1. An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis by the a. Rudder b. Elevator (s) c. Ailerons.
2. The chord of the wing is measured from a. Wingtip to wingtip b. Wingroot to the wingtip c. Leading edge to the trailing edge.
3. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located? a. 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed reference line b. 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line. c. Aft of the engine.
4. which statement about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) is true? a. AD’s are information alert bulletins issued by the airframe, powerplant, or component manufacturer. b. Compliance with an AD is not mandatory unless the aircraft affected is for hire. c. Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the maintenance records.
5. In brake service works, the term “bleeding brakes” is the process of: a. Withdrawing air only from the system b. Withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system. c. Replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
6. How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure? a. At least two hours b. At least three hours c. At least four hours.
7. When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire to deflate, the tire should be: a. Replaced b. Externally inspected for damage c. Removed from the wheel and inspected for carcass and tread damage .
8. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will: a. Indicate the tread separation. b. Prevent overinflation c. Melt at a specified elevated temperature.
9. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel an air? a. combustion section b. Compressor section c. Diffuser section.
10. What elements must be present for a fire / combustion to occur? a. An ignition source, fuel and nitrogen b. An ignition source such as heat or a spark, fuel and oxygen c. Any combustion element, a light and oxygen. .
11. The turbine section of a jet engine: a. Increases air velocity to generate thrust forces b. Utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the incoming gas flow.
c. Drives the compressor section.
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12. When starting a turbine engine: a. A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specific limits. b. An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start c. Release the starter switch as soon as indication of light-off occurs.
13. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor? a. Turbine and compressor b. Bucket and expander c. Impeller and diffuser.
14. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine? a. Perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow b. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles c. Retrim the engine.
15. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine? a. A rise in the engine fuel flow b. A rise in oil pressure c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
16. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section.
1. The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
2. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust sections
Regarding the above statements, a. Only No.1 is true b. Only No. 2 is true c. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true.
17. Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation? a. Compressor inlet air temperature b. Compressor RPM c. Turbine inlet temperature.
18. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine? a. Ignition, starter, fuel b. Starter, ignition, fuel c. Starter, fuel, ignition.
19. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is to: a. Vent some of the air overboard to prevent a compressor stall b. Control excessively high RPM to prevent a compressor stall c. Vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a compressor stall
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20. Which of the following may be used to accomplish internal inspection of an assembled turbine engine?
1. Infrared photography
2. Ultrasound
3. A borescope
4. Fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light a. 1,2,3 b. 1,3 c. 3.
21. What publication would you consult to determine an aircraft’s, engine or propeller’s, type design and its limitations? a. Type Certificate Data Sheet b. Supplemental Type Certificate c. Technical Standard Order.
22. What kind of publications is used by aircraft manufacturers to notify owners of design defects, product improvements or changes that affect the safety and performance of the aircraft or engines a. Service bulletins, Service letters and Service Instructions b. AD’s, MMEL, TC, STC c. AFM, FCOM, ASM, AWDM.
23. What is the purpose of an Airworthiness directive? a. It’s a mandatory document issued to specify instructions for the maintenance of a particular aircraft b. It’s a mandatory document issued to correct an unsafe condition found in aircraft, engines, propellers or applicances. c. To specify all major alterations that have been made for a certificated aircraft.
24. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause? a. Worn brake lining b. Internal leakage in the master cylinder c. Deteriorated flexible hoses.
25. After performing maintenance on an aircraft’s landing gear system which may have affected the system’s operation, it is usually necessary to: a. Conduct a flight test b. Re-inspect the area after the first flight c. Make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks.
26. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained from: a. The manufacturer’s specifications b. The aircraft service/maintenance manual c. The information stamped on the aircraft wheel.
27. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is checked by: a. Removing the oil filler plug and inserting a gauge b. Measuring the length of the strut extension with a certain air pressure in the strut c. Releasing the air and seeing the oil is to the level of the filler plug.
28. A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow stripe running the length of the hose. This stripe: a. Is used to ensure the hose is installed without excessive twisting b. Identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only c. Identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and may be suitable for a wide range of applications.
29. Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction? a. Check valve b. Metering piston c. Shutoff valve.
30. The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished: a.Through automatic bleed valves on individual components during system operation. b. By operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles c. By allowing the system to remain inoperative for several hours.
31.
1. When servicing aircraft hydraulic system, use the type fluid specified in the aircraft’s manufacturer’s maintenance manual on the instruction plate affixed the reservoir unit
2. Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for each type of fluid
Regarding the above statements: a. Only No.1 is true b. Only No. 2 is true c. Both No. 1and No. 2 are true.
32. A unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called: a. An actuating cylinder b. An accumulator c. A hydraulic pump.
33. At which component in an air-cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and temperature drop? a. Expansion Turbine b. Primary heat exchanger c. Refrigeration bypass valve.
34. The basic air-cycle cooling system consists of: a. A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine. b. Heaters, coolers, and compressors. c. Ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds.
35. The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulating of the: a. Safety and outflow valves b. Safety valves c. Outflow valves.
36. High pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their: a. Green color and the words “BREATHING OXYGEN” stenciled in 1-inch white letters. b. Yellow color and the words “AVIATOR’S BREATHING OXYGEN” stenciled in 1-inch white letters. c. Green color and the words “AVIATOR’S BREATHING OXYGEN stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
37. On transport category aircraft what might be an indication of an over pressure event of the oxygen system? a. The green thermal expansion disc missing b. The green thermal expansion disk in the cockpit missing c. The green thermal expansion disk on the oxygen regulator missing.
38. Which of the following instrument discrepancies would require replacement of the instrument?:
1. Red line missing
2. Case leaking
3. Glass cracked
4. Mounting screws loose
5. Case paint chipped
6. Leaking at line B nut
7. Will not zero out
8. Fogged a. 2,3,7,8 b. 1,4,6,7 c. 1,3,5,8.
39. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an EFIS is to: a. Display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments b. Allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation. c. Receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display.
40. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of: a. Thermocouples b. Shunts c. Fuses.
41. Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring: a. Support the bundle to structure and/or solid fluid lines to prevent chafing damage b. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to compensate for large changes in temperature. c. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure.
42. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are: a. Circuit breakers, resistors, and current limiters b. Circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters. c. Circuit breakers, capacitors, and current limiter plugins mechanical reset types.
43. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire? a. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield b. Wrap with friction tape c. Pass through conduit.
44. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the: a. Circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible. b. Circuit and should be located as close to the unit as possible c. Electrical unit in the circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible.
45. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers: a. Should not be used as circuit protective devices. b. Are useful where only temporary overloads are normally encountered c. Must be used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft.
46. Which instruments are connected to a an aircraft’s pitot-static system?
1. Vertical speed indicator
2. Cabin altimeter
3. Altimeter
4. Cabin rate –of- change indicator
5. Airspeed indicator a. 1,2,3,4 y 5 b. 1,2 y 4 c. 1,3, y 5.
47. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS ARE DISPLAYED ON AN HIS, the indication is: a. That function is inoperative b. That function is operating c. To call attention to deviation from the desired setting or flight path or heading, etc.
48. When an unpressurised aircraft’s static pressure system is leak checked, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system tester?
1. Vertical speed indicator
2. Cabin altimeter
3. Altimeter
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator
5. Airspeed indicator a. 1 o 5 b. 2 o 4 c. 3.
49. Which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel system? a. Aircraft Structure Repair Manual b. Illustrated Parts Manual c. A fuel system schematic.
50. A battery-generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have: a. A transformer b. An inverter c. A variable resistor between the battery and generator.
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