QUESTION 270
What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A. 11001111
B. 11101011
C. 11010111
D. 11010101.
QUESTION 271
What represents the binary equivalence of 96?
A. 11010100
B. 01100000
C. 11010000
D. 11101010.
QUESTION 272
What represents the decimal equivalence of 01101110?
A. 90
B. 96
C. 110
D. 118.
QUESTION 273
What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100101?
A. 5
B. 93
C. 177
D. 229.
QUESTION 274
What represents the decimal equivalence of 11100111?
A. 195
B. 223
C. 230
D. 231.
QUESTION 275
What represents the binary equivalence of 148?
A. 10010110
B. 11010010
C. 10011100
D. 10010100.
QUESTION 276
What is the decimal equivalent of 10101010?
A. 182
B. 180
C. 172
D. 170.
QUESTION 277
What information is used by a switch to forward an Ethernet frame to its destination?
A. IP address
B. destination MAC address
C. ARP table entry
D. FCS checksum.
QUESTION 278
Which two statements accurately describe a broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast domains require that the participating devices connect to common switches or hubs.
B. Broadcast domains consist of devices reachable by frames addressed to the Layer 2 broadcast address.
C. Broadcast domains require a gateway device such as a router.
D. Broadcast domains consist of devices that reside on the same VLAN.
QUESTION 279
Which two statements are correct about Layer 2 broadcast frames? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 broadcast frames are processed by all devices on the same VLAN.
B. Layer 2 broadcast frames are discarded by routers that connect to multiple VLANs.
C. Layer 2 broadcast frames are relayed by routers to all connected VLANs.
D. Layer 2 broadcast frames are relayed by switches to devices on the same VLAN.
QUESTION 280
Which two fields are found in an Ethernet frame header? (Choose two.)
A. TTL
B. flags
C. checksum
D. type.
QUESTION 281
In the MAC address 00: : :9f:eA. , what represents the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)?
A. :9f:eA.
B. 00: : :9f
C. 9f:eA.
D. 00: :.
QUESTION 282
What is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00:90:69:9f:ea:46
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C. 01:00:5e:28:12:95
D. 99:99:99:99:99:99.
QUESTION 283
Which two statements are true regarding an Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch.
B. If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub.
C. If a hub is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the hub.
D. If a switch is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the switch.
QUESTION 284
Two devices on an Ethernet segment sent frames at the same time causing a collision.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both devices stop transmitting, wait a random period of time, verify the wire is idle, and re-transmit.
B. The device with the lowest MAC address is permitted to retransmit first.
C. The device with the lowest MAC address sends a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.
D. Both devices send a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.
QUESTION 285
Which statement is true regarding an Ethernet collision domain?
A. If a router is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the router.
B. If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub.
C. If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch.
D. If a bridge is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the bridge.
QUESTION 286
What is the purpose of a network mask?
A. It is used to identify the maximum hop count of a subnetwork.
B. It is used to identify an IP address as either private or public.
C. It is used to identify the network to which an IP address belongs.
D. It is used to identify the total number of bits present in an IP address.
QUESTION 287
What is the purpose of a network mask?
A. It is used in conjunction with the wildcard mask to determine the number of hosts on a network.
B. It is used to define which parts of the IP address are allocated to host addresses and network prefixes.
C. It is used to hide subnets from external networks by masking the subnets with NAT.
D. It is used to differentiate a network as a classful network or a classless network.
QUESTION 288
Which two statements are true of a network mask? (Choose two.)
A. A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a binary format.
B. A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a decimal format.
C. A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents a network prefix.
D. A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents network hosts.
QUESTION 289
Which two characteristics describe the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
A. limited error checking
B. defined timers
C. no recovery mechanisms
D. three-way handshake.
QUESTION 290
You have been asked to develop an application that uses only connection-oriented protocols.
Which two protocols can you use? (Choose two.)
A. PPP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. ICMP.
QUESTION 291
Which three protocols use UDP as a transport protocol by default? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. SNMP
E. SMTP.
QUESTION 292
Which two protocols use UDP as a transport protocol by default? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. ICMP
C. DHCP
D. RIP.
QUESTION 293
Which network mask is the equivalent of 255.255.248.0?
A. /20
B. /21
C. /22
D. /23.
QUESTION 294
You have been assigned the /24 network and need to segment it into at least 60 subnets.
Which network mask meets this requirement?
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30.
QUESTION 295
You must segment your internal /24 network into a minimum of 12 subnets, each containing a minimum of 12
hosts.
Which network mask do you use?
A. /26
B. /27
C. /28
D. /29.
QUESTION 296
What are the usable hosts on the .128.0/19 network?
A. .128.1 through .143.254
B. .128.128 through .134.254
C. .128.0 through .134.254
D. .128.1 through .159.254.
QUESTION 297
You have been allocated a /22 network.
How many usable hosts are available?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 1024.
QUESTION 298
You have been asked to use a 23-bit network mask to segment the network block 209.18.12.0.
How many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 510
B. 1022
C. 2046
D. 8190.
QUESTION 299
-- Exhibit --
user@router# run show interfaces terse
Interface Admin Link Proto Local
fe-0/0/0 up up
fe-0/0/0.0 up upinet 10.0.39.2/24
iso
mpls
fe-0/0/1 up up
fe-0/0/1.0 up upinet 10.0.18.2/24
fe-0/0/1.5 down up inet 10.0.19.2/24
-- Exhibit --
An administrator is unable to ping any address on the 10.0.19.0/24 subnet. To identify the problem, the
administrator uses the command shown in the exhibit.
Which step should be taken to solve the problem?
A. Check the physical cable.
B. Issue the command activate interfaces fe-0/0/1.5 .
C. Issue the command delete interfaces fe-0/0/1.5 disable.
D. Reconfigure the IP address.
QUESTION 300
-- Exhibit --
interfaces {
ge-0/0/8 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 192.168.1.1/24;
}
}
}
ge-0/0/9 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 192.168.10.1/24;
}
}
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which command would you use to add an additional address to the ge-0/0/9.0
interface?
A. [edit interfaces ge-0/0/9 unit 0]
user@router# set family inet address /24
B. [edit interfaces ge-0/0/9 unit 0]
user@router# set family inet secondary-address /24
C. [edit interfaces ge-0/0/9 unit 0]
user@router# set family inet address /24 secondary
D. [edit interfaces ge-0/0/9 unit 0]
user@router# set family inet address-secondary /24.
QUESTION 301
-- Exhibit --
[editsnmp]
user@router# show
communityCommunityA {
authorization read-only;
clients {
192.168.1.0/28;
}
}t
rap-groupgroupA {
categories {
link;
}
targets {
192.168.100.1;
192.168.200.1;
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, what is the purpose of the targets section of the configuration?
A. It defines which devices will be sending traps.
B. It specifies where to send traps.
C. It defines the IP addresses of management systems that can access the device.
D. It specifies which devices can be polled for SNMP data.
QUESTION 302
-- Exhibit --
traceroute to 10.1.15.2 (10.1.15.2), 30 hops max, 40 byte packets
1 10.1.36.1 (10.1.36.1) 0.651 ms 7.834 ms 0.506 ms
2 10.1.23.1 (10.1.23.1) 0.5 ms 0.5 ms 0.5 ms
3 * * *
4 * * *
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct? A. The packets have exceeded the time-to-live value.
B. There is a loop.
C. The asterisks indicate a response time out.
D. The asterisks indicate that the traceroute is completed.
QUESTION 303
-- Exhibit --
user@router# run show route /24
inet.0: 142 destinations, 142 routes (141 active, 0 holddown, 1 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
/24 *[OSPF/10] 04:10:20
>to 172.25.213.11 via ge-1/0/1.0
to 172.25.213.23 via ge-1/0/2.0
-- Exhibit --
In the exhibit, what does the (>) symbol indicate?
A. There is a software issue with ge-1/0/1.0 interface.
B. There is a hardware issue with ge-1/0/1.0 interface.
C. The next hop of 172.25.213.11 is selected.
D. The next hop of 172.25.213.11 is not resolvable.
QUESTION 304
-- Exhibit
Imagen
-- Exhibit
You have been asked to establish reachability between Router 1's and Router 2's loopback addresses as
shown in the exhibit.
Which two steps will accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Create a static route on Router 1 to 172.17.28.1 with a next hop of 10.10.10.2.
B. Create a static route on Router 1 to 172.17.28.1 with a next hop of 10.10.10.1.
C. Create a static route on Router 2 to 172.17.25.1 with a next hop of 10.10.10.1.
D. Create a static route on Router 1 to 172.17.25.1 with a next hop of 10.10.10.2.
QUESTION 305
-- Exhibit --
[edit routing-options]
user@router# show
static {
defaults {
metric 10;
preference 10;
}
route 10.10.10.0/24 {
next-hop 192.168.100.1;
qualified-next-hop 192.168.200.1;
preference 6;
}
metric 8;
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct about traffic matching the route
10.10.10.0/24?
A. It will be forwarded to 192.168.100.1 using a metric of 10.
B. It will be forwarded to 192.168.100.1 using a metric of 8.
C. It will be forwarded to 192.168.200.1 using a metric of 8.
D. It will be forwarded to 192.168.200.1 using a metric of 10.
QUESTION 306
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route
inet.0: 9 destinations, 9 routes (9 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
10.10.10.91/32 *[Direct/0] 00:09:40
>via lo0.0
10.10.10.92/32 *[OSPF/10] 00:01:50, metric 1
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
100.100.1.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:01:50
Reject
172.16.1.0/24 *[Direct/0] 00:06:09
>via ge-0/0/2.0
172.16.1.1/32 *[Local/0] 00:06:09
Local via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.0.0/16 *[Aggregate/130] 00:00:06
Reject
192.168.0.0/17 *[Aggregate/130] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.50.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.51.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
user@router> show configuration policy-options
policy-statement demo {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 192.168.0.0/16 longer accept;
reject;
}
}
user@router> show configuration protocols ospf
export demo;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
}
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration and routing table shown in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy? A. 192.168.0.0/16 only
B. 192.168.0.0/17 only
C. 192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
D. 192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24, and 192.168.51.0/24.
QUESTION 307
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route
inet.0: 9 destinations, 9 routes (9 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
10.10.10.91/32 *[Direct/0] 00:09:40
>via lo0.0
10.10.10.92/32 *[OSPF/10] 00:01:50, metric 1
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
100.100.1.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:01:50
Reject
172.16.1.0/24 *[Direct/0] 00:06:09
>via ge-0/0/2.0
172.16.1.1/32 *[Local/0] 00:06:09
Local via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.0.0/16 *[Aggregate/130] 00:00:06
Reject
192.168.0.0/17 *[Aggregate/130] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.50.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.51.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
user@router> show configuration policy-options
policy-statement demo {
term 1 {
from {
protocol static;
route-filter 192.168.0.0/16 orlonger accept;
}
then accept;
}
}
user@router> show configuration protocols ospf
export demo;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
}
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration and routing table shown in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy? A. 192.168.0.0/16 only
B. 192.168.50.0/24 only
C. 192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
D. 192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24, and 192.168.51.0/24.
QUESTION 308
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show configuration firewall
familyinet {
filter demo {
term example {
from {
source-address {
100.100.100.0/24;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
}
then {
reject;
}
}
term testing {
from {
source-address {
10.10.10.0/28;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
}
then sample;
}
term results {
from {
address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
}
then accept;
}
term final {
thenpolicer LAPD;
}
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, what will happen to traffic from source 10.10.10.25 destined to
200.200.200.1?
A. The traffic will be rejected.
B. The traffic will be dropped.
C. The traffic will be forwarded.
D. The traffic will be policed.
QUESTION 309
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route
inet.0: 9 destinations, 9 routes (9 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
10.10.10.91/32 *[Direct/0] 00:09:40
>via lo0.0
10.10.10.92/32 *[OSPF/10] 00:01:50, metric 1
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
100.100.1.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:01:50
Reject
172.16.1.0/24 *[Direct/0] 00:06:09
>via ge-0/0/2.0
172.16.1.1/32 *[Local/0] 00:06:09
Local via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.0.0/16 *[Aggregate/130] 00:00:06
Reject
192.168.0.0/17 *[Aggregate/130] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.50.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
192.168.51.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:06
>to 172.16.1.2 via ge-0/0/2.0
user@router> show configuration policy-options
policy-statement demo {
term 1 {
from {
protocol aggregate;
route-filter 192.168.0.0/16 longer;
}
then accept;
}
}
user@router> show configuration protocols ospf
export demo;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
}
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration and routing table shown in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy?
A. 192.168.0.0/16 only
B. 192.168.0.0/17 only
C. 192.168.0.0/16 and 192.168.0.0/17
D. 192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24, and 192.168.51.0/24.
QUESTION 310
-- Exhibit --
[edit policy-options]
user@router# show
policy-statementpolicyABC {
term A {
from {
protocol rip;
route-filter 192.168.1.0/24 longer;
}
then accept;
}
}
[edit protocols ospf]
user@router# show
exportpolicyABC;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface lo0.0;
}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The route 192.168.1.0/25 is accepted.
B. The route 192.168.2.0/24 is accepted.
C. OSPF routes will be exported into RIP.
D. RIP routes will be exported into OSPF.
QUESTION 311
-- Exhibit --
[edit interfaces]
user@router# show
...
lo0 {
unit 0 {
familyinet {
filter {
input protect-loopback;
}
address 192.168.100.1/32;
}
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the function of the protect-loopback filter?
A. to protect the Routing Engine
B. to protect all interfaces on the device
C. to protect the Packet Forwarding Engine
D. to protect the management interface.
QUESTION 312
-- Exhibit
imagen
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, you want to block HTTP access to Web-Server from the subnet where Mal-User is
located. All other traffic should be permitted.
Which firewall filter configuration do you use?
A. [edit firewall family inet filter STOP-MAL-USER]
user@router# show
term one {
from {
source-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.10/32;
}
protocoltcp;
destination-port http;
}
then accept;
}t
erm two {
then {
reject;
}
}
B. [edit firewall family inet filter STOP-MAL-USER]
user@router# show
term one {
from {
source-address {
100.100.100.0/24;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.1/32;
}
protocoltcp;
destination-port http;
}
then accept;
}t
erm two {
then {
reject;
}
}
C. [edit firewall family inet filter STOP-MAL-USER]
user@router# show
term one {
from {
source-address {
100.100.100.0/24;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.1/32;
}
protocoltcp;
destination-port http;
}
then reject;
}
term two {
then {
accept;
}
}
D. [edit firewall family inet filter STOP-MAL-USER]
user@router# show
term one {
from {
source-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.10/32;
}
protocoltcp;
destination-port http;
}
then reject;
}t
erm two {
then {
accept;
}
}.
QUESTION 313
-- Exhibit
imagen
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, you are asked to rate-limit traffic from Web-Server to the subnet where Mal-User is
located. All other traffic should be permitted.
Which firewall filter configuration do you use? A. [edit firewall]
user@router# show
policer LIMIT-MAL-USER {
if-exceeding {
bandwidth-limit 400k;
burst-size-limit 100k;
}
then discard;
}f
amilyinet {
filter STOP-MAL-USER {
term one {
from {
source-address {
100.100.100.10/32;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
}
thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;
}
term two {
then accept;
}
}
} B. [edit firewall]
user@router# show
policer LIMIT-BAD-USER {
if-exceeding {
bandwidth-limit 400k;
burst-size-limit 100k;
}
then discard;
}f
amilyinet {
filter STOP-MAL-USER {
term one {
from {
source-address {
100.100.100.10/32;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
}
thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;
}
term two {
then accept;
}
}
} C. [edit firewall]
user@router# show
policer LIMIT-MAL-USER {
if-exceeding {
bandwidth-limit 400k;
burst-size-limit 100k;
}
then discard;
}f
amilyinet {
filter STOP-MAL-USER {
term one {
from {
source-address {
100.100.100.10/32;
}
destination-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
}
thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;
}
term two {
then reject;
}
}
} D. [edit firewall]
user@router# show
policer LIMIT-MAL-USER {
if-exceeding {
bandwidth-limit 400k;
burst-size-limit 100k;
}
then discard;
}f
amilyinet {
filter STOP-MAL-USER {
term one {
from {
source-address {
200.200.200.0/24;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.10/32;
}
}
thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;
}
term two {
then accept;
}
}
}.
QUESTION 314
-- Exhibit --
...
if-exceeding {
bandwidth-limit 1m;
burst-size-limit 3k;
}t
hen discard;
-- Exhibit --
The configuration in the exhibit is associated with which class of service component?
A. classification
B. policing
C. queuing
D. scheduling.
QUESTION 315
-- Exhibit --
[edit firewall family inet filter COS-CLASSIFIER]
user@router# show
term MANAGER {
from {
source-address {
192.168.200.0/25;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.1/32;
}
}
then {
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
accept;
}
}t
erm ALL-OTHER-TRAFFIC {
then accept;
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 0 {
familyinet {
filter {
input COS-CLASSIFIER;
}
address 192.168.200.1/24;
}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration?
A. behavior aggregate
B. policer
C. multifield
D. forwarding policy.
QUESTION 316
-- Exhibit --
[edit class-of-service]
user@router# show
interfaces {
ge-0/0/2 {
unit 0 {
classifiers {
inet-precedence default;
}
}
}
}
-- Exhibit --
Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration?
A. behavior aggregate
B. policer
C. multifield
D. forwarding policy.
QUESTION 317
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.1.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.1
192.168.1.144/29 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.20.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.1.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.1.128/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
>to 10.20.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
-- Exhibit --
Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the destination IP
address 192.168.1.142? (Assume that only static routes are available for the destination.) A. 10.20.106.10
B. 10.20.14.131
C. 10.18.1.1
D. 10.20.14.130.
QUESTION 318
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.1.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.1
192.168.1.144/29 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.20.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.1.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.1.128/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
>to 10.20.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
-- Exhibit --
Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the destination IP
address 192.168.1.159? (Assume that only static routes are available for the destination.)
A. 10.20.14.130
B. 10.18.1.1
C. 10.20.14.131
D. 10.20.106.10.
QUESTION 319
-- Exhibit --
user@router> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.1.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.1
192.168.1.192/26 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.20.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.1.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
>to 10.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.1.4/30 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
>to 10.20.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
-- Exhibit --
Using the routing table shown in the exhibit, what will be the next-hop IP address used for a destination IP
address of 192.168.1.1? (Assume that the only routes to this destination are static routes.) A. 10.20.14.130
B. 10.18.1.1
C. 10.20.14.131
D. 10.20.106.10.
QUESTION 201
You have been asked to configure your router to send link-related SNMP trap notifications to the network management system (NMS) located at address
172.16.17.1.
Which two commands are required? (Choose two.)
A. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group targets 172.16.17.1
B. set snmp targets 172.16.17.1
C. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group link-status
D. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group categories link.
QUESTION 202
Which statement is true regarding the Network Time Protocol (NTP) on Junos devices?
A. MD5 authentication is supported by the Junos OS.
B. Server mode is not supported by the Junos OS.
C. The Junos OS can provide a primary time reference.
D. The Junos OS does not support the use of a boot server.
QUESTION 203
A network administrator would like to view detailed interface status, properties, statistics, errors, and CoS packet counters.
Which operational command will display this information?
A. show interfaces extensive
B. show interfaces
C. show configuration interfaces
D. show interface status.
QUESTION 204
When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A. snoop
B. tcpdump
C. monitor
D. tail.
QUESTION 205
Which command will allow you to quickly determine the administrative status of all interfaces on a Junos device?
A. show interfaces status
B. show interfaces summary
C. show interfaces terse
D. show interfaces admin.
QUESTION 206
A network administrator wants to verify the active alarms on interface so-0/0/0.0.
Which command displays this information?
A. show interfaces alarms
B. show interfaces terse
C. show alarms extensive
D. show interfaces extensive.
QUESTION 207
Your network administrator has asked you to view the real-time interface usage on ge-0/0/0.
Which command would be used?
A. monitor interface ge-0/0/0
B. traceoptions interface ge-0/0/0
C. debug interface ge-0/0/0
D. monitor usage ge-0/0/0.
QUESTION 208
Which operational command would you use to quickly verify the state of all interfaces?
A. show interfaces terse
B. show interfaces
C. show configuration interfaces
D. show interface status.
QUESTION 209
Which command displays the amount of space available on the storage media?
A. show chassis routing-engine
B. show system file-storage
C. file list
D. show system storage.
QUESTION 210
Which command do you use to display the messages seen during the last system boot?
A. show system boot-messages
B. show chassis messages
C. show file system boot-messages
D. show boot-log messages.
QUESTION 211
Which command do you use to show active alarms?
A. show hardware state
B. show system alarms
C. show chassis state
D. show services alarms.
QUESTION 212
Which command do you use as a valid way to view the PICs within a router as well as the PICs' serial numbers?
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis interfaces
C. show chassis pic
D. show chassis inventory.
QUESTION 213
What is a valid option when using the ping command?
A. packet loss
B. packet size
C. CRC
D. TCP port.
QUESTION 214
You issue the ping interface t1-1/1/0 bypass-routing count 1000 rapid command.
Which statement is correct?
A. The count parameter creates a counter that you can view with the show firewall command.
B. The count parameter allows the router to count the number of pings for logging purposes.
C. The count parameter allows the router to pause for 1000 seconds before sending out a ping.
D. The count parameter allows the router to send out 1000 pings and then stop.
QUESTION 215
You issue the ping interface t1-1/1/0 1.1.1.1 bypass-routing count 1000 rapid command.
Which statement is correct?
A. The bypass-routing parameter is used to test the density on the T1 line.
B. The bypass-routing parameter cannot be used on a T1 interface.
C. The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a host through an interface that has no route through it.
D. The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a local WAN interface without generating any outbound traffic.
QUESTION 216
You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass-routing.
Which statement is correct?
A. The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing.
B. The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1.
C. The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device’s interface ge-1/1/0.
D. Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0.
QUESTION 217
Which command do you issue to upgrade the current software on Junos devices?
A. request system software replace
B. request system software install
C. request system software add
D. request system software upgrade.
QUESTION 218
Which two commands allow you to return to a previous version of software on the device? (Choose two.)
A. request system software add
B. request system software downgrade
C. request system software replace
D. request system software rollback.
QUESTION 219
Which CLI command do you use to determine which files are cleanup candidates?
A. request system storage cleanup candidates
B. request system services storage candidates
C. request system services candidate cleanup
D. request system storage cleanup dry-run.
QUESTION 220
Which three steps are part of the root password recovery process? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Run the recovery script.
C. Reset the root password.
D. Reset the user passwords.
E. Load factory-default configuration.
QUESTION 221
During a password recovery, what is the next step after configuring the system to boot into single-user mode?
A. Reset the root password.
B. Press the space bar.
C. Type recovery.
D. Press the "Enter" key.
QUESTION 222
Which statement is true regarding the password-recovery process?
A. You must have a console connection.
B. You cannot set the console port to an insecure mode.
C. You must press the Enter key so that you can boot into single-user mode.
D. When prompted to enter the full pathname of the shell, you must press the Enter key.
QUESTION 223
What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used as a tiebreaker when the same prefix is available through multiple protocols.
B. It is used to determine the preferred path to a given destination.
C. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal-cost paths.
D. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
QUESTION 224
Which two statements are correct regarding default protocol preference values? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF internal routes have a lower preference than static routes.
B. Both direct and local routes have the same preference value.
C. OSPF's preference value is lower than BGP.
D. OSPF has a single preference value for both internal and external routes.
QUESTION 225
What is the default route preference value for EBGP?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 170
D. 200.
QUESTION 226
Which two statements are correct regarding default protocol preference values? (Choose two.)
A. RIP is preferred over OSPF external routes.
B. Direct, local, and static routes have the same preference value.
C. OSPF's preference value is lower than BGP.
D. OSPF has a single preference value for both internal and external routes.
QUESTION 227
What is the default protocol preference for OSPF internal routes?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 150
D. 160.
QUESTION 228
You are modifying the default route preference under the [edit protocols] hierarchy.
In which two routing information sources can you change the default preference value? (Choose two.)
A. local
B. OSPF
C. direct
D. BGP.
QUESTION 229
By default, if equal-cost paths exist for the same destination, which action will the router take?
A. Drop half the traffic.
B. Make a copy of the traffic and send it to both destinations.
C. Load-balance traffic between the available paths.
D. Randomly select one of the available paths to send traffic.
QUESTION 230
Which command will display only direct routes?
A. show route
B. show route inet.0 direct
C. show ip route direct
D. show route protocol direct.
QUESTION 231
What are two reasons why a route might be hidden? (Choose two.)
A. route preference
B. routing loop
C. invalid next hop
D. routing policy.
QUESTION 232
When attempting to view the OSPF routes in the routing table, you issue the command show route table inet.3 but no OSPF routes are displayed.
What is the problem?
A. The OSPF routes are located in the inet4.0 routing table.
B. The OSPF routes are located in the inet.0 routing table.
C. The OSPF routes are located in the inet.2 routing table.
D. The OSPF routes are located in the inet4.3 routing table.
QUESTION 233
By default, what are three valid routing tables? (Choose three.)
A. inet.0
B. inet4.0
C. inet.6
D. inet6.0
E. inet.3.
QUESTION 234
Which two commands would you use to view OSPF routes? (Choose two.)
A. show ip route ospf
B. show ospf routes
C. show route protocol ospf
D. show route.
QUESTION 235
Which statement is true about routing tables on a Junos device?
A. They purge any routes not selected as active routes.
B. They exist in two places: the Routing Engine and the Packet Forwarding Engine.
C. They are exclusively designed to handle dynamic routing protocols.
D. They populate the forwarding table.
QUESTION 236
Which two statements are true about the forwarding table? (Choose two.)
A. The forwarding table lists each source protocol and preference for each destination.
B. The forwarding table contains only active routes.
C. The forwarding table is used to process transit packets.
D. The forwarding table is stored in compact flash.
QUESTION 237
Which statement is true about the forwarding table?
A. The forwarding table is stored in the control plane only.
B. The forwarding table is stored in the control plane and in the forwarding plane.
C. The forwarding table contains both active and inactive routes.
D. The forwarding table can contain only a single next hop per destination.
QUESTION 238
Which statement is true about a routing table?
A. It contains routes learned dynamically only.
B. It finds the best path to each destination by using a modified shortest-path-first calculation.
C. It contains only active BGP routes.
D. It contains all accepted routes to all destinations.
QUESTION 239
Which statement is true about the routing table?
A. The routing table exists in the control plane only.
B. The routing table exists in the control plane and in the forwarding plane.
C. The routing table contains both active and inactive routes.
D. The routing table is stored on compact flash.
QUESTION 240
You have been asked to create a static route with a next hop that is not directly connected to the router.
Which configuration parameter enables the static route to accomplish this scenario?
A. resolve
B. indirect
C. next-hop
D. recursive.
QUESTION 241
You have been asked to configure your MX240 with a default route toward your upstream ISP at IP address 192.168.100.1.
Which command successfully completes this task?
A. user@router# set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
B. user@router# set routing-options default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
C. user@router# set forwarding-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
D. user@router# set protocols default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1.
QUESTION 242
Which protocol creates a complete database of the network topology prior to calculating the optimal route?
A. BGP
B. PIM
C. OSPF
D. RIP.
QUESTION 243
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing is typically more scalable when compared to static routing.
B. Unlike static routing, dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration.
C. Unlike static routing, dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices.
D. Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity, whereas static routing does not.
QUESTION 244
What is an advantage of dynamic routing?
A. Unlike static routing, dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices.
B. Unlike static routing, dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration.
C. Dynamic routing can provide increased network availability when compared to static routing.
D. Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
QUESTION 245
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B. Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C. Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D. Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.
QUESTION 246
You have a network containing 120 routers. You must establish and maintain connectivity between the loopback interfaces of all routers. Because of the critical
services using the network, you need redundancy and fast failover.
Which routing protocol should you use in this scenario?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. static.
QUESTION 247
What are three examples of dynamic IGPs? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. IS-IS
D. PIM
E. RIP.
QUESTION 248
Which three statements are true about terms in a policy? (Choose three.)
A. The order of the terms in a policy is irrelevant.
B. The action is specified in a then statement.
C. Terms are optional in a policy.
D. The match condition can be identified with a from statement.
E. A from statement is mandatory in a term.
QUESTION 249
Which two statements are true about terms in a routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. A routing policy cannot have more than one term.
B. If a term does not contain a from statement, all routes match.
C. If a term does not contain a from statement, the Junos OS will not commit.
D. A then statement is not mandatory in a term.
QUESTION 250
Which statement is true about terms in a policy?
A. A single term can be applied to a protocol or interface, independent of the policy.
B. Once configured, terms within a policy cannot be reordered.
C. The name of a term is limited to five characters.
D. A from statement is optional in a term.
QUESTION 251
What is the default import routing policy for OSPF?
A. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.3 routing table.
B. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table.
C. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table.
D. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table.
QUESTION 252
By default, which two statements are true about export routing policies? (Choose two.)
A. Export policies can evaluate only active routes.
B. Export policies can evaluate all routes.
C. Export policies can be applied to the forwarding table.
D. Export policies can be applied directly to interfaces.
QUESTION 253
What is the default export routing policy for EBGP?
A. Accept all active BGP routes.
B. Accept all BGP routes.
C. Accept no routes.
D. Accept all active IGP routes.
QUESTION 254
You have received a default route through BGP from your ISP and you want to redistribute it into OSPF.
Which method will accomplish this?
A. Apply an export policy to OSPF that exports the default route.
B. Apply an import policy to OSPF that imports the default route.
C. Apply the default-network command to OSPF.
D. Apply the redistribute-igp command to BGP.
QUESTION 255
There are three static routes in the routing table that need to be announced to your OSPF peers.
Which method is used to accomplish this?
A. Apply an import policy to OSPF that injects the static routes into OSPF.
B. Apply an import policy to the static routes that injects the static routes into OSPF.
C. Apply an export policy to the static routes that injects the static routes into OSPF.
D. Apply an export policy to OSPF that injects the static routes into OSPF.
QUESTION 256
What is the default export routing policy for RIP?
A. Accept all local routes.
B. Accept all RIP routes.
C. Accept no routes.
D. Accept all direct routes.
QUESTION 257
What is a route filter?
A. a list of prefixes that can be configured in a policy
B. a single prefix that is configured separately, and can be referenced in a policy
C. a list of prefixes that is configured separately and can be referenced in a policy
D. a single prefix that can be configured within a policy.
QUESTION 258
What are two valid actions for a routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. discard
B. next policy
C. accept
D. ignore.
QUESTION 259
What are two valid match criteria for a routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF area ID
B. prefix list
C. port
D. time-to-live (TTL).
QUESTION 260
What are three valid match criteria in a firewall filter applied to a Layer 3 interface? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. protocol
D. port
E. session ID.
QUESTION 261
A packet is evaluated against three user-defined terms within a firewall filter and no match is found.
What correctly describes the action the firewall filter will take for this packet?
A. The filter will permit the packet and take no additional action.
B. The filter will reject the packet and send an ICMP message back to the sender.
C. The filter will discard the packet and take no additional action.
D. The filter will permit the packet and write a log entry to the firewall log.
QUESTION 262
What are three terminating actions for firewall filters? (Choose three.)
A. reject
B. drop
C. permit
D. accept
E. discard.
QUESTION 263
Which two can be used to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to RIP neighbors? (Choose two.)
A. set protocols rip export demo
B. edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static
set term 1 then accept
C. edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static accept
D. set protocols rip group internal export demo.
QUESTION 264
Which configuration causes RIP-learned routes to be advertised to other RIP neighbors?
A. set protocol rip no-passive
B. top edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol rip
set term 1 then accept
top set protocols rip group internal export demo
C. set protocols rip advertise in-out
D. top edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from active routes
set term 1 then accept
top set protocols rip group internal export demo.
QUESTION 265
You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface. You have decided to use a firewall filter.
How should you apply the firewall filter?
A. as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B. as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C. as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D. as an inbound filter on interface lo0.
QUESTION 266
What are three benefits of class of service? (Choose three.)
A. It can make a slow network faster.
B. It can prioritize latency-sensitive traffic.
C. It can eliminate congestion.
D. It can control congestion.
E. It can allocate bandwidth for different classes of traffic.
QUESTION 267
Random early detection (RED) is associated with which class of service component?
A. classification
B. policing
C. queuing
D. scheduling.
QUESTION 268
Which class-of-service component allows you to define the bandwidth allocated to different traffic types?
A. classification
B. rewrite marking
C. scheduling
D. queuing.
QUESTION 269
What are two purposes of a forwarding class? (Choose two.)
A. to identify traffic that should be dropped
B. to classify traffic
C. to identify traffic that should receive common treatment
D. to assign traffic to output queues.
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