 '.

The ROSE VOR mode displays a blue ______ for tracking a VOR radial. RMI pointer. VOR selector. lateral deviation bar.

The altitude alert feature is inhibited when the ______________. Landing configuration. Landing gear is down. 2500 RA.

The AC ESS BUS is normally powered by __________. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1. AC ESS SHED.

The Emergency generator is driven by hyd pressure from the _______ hyd system. Yellow. Green. Blue.

To disconnect an IDG, the engine must be ___________. Shut down. Running or windmilling.

GREEN circuit breakers are __________ by the flight warning system. Not Monitored. Monitored.

How many smoke detector cavities are in the FWD cargo compartment ?. ONE. TWO. THREE.

By pushing to release the APU Fire pushbutton, the agent bottle will be ______. Discharge. Armed. Disable.

How many fire extinguishing bottles are avalible for the cargo compartments ?. ONE. TWO. THREE.

The flight crew will configure the ventilation system for smoke control by selecting both the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons to________. ON. AUTO. OVRD.

How long can each OXYG generator provide OXYG to the associated cabin masks ?. 24 min. 22 min. 25 min.

The A320 Sidestick or Auto-pilot electrical outputs are sent to _______ Electronic Flight Control System (EFCS) computers that send electrical signals to electrically controlled hydraulic actuators. 6. 7. 5.

If one Hydraulic system is inoperative, flaps or slats move _________________. At half speed. At Normal speed. At third of the speed.

The two elevators and the THS are normally controlled by. ELAC 1. ELAC 2. SEC 1.

There are _______ spoiler panels on each wing. 4. 5. 6.

In the FLIGHT mode, during manual flight in Alternate Law, the bank angle limit is________. 45 degrees. there is no limit in alternate law. 67 degrees.

In the FLIGHT mode, during manual flight in Alternate Law, there is a bank angle protection. True. False.

The Load Factor Limitation in Alternate Law is similar to that under ___________. Mechanical Backup. Normal Law. Optimal Law.

What is the primary purpose of GPWS Mode 4 alerts?. To provide alert to protect against WindShear. To provide alert to protect against ALTITUDE. To provide alert to protect against CFIT.

Normally, what ADIRU is supplied by GPS 1?. ADIRU 1. ADIRU 2. ADIRU 1 and 3.

At what rate is the remainig pressure released after touchdown?. 300 feet per minute. 500 feet per minute. 700 feet per minute.

On the ECAM CAB PRESS, over what rate (up or down) the the vertical speed will display in amber?. 1000 feet per minute. 2000 feet per minute. 500 feet per minute.

The automatic Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs) optimize the cabin altitude to not exceed a limit of __________. 10,000 feet. 8,000 feet. 6,000 feet.

What must be manually selected by the pilot in the semi-automatic pressurization mode?. MSA of destination. Minimums. Landing elevation.

What kind of motor operates the outflow valve when the manual pressurization mode is engaged!. electric. hydraulic. pneumatic.

What is the temprature selection range for each zone?. 0°C to 40°C. 18°C to 30°C. 10°C to 34°C.

The temperature of the air that exits the compressor section is displayed above the Pack Flow. Above what temperature it displays the temperature in amber?. 230 degrees C. 300 degrees C. 130 degrees C.

Regardless of the selected flow rate, ¿When does the system deliver high flow rate?. when the outside temperature is higher than 27 degrees C. in flight. in single pack operation.

With a Zone temperature selector at the 12 o'clock position, what temperature selection does it correspond to?. 20°C. 24°C. 22°C.

The Ram Air Inlet Flaps remain open during takeoff and landing to allow for extra airflow during high power situations. True. False.

Concerning the pack flow controllers, LO equals _____, NORM equals ______, and HI equals ______ of flow. 20% : 60% : 100%. 100% : 200% : 250%. 80% : 100% : 120%.

If fuel pumps have failed, the engines can receive fuel from the wing tanks ______. by gravity. scavenge pumps. air reservoir pressure.

Which fuel pump normally provides fuel to the APU ?. Left wing tank pumps. Right wing tank pumps. Center wing tank pumps.

what is the purpose of the fuel recirculation system ?. It provides IDG cooling through fuel flow. It provides engine cooling through fuel flow. It provides generator cooling through fuel flow.

Can the aircraft be refuel when only Baterry Power is available ?. Yes. No.

Approximately how long does it take to refuel all tanks ?. 25 minutes. 20 minutes. 15 minutes.

Is gravity feed from the center fuel tank possible ?. Yes. No.

The Cabin layout of the A319 is certified with a maximun of : 150 seats. 144 seats. 180 seats.

How many more emergency exits located on each side of the cabin have the A320 than the A319 ?. the A320 has 1 more exit on each side. the A320 has 2 more exit on each side. there is no difference.

After takeoff, an AP can be engaged when ______ AGL. 200 FT. 100 FT. 300 FT.

With one engine inoperative, the A/THR will remain engaged when the thrust levers are placed at any position between idle and the_______. MCT detent. TOGA detent. CLIMB detent.

Which HYD systems have engine driven pumps ?. Green and Yellow. Green and Blue. Blue and Yellow.

Which Memo message is displayed when the PTU is running ?. HYD PTU. PTU ON. PTU ACTIVE.

The PTU will operate if the differential pressure between the green an the yellow systems is more than _____. 1000 psi. 500 psi. 700 psi.

Can de RAT be manually deployed by the crew ?. YES. NO.

The RAT ( Ram Air Turbine ) pressurizes _________. the blue system. the yellow system. the green system.

The blue system is normally pressurized by ________. an electric pump. an engine driven pump. a pneumatic pump.

Auto brakes are available with the _____________. Only Alternate Braking. Only Normal Braking. Normal and Alternate Braking.

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for the Alternate brakes and the parking brake?. Green. Yellow. Blue.

The landing gear positions are indicated by _______ triangles for each gear in the wheel SD page. Two. Three. Four.

Prior to pushback, ground personnel will set the towing control lever to the TOW position, and this condition is displayed as a green Memo of NW STRG DISC. True. False.

In order to alert the crew that the N/W steering is disconnected, the NW STRG DISC memo displays _________ after the first engine is started. Green. White. Amber.

When the alternate brake system is operating, and the Yellow system is not pressurizd, the accumulator pressure is sufficient for _____ applications. seven. five. six.

The high altitude pushbutton changes the altitude for automatic mask deployment from _________________. 12.000 feet to 14.000 feet. 10.000 feet to 12.000 feet. 14.000 feet to 16.000 feet.

Cabin OXYG masks are automatically presented to persons in the cabin when the cabin altitude exceeds ___________. 10,000 feet. 12,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

When activated, an oxygen generator canister becomes extremely hot and a burning odor may be detected. True. False.

In the Smoke configuration, Conditioned air is not supplied and Ventilation air is recirculated. True. False.

There is a dedicated fire extinguishing system in the avionics bay. True. False.

How many smoke detector(s) are installed in each lavatory ?. ONE. TWO. THREE.

Does automatic APU fire extinguishing occurs on ground ?. Yes. No.

Selection of Engine Anti-Ice during climb may ______ your available thrust. increase. reduce. not affect.

What are the names of the controls laws that are used to operate the flight controls ?. Normal, Alternate, Direct. Standard, Alternate, Direct. Normal and Alternate.

What is the capacity of the portable water storage tank?. 170 lit. 201 lit. 185 lit.

How many agents bottles are available to provide engine fire protection ?. Two per engine. One per engine. Two for both engines.

The alert height on the A320FAM is ________________. 150 feet RA. 100 feet RA. 200 feet RA.

Reduced thrust takeoffs are ___________ on contaminated runways. permitted. permitted if performance calculations ar made. not permitted.

Do not use HP ground air and APU bleed air at the same time, as this may result in ____________. system damage. an APU shutdown. passengers discomfort.

The minimum height for use autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode is ____________ feet RA. 100. 200. 50.

The GPWS terrain display _____________as a navigational reference. may be used. may not be used. may or may not be used.

Rapid and large alternating flight control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) should be avoided _________ , as they may result in structural failure. at speeds above VA. at speeds below VA. at any speed.

The minimum altitude for autopilot use on a straight-in non-precision approach, is _________________________________. 100 feet below minimums. 100 feet above minimums. 250 ft AGL.

The maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off) is _____°C. 250. 500. 300.

The APU starter duty cycle limits starting to ____ start attempts. 2. 3. 4.

If you are not going to autoland on a CAT 2 approach, the autopilot must be disengaged no later than ______________. 100 feet AGL. 80 feet AGL. 50 feet AGL.

How is the FADEC PWed when the engine N2 RPM is above the requiered value?. By the aircraft Electrical System. By a Magnetic Alternator. By an internal battery.

Which of the Engine Parameters are always displayed?. The displays on the ECAM ENGINE Page. The Basic displays on the ECAM CRUISE page. The Primary displays on the E/WD.

Regardless of whether the Automatic or Manual Start procedure is used, when will the ignition automatically shut off?. When the N2 reaches 50%. After the Mode Sel Switch is selected to NORM. When the engine is shut down.

What fuel shut off valve is controlled by the Engine Master Switch?. Low Pressure. Low and High Pressure. High Pressure.

For restarting an engine in flight, both igniters come on when the Mode Sel switch is moved to _________. NORM. IGN/START.

The FADEC is PWed by the aircraft electrical system for __________ after the aircraft is first PWed. 3 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes.

What system will engage the action of moving the thrust levers to the Climb detent?. Auto Throttle. Auto Thrust. FADEC.

Using the Automatic Start procedure for starting an engine on the ground, how many igniters will activate?. One. Two. All.

Using the Manual Start for starting an engine, how many igniters will activate?. One. Two.

In which of the following ECAM pages could you distinguish without a doubt the A320 from the A319?. FUEL. BLEED. F/CTL. DOOR/OXY.

The A320 NEO DOOR/OXY ECAM Page has two oxygen pressure indications; the pressure indication on the right side indicates: First Officer Pressure. Standby System Pressure. Captain Pressure.

The A320 NEO design includes a new Oxygen architecture with an extra oxygen bottle for the Flight Crew. TRUE. FALSE.

For A320 NEO, Fuel JP4 is permitted. TRUE. FALSE.

The cockpit oxygen indication on the A320 NEO DOOR/OXY SD page shows: The main pressure of the system on the left side, and the cabin oxygen pressure on the right side. CAPT Oxygen Pressure on the left side, and FO Oxygen pressure on the right side. The main pressure of the system, like the A320 CEO.

A320 NEO keep over _____% airframe commonality with the current A320 CEO. 91. 87. 95.

On the A319 the Tail Strike Pitch Attitude changes from ____ degrees when L/G is extended to _____ degrees when L/G is compressed. 13,3° to 15,5°. 15,8 ° to 11,1°. 15,5° to 13,9°.

The A320 is equipped with 1 bulk cargo door. How many Bulk cargo doors does the A319 have?. 3. 1. 0.

Both the analog and digital displays appear in red if the cabin altitude exceeds_________. 8600 ft. 9550 ft. 8950 ft.

Anti-skid operation is automatically deactivated at ground speeds less than ______. 40 knots. 30 knots. 20 knots.

Hydraulic pressure is automatically removed from the landing gear system at airspeeds above or whenever the landing gear lever is in the up position. 240 knots. 250 knots. 260 knots.

Inoperative items, deferred in accordance with the MEL, must be rectified at or before the expiration of the repair interval that is established by the following letter. Repair Interval C: Items in this category shall be rectified within________consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery. three (3). ten (10). one hundred and twenty (120).

Inoperative items, deferred in accordance with the MEL, must be rectified at or before the expiration of the repair interval that is established by the following letter. Repair Interval B : Items in this category shall be rectified within________consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery. one hundred and twenty (120). ten (10). three (3).

Inoperative items, deferred in accordance with the MEL, must be rectified at or before the expiration of the repair interval that is established by the following letter. Repair Interval D: Items in this category shall be rectified within________consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery. three (3). ten (10). one hundred and twenty (120).

WICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE A-32O HYDRAULIC SYSTEMS. Green & Blue only. Yellow & Green only. Green , Yellow and Blue.

THE PTU ENABLES THE FOLLOWING SYSTEMS TO BE PRESSURIZED. The Yellow and Blue systems. The Green and Yellow systems. The Blue and Green systems.

THE GREEN CAP. AND F/O LIGHTS ON THE GLARESHIELD. Comes ON in front of the pilot losing control if the other stick is not at neutral. Comes ON in front of the pilot taking control if the other stick is not at neutral.

WHICH COMPUTER CONTROLS THE VENTILATION SYSTEM. CPC. AEVC. SFCC.

THE FCU HAS TWO CHANNELS OPERATING INDEPENDENTLY. TRUE. FALSE.

HOW MANY DMC'S ARE AVAILABLE IN THE EFIS AND ECAM SYSTEM. THREE. FOUR. TWO.

ACCORDING TO THE ECAM CLASSIFICATION, A RED WARNING. Is a Level 3 failure mode. Is a Level 2 failure mode. Is a Level 1 failure mode.

THE A-320 IS EQUIPPED WITH. TWO ATC TRANSPONDERS. THREE ATC TRANSPONDERS. ONE ATC TRANSPONDER.

FUEL IS SUPPLIED TO THE SYSTEM BY. 6 Main fuel pumps. 7 Main fuel pumps. 8 Main fuel pumps.

The APU electric starter is controlled by: The EIU. The EEU. The ECB.

Which hydraulic system operates the cargo compartment doors?. Green. Blue. Yellow.

What is the KVA rating of the left, right and APU generators?. 110 KVA. 90 KVA. 55 KVA.

How many AC electrical channels are installed? What are they?. Two channels. One channel. Three channels.

Can both the APU and external power be used simultaneously?. True. False.

How many ship batteries are installed?. One. Two. Three.

Which color circuit breakers are monitored by the electronic centralized and aircraft monitoring (ECAM) system?. Black. Yellow. Green.

When will the electronic centralized and aircraft monitoring (ECAM) system display a warning for a tripped circuit breaker?. When the breaker is tripped for more than one minute. When the breaker is tripped for more than 10 seconds. When the breaker is tripped for more than 30 seconds.

What bus charges the batteries?. DC 1 bus. DC battery bus. AC battery bus.

What is the minimum airspeed required to provide sufficient blue hydraulic pressure to operate the emergency generator?. 100 KTS. 125 KTS. 140 KTS.

How long does it take for the emergency generator to and supply power after RAT extension?. Approximately 5 seconds. Approximately 8 seconds. Approximately 12 seconds.

During an emergency electrical configuration prior to ram air turbine (RAT) deployment, what buses are powered?. BAT 1 powers the AC ESS bus through the static inverter and BAT 2 powers the DC ESS bus. BAT 1 powers the DC ESS bus through the static inverter and BAT 2 powers the AC ESS bus.

During landing with an emergency electrical configuration, when will the DC BAT bus connect to the batteries?. After landing and below 50 knots. After landing and below 100 knots. After landing and below 140 knots.

Can the APU generator power all busses on the ground?. Yes. No.

What is the maximum gear extension speed?. 220 KIAS. 250 KIAS. 260 KIAS.

What is the maximum gear retraction speed?. 220 KIAS. 250 KIAS. 260 KIAS.

What is the maximum gear extended speed?. 260 KIAS/0.67M. 280 KIAS/0.67M. 290 KIAS/0.67M.

Which hydraulic system provides pressure for the parking brake?. The green hydraulic system. The blue hydraulic system. The yellow hydraulic system.

Can the hand crank be used to retract the landing gear?. Yes. No.

Does the nose gear retract forward or aft?. Forward. Aft.

Which hydraulic system provides power for the normal brakes?. The green system. The blue system. The yellow system.

If the Landing Gear Control and Indication Unit (LGCIU) 1 fails, will the remaining LGCIU display indications on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel?. Yes. No.

What is the maximum possible airspeed to open the landing gear hydraulic safety valve?. 250 KIAS. 260 KIAS. 280 KIAS.

After normal gear extension, is the system still hydraulically pressurized?. Yes. No.

During normal law, can maneuvers be accomplished outside the flight envelope?. Yes. No.

How many motors are installed to electrically control the stabilizer?. One. Two. Three.

Can the APU bleed air be used for wing anti-icing?. Yes. No.

During descent, what is the cabin pressure normal scheduled rate of descent limited?. 350 feet per minute. 500 feet per minute. 750 feet per minute.

What is ECAM?. Electronic Computer Aircraft Monitoring System (ECAM). Electronic Centralized Avionics Monitoring System (ECAM). Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System (ECAM).

What ECAM information is shown on the upper display?. Engine/warning display (E/WD) information. System display (SD) information.

If an ECAM screen fails, which ECAM data has priority (E/WD or SD)?. E/WD. SD.

How and when is an RA (resolution advisory) displayed on the TCAS?. Indicated by a red filled square, the target has entered the TCAS conflict airspace 20 - 30 seconds from your aircraft. Indicated by an amber filled circle, the target has entered the TCAS conflict airspace 30 - 45 seconds from your aircraft.

How and when is a TA (traffic advisory) displayed on the TCAS?. Indicated by a red filled square, the target has entered the TCAS conflict airspace 20 - 30 seconds from your aircraft. Indicated by an amber filled circle, the target has entered the TCAS conflict airspace 30 - 45 seconds from your aircraft.

With the Mode Select Switch set to WX+T on the Weather Radar Control Panel, to what distance can turbulence be displayed?. To 20 nm or less. To 40 nm or less. To 80 nm or less.

What does the TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP voice alert indicate?. The aircraft is within 5 - 15 seconds from projected impact with terrain. The aircraft is within 10 - 20 seconds from projected impact with terrain. The aircraft is within 20 - 30 seconds from projected impact with terrain.

What does the CAUTION TERRAIN voice alert indicate?. The aircraft is within 20 - 30 seconds from projected impact with terrain. The aircraft is within 40 - 60 seconds from projected impact with terrain. The aircraft is within 10 - 20 seconds from projected impact with terrain.

In flight, when will the Predictive Windshear System alerts be enabled?. Descending through 1,500 ft radio altitude (RA). Descending through 1,200 ft radio altitude (RA). Descending through 1,000 ft radio altitude (RA).

Does the EGPWS use radar signals to "ground map" terrain. YES. NO.

When is ECAM T.O. INHIBIT active?. From application of T.O. thrust until 800 ft radio altitude (RA) or 1 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first. From application of T.O. thrust until 1200 ft radio altitude (RA) or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first. From application of T.O. thrust until 1500 ft radio altitude (RA) or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.

When is ECAM LDG INHIBIT active?. From 800 ft radio altitude (RA) to 80 knots after landing. From 1200 ft radio altitude (RA) to 80 knots after landing. From 1500 ft radio altitude (RA) to 80 knots after landing.

How many FADECs are installed for each engine?. One FADEC. Two FADEC. Four FADEC.

If all electrical power is lost with the engines running, will they still operate?. Yes. No.

In flight, if the pressure is insufficient even with the high pressure (HP) stage valve open, how is pneumatic pressure maintained?. ECAM alert is displayed. The engine spools up automatically to provide a minimum air pressure. Cross bleed opens automatically.

On which side of the crossbleed valve does the external air supply connect to the manifold?. Left side. Right side.

CAB ALT FT (cabin altitude) The analog and digital presentations appear in green, in normal range. The digital presentation pulses if the cabin altitude is at or above_____________. 8 000 ft (resets at 7 800 ft). 8 800 ft (resets at 8 600 ft). 9 000 ft (resets at 8 800 ft).

In case of engine failure at takeoff or go around, the sideslip index changes from yellow to______. Magenta. Green. Blue.

The SRS mode is a managed vertical mode, used during takeoff and during go-around. The guidance law includes: When the aircraft is airborne, V2 becomes the speed target. When the aircraft is airborne, V2+10 kt becomes the speed target. When the aircraft is airborne, V2+15 kt becomes the speed target.

The windshear detection function is provided by the______________ in takeoff and approach phase. Weather Radar. Flight Warning Computer (FWC). Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC).

TAKEOFF - At VR, initiate the rotation to achieve a continuous rotation with a rate of about 3 °/s, towards a pitch attitude_____________. 10 ° (8.5 °, one engine is failed). 15 ° (12.5 °, one engine is failed). 17.5 ° (15 °, one engine is failed).

Flight control surfaces are all : Hydraulically-controlled, and Electrically-actuated. Electrically-controlled, and Hydraulically-actuated. Electrically-controlled, and Mechanically-actuated.

During normal law, turn with bank angle less than _____, pitch and bank remain constant. 30’. 33’. 45’.

Inside the normal flight envelope, if the flight crew holds full lateral sidestick deflection, the bank angle goes to ____ ° and no further. 40. 45. 67.

Inside the normal flight envelope, if the bank angle exceeds ___ °, the autopilot disconnects and the FD bars disappear. The FD bars return when the bank angle decreases to less than —-°. 45, 40. 33, 30. 60, 45.

The ELAC 1 FAULT light turns on during the power-up test for: 8 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

Recommended Landing Gear Extension height is 2 000 ft AFE. According to the current weather conditions, speed and speed trend, Landing Gear Extension can be anticipated or delayed until a minimum altitude of________. 1 500 ft AFE. 1 700 ft AFE. 1 900 ft AFE.

The FADEC has _____ idle modes. Two. Three. Four.

By the FADEC, Approach idle is selected in flight, when the flaps are extended (FLAPS lever not at zero position), this allows the engine to accelerate rapidly from idle to go-around thrust. True. False.

One of the reasons why an CKPT OXT label may show in amber in the DOOR/OXY ECAM page is ___________________. A failure in the pressure regulator. Oxygen cylinder pressure below 1500 PSI. Oxygen cylinder pressure below 400 PSI.

If cabin altitude exceeds ___________, FULL FACE Quick Donning Masks overpressure supply to the flight crew is automatically started. 30,000 feet. 35,000 feet. 40,000 feet.

The duration of the Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) is approximately ________. 12 minutes. 15 minutes. 18 minutes.

OXYG crew supply pushbutton is off, the words CKPT OXY will display _________ on the DOOR/OXY ECAM PAGE. amber. white. green.

The high altitude pushbutton changes the altitude for automatic mask deployment from _________________. 14.000 feet to 15.500 feet. 14.000 feet to 16.000 feet. 10.000 feet to 14.500 feet.

If the crew OXYG cylinder experiences an overpressure condition, _________________________. the green disk over the safety port will be missing. the regulator will open automatically. the overpressure valve will open automatically.

Turning the emergency pressure selector clockwise in a quick donning mask will ___________________. generate a momentary overpressure condition. Allow an alternate oxygen flow. Lock the overpressure condition.

What source of high pressure air can use the packs?. Ram air during flight. Recirculated air. Ground source of compresed air.

When Ram Air is selected ON and the Outflow Valve is operating under automatic control, as long as the differential pressure is less than 1 psi, How much will the outflow valve open?. 50%. 40%. 80%.

Which of the following are the three zones controlled by the air conditioning system?. Cockpit, Cabin, Baggage Compartments. Cockpit, Forward Cabin, Aft Cabin. Cockpit, Cabin, Avionics. Cockpit, Forward Cabin, Forward Baggage Compartment.

Which configuration is the Normal Ground Configuration for the Avionics Ventilation system?. Closed-circuit. Intermediate configuration. Open-circuit.

Which configuration is the Normal In-Flight Configuration for the Avionics Ventilation system?. Closed-circuit. Open-circuit.