Liderazgo del Putillas en Ingles Parcial 2

1) Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?. A) Group members are interdependent. B) Groups have two or more members. C) Groups are determined by the organization chart. D) Groups interact. E) Groups have particular objectives.

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding informal groups?. A) Informal groups are defined by the organization's structure. B) In informal groups, the behaviors team members should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals. C) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law is an informal group. D) The six members of an airline flight crew are an informal group. E) Command groups and task groups are examples of informal groups.

3) Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto all work in product development for office applications at Brinks Software. After work, to get to know each other better and to talk shop, Tammy, Lisa, Shonda, and Roberto all also enjoy going to the Lux Lounge for Happy Hour. Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto constitute a(n) ________ group. A) task. B) formal. C) informal. D) performance. E) action.

4) Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto all work in different departments at Brinks Software. After work, Tammy, Lisa, and Shonda all enjoy going to the Lux Lounge for Happy Hour. Tammy, Lisa, and Shonda constitute a(n) ________ group. A) task. B) formal. C) informal. D) performance. E) action.

5) Andie, Lupe, and Lashonda work in different departments at Auto Mechanics Inc. Via the company's intranet, they found out that they shared an interest in scrapbooking. They decided to get together on the third Saturday of each month to talk about their scrapbooking projects. They are an example of a(n) ________ group. A) formal. B) informal. C) command. D) task. E) interest.

6) ________ theory explains our tendency to personally invest in the accomplishment of a group. A) Social identity. B) Cognitive dissonance. C) Expectancy. D) Equity. E) Path-goal.

7) Shehenna, Puja, and Miguel were all recently hired by Blair Industries as account representatives. During their orientation, these three discovered that they would not be receiving any paid vacation time for their first year of employment. Social identity theory tells us which of the following is likely to occur?. A) The trio will quit. B) The trio will bond together closely. C) The trio will bond with others in the organization. D) The trio will turn on each other. E) The trio will sue.

8) The Walt Disney Company is world renowned for its destination resorts and theme parks. The company prides itself on providing the highest quality experiences for visitors to the parks and trains its employees as "cast members" who are all part of the show. Which group of employees is most likely to be considered an "outgroup" at the theme park?. A) Those portraying famous Disney characters. B) Those operating the rides. C) Those repairing the rides after park hours. D) Those cleaning the parks during park hours. E) Those taking the tickets.

9) The Walt Disney Company is world renowned for its destination resorts and theme parks. The company prides itself on providing the highest quality experiences for visitors to the parks and trains its employees as "cast members" who are all part of the show. Which group of employees is most likely to be considered the "ingroup" at the theme park?. A) Those portraying famous Disney characters. B) Those operating the rides. C) Those repairing the rides. D) Those cleaning the parks. E) Those taking the tickets.

10) An informal group is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. True. False.

11) In the punctuated equilibrium model, which stage is likely to feature inertia?. A) The first stage where the group sets the direction. B) The brainstorming stage. C) The nominal group technique stage. D) The social loafing stage. E) The first phase of group activity.

12) When a group first meets, which of the following occurs?. A) General purpose is defined. B) Assumptions on direction are made. C) Approach to the project is determined. D) Both general purpose is defined and approach to the project is determined. E) All of general purpose is defined, assumptions on direction are made, and approach to the project is determined occur.

14) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, which two triggers bring about brief revolutionary change during the group's inertia?. A) Group conflict and missed deadlines. B) Missed deadlines and resource utilization. C) Resource utilization and awareness of time. D) Awareness of time and awareness of deadlines. E) Awareness of deadlines and group conflict.

15) Per the punctuated equilibrium model, the first meeting is one of inertia and slow progress of the group. True. False.

16) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, once set, the group's direction is solidified and is unlikely to be reexamined throughout the first half of its life. True. False.

14) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, which two triggers bring about brief revolutionary change during the group's inertia?. A) Group conflict and missed deadlines. B) Missed deadlines and resource utilization. C) Resource utilization and awareness of time. D) Awareness of time and awareness of deadlines. E) Awareness of deadlines and group conflict.

18) Role perception indicates ________. A) others' belief regarding how you should act in a given situation. B) the skills required for performing the job. C) the social norms that are to be followed while performing the role. D) our view of how we're supposed to act in a given situation. E) acceptable standards of behavior shared by nongroup members.

19) At the new product development group at Abode Homes Company, Jessica knows that she is expected to call group meetings and interact with members outside the new product group if their input is required. These refer to Jessica's ________ in the new product development group. A) norms. B) status. C) role. D) standing. E) title.

20) Role ________ indicates the way others believe you should act in a given context. A) perception. B) identity. C) expectation. D) criterion. E) style.

21) Jose is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Jose would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In such a situation, Jose is most likely to experience ________. A) role conflict. B) emotional contagion. C) cognitive dissonance. D) emotional labor. E) self-concordance.

22) When ________, the result is role conflict. A) we lack the skills required for performing the role. B) we do not approve of the behavioral requirements of a role. C) our view of the role is different from others' expectations of that role. D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another. E) different groups of people associate different norms with a role.

23) Rhoda is an executive assistant at a major medical center. Because she works directly with the head doctor, Rhoda feels that it is appropriate to council patients on their upcoming procedures. Marge, a recent graduate with a degree in Healthcare Administration, also works at the medical center and is responsible for new patients. Marge typically becomes irritated when Rhoda attempts to council new patients. Rhoda is struggling with her ________. A) role perception. B) role expectation. C) role norms. D) social norms. E) performance norm.

24) DeSean, an aggressive and dynamic football coach of a very successful high school team, was visibly upset when a newspaper report described him as warm and cuddly. He believed that the report would undermine his ability to be a demanding coach. DeSean is referring to issues with ________. A) role perception. B) role expectation. C) role norms. D) social norms. E) performance norm.

25) ________ are the way others believe you should act in a given situation. A) Social identities. B) Citizenship behaviors. C) Role expectations. D) Psychological contracts. E) Group status.

26) Which of the following is most likely to experience interrole conflict?. A) A policewoman who is also a mother. B) A college student who is also working full time. C) A politician who is also a clergyman. D) An actor who is also homosexual. E) A college professor who is also an author.

27) Role perception refers to the way others believe you should act in a given context. True. False.

28) The social contract refers to an unwritten agreement between employees and employers that establishes mutual expectations. True. False.

29) When compliance with one role requirement makes it difficult to comply with another, the result is role conflict. True. False.

30) What is the psychological contract?. Answer: Role expectations are the way others believe you should act in a given context. In the workplace, we often look at role expectations through the perspective of the psychological contract: an unwritten agreement between employees and employers (including senior management, supervisors, coworkers, and recruiters) that establishes mutual expectations. Management is expected to treat employees justly, provide acceptable working conditions, clearly communicate what is a fair day's work, and give feedback on how well an employee is doing. Employees are expected to demonstrate a good attitude, follow directions, and show loyalty to the organization. Esta no es putero.

31) You have been working at Saxet Consulting for the past year and are expected to complete three client reviews per week. You have been very productive and have been completing two extra reviews per week. At a recent team meeting, you expected to receive praise from the President for this extra work; however, your manager took credit for the extra work and received the praise from the President. What has your manager violated and what is your likely reaction?. Answer: My manager has violated the psychological contract which exists between a manager and an employee. Managers are supposed to act in an ethical manner and not take credit for other people's work. It is very unlikely that I will continue to complete the extra work and it is also possible I will start to exert less than expected efforts. Esta no es putera.

32) ________ refers to the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. A) Psychological contract. B) Conformity. C) Social contract. D) Discipline. E) Organizational citizenship.

33) Individuals do not conform to the pressures of all groups to which they belong. When they do conform, it is most likely to their ________ groups. A) peer. B) social. C) reference. D) work. E) hierarchical.

34) Which of the following terms best describes the acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's members?. A) Norms. B) Rules. C) Status. D) Traditions. E) Role perception.

35) Tomaz joined his firm's social media group more than a year after it was formed. In the beginning, believing that this group was similar to his previous group in the same organization that was not strict on punctuality and deadlines, he was often tardy with his work in his new group. Noticing that he was not popular with the social media group, he decided that he would be punctual in meeting deadlines. Tomaz was addressing the issue of ________. A) conformity. B) coercion. C) commitment. D) convergence. E) confluence.

36) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as the ________ groups. A) conformation. B) reference. C) status. D) power. E) appearance.

37) Milhouse, a classically trained violinist, recently joined a country band. The members of the band, though they like Milhouse, do not appreciate his attention to details and the preppy way he dresses. The band is pressuring Milhouse to change in order to fit into the group. Which of the following represents the most likely conformity expected of Milhouse?. A) For Milhouse to bathe less. B) For Milhouse to wear jeans and boots. C) For Milhouse to play the fiddle. D) Both for Milhouse to bathe less and for him to wear jeans and boots. E) Both for Milhouse to bathe less and for him to play the fiddle.

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding behavior in a group?. A) Group norms do not press us toward conformity. B) A recent study suggests those working in a group were less likely to lie, cheat, and steal than individuals working alone. C) Conformity to social norms is higher in individualistic cultures as compared to that in collectivist cultures. D) Deviant workplace behavior is likely to flourish where it's supported by group norms. E) The low-status people in the group speak more often as compared to the high-status people.

39) Leaving work early, lying about hours worked, and wasting organizational resources are examples of ________. A) cognitive dissonance. B) deviant workplace behavior. C) conformity to norms. D) role expectations. E) social identity.

40) At the first meeting of Angus Realty's first time homeowners' group, Jorge Angus said, "Let's talk about how we should and how we shouldn't do things." Jorge was establishing group ________. A) rules. B) citizenship behaviors. C) norms. D) agenda. E) expectations.

41) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threatens the well-being of the organization or its members?. A) Negativity offset. B) Deviant workplace behavior. C) Self-concordance. D) Emotional contagion. E) Positivity offset.

42) All groups have established norms. True. False.

43) How do norms and conformity relate to each other?. Answer: Norms are acceptable standards of behavior shared by members that express what they ought to do and ought not to do under certain circumstances. As a member of a group, you desire acceptance and stability. Conformity is the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. Thus, you may conform to group norms when you perceive that others are doing so or if you experience conflict or frustration. Considerable evidence suggests that groups can place strong pressures on members to change (i.e., conform) in order to match the group's standard. Esta no mira suelos.

44) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on group interaction?. A) Lower-status members state fewer commands than high status members. B) Lower-status members tend to be more assertive group members as compared to high-status members. C) Lower-status members speak more often as compared to high-status members. D) Lower-status members interrupt others more often compared to high-status members. E) As compared to high-status members, lower-status members tend to participate in group discussions more actively.

45) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?. A) Control over the resources needed by the group. B) Contribution to goals. C) Ability to conform to group norms. D) Personality. E) Talent.

46) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?. A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs. C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers. D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status. E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren't severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

47) Groups of approximately ________ or more members are good for gaining diverse input. A) twelve. B) seven. C) four. D) three. E) ten.

48) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?. A) Groupthink. B) Collective efficacy. C) Social loafing. D) Groupshift. E) Clustering.

49) Which of the following is not an effective means of countering social loafing?. A) Increase intergroup competition. B) Create virtual groups. C) Engage in peer evaluations. D) Structure work so that each member's contribution can be identified. E) Select members who have high motivation and prefer to work in groups.

50) Chang is the manager of the marketing department of an organization. He is restructuring his department and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his department. He recognizes that the size of groups impacts their overall behavior and effectiveness. The first team that Chang forms is a new product marketing group. What would be the better group size to do something productive?. A) Two. B) Five. C) Seven. D) Ten. E) Over twelve.

51) Most likely, what would be the size of the group that is expected to get diverse input on the effectiveness of social media as an advertising platform?. A) Two. B) Five. C) Seven. D) Ten. E) Over twelve.

52) Julio and Waylin both work at a trendy uptown clothing store and were hired at the same time. Julio was recently promoted over Waylin (who is balding), even though Julio often misses work. Which element of status explains this occurrence?. A) Power a person wields over others. B) Person's ability to contribute to group goals. C) An individual's personal characteristics. D) Group interactions. E) The size of the organization.

E) The size of the organization. A) Brainstorming. B) Nominal group technique. C) Social loafing. D) Psychological contract. E) Group cohesiveness.

54) ________ directly challenges the assumption that the productivity of the group as a whole should at least equal the sum of the productivity of the individuals in it, no matter what the group size. A) Self-concordance. B) Emotional contagion. C) Social loafing. D) Negative offset. E) Emotional labor.

55) Low-status groups, perhaps in response to discrimination, are likely to leverage ________ to compete for higher status. A) ingroup fighting. B) outgroup fighting. C) citizenship behaviors. D) outgroup favoritism. E) ingroup favoritism.

56) Status is a legally defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others. T. F.

57) According to status characteristics theory, status tends to derive from one of three sources. T. F.

58) It is important for group members to believe the status hierarchy is equitable. T. F.

59) What do we know about status and stigmatization?. Answer: Although it is clear that status affects the way people perceive others, the status of people with whom one is affiliated can also affect others' view. People who are stigmatized can "infect" others with their stigma. This "stigma by association" effect can result in negative opinions and evaluations of the person affiliated with the stigmatized individual, even if the association is brief and purely coincidental. Esta no apote.

60) What do we know about status and group interaction?. Answer: People tend to become more assertive when they seek to attain higher status in a group. They speak out more often, criticize more, state more commands, and interrupt others more often. Conversely, some evidence suggests that those who do have higher status tend to conceal it to promote group harmony. Lower status members participate less actively in group discussions; when they possess insights that could aid the group, failure to fully utilize these members reduces the group's overall performance. Esta no analfabeto.

61) Andy, Jamie, Carlos, and Neha are working on a product development group at Ambys, Inc. Andy, Jamie, and Carlos notice that Neha contributes very little to the group's activities. They find out from colleagues that Neha works hard and is good at what she does when working on her own. What problem does the group face and how should Andy, Jamie, and Carlos address this situation?. Answer: What Neha is exhibiting is called social loafing—the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when alone. To prevent Neha's social loafing, the group has to get together and (1) set group goals, so the group has a common purpose to strive toward; (2) increase intergroup competition, which focuses on the shared group outcome; (3) engage in peer evaluations; (4) select members who have high motivation and prefer to work in groups; and (5) base group rewards in part on each member's unique contributions. Esta no mar i con.

62) How does group size affect a group's behavior?. Answer: Group size does affect the group's overall behavior, but the effect depends on the outcomes one is interested in. Large groups–with a dozen or more members–are good for gaining diverse input. So if the goal of the group is fact-finding, larger groups should be more effective. On the other hand, smaller groups are better at doing something productive with that input. Groups of approximately seven members, therefore, tend to be more effective for taking action. Aner gay?.

63) Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group?. A) Cohesiveness. B) Integration. C) Sociability. D) Reliability. E) Interdependence.

64) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?. A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high. B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group. C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high. D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low. E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

65) Which of the following is not likely to encourage group cohesiveness?. A) Stimulating competition with other groups. B) Increasing the size of the group. C) Obtaining agreement upon the established goals. D) Increasing the group's status and the perceived difficulty of attaining membership. E) Physically isolating the group.

66) Alberto is working with a group of seven people to coordinate the merger of his company with another company in the same industry. Everyone in Alberto's group is highly qualified, offers relevant information, and has high norms. Every group member works on their regular responsibilities and the group meets for thirty minutes once a week. The group seems to be slow at outlining a definitive plan for the merger. With the information provided, what would be the fastest and best way for Alberto to increase cohesiveness and productivity?. A) Increase the time members spend together. B) Stimulate competition within the group. C) Give rewards to individual members. D) Increase the size of the group. E) Invite more members into the group.

67) Which of the following factors corresponds to surface-level diversity in groups?. A) Race, ethnicity, and gender. B) Roles, status, and power. C) Ability, intelligence, and personality. D) Underlying attitudes, values, and opinions. E) Security, self-esteem, and affiliation.

68) Differences in skills, abilities, or other characteristics needed for the job are called ________ diversity. A) organizational. B) social. C) functional. D) occupational. E) corporate.

69) ________ refer(s) to the perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, age, work experience, language, and education. A) Faultlines. B) Norms. C) Outcomes. D) Diversity. E) Externalities.

70) One way to increase cohesiveness in groups is to stimulate competition with other groups. T. F.

71) There is a strong link between actual diversity and perceived diversity in groups. T. F.

72) Surface-level diversity (e.g., gender, race) increases group conflict. T. F.

73) How can faultlines be addressed or harnessed for good within organizations?. Answer: Faultlines are perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, age, work experience, language, and education. Research on faultlines has shown that splits are generally detrimental to group functioning and performance. Studies show that problems stemming from diversity and strong faultlines may be overcome when their roles are crosscut, the group is given a common goal to strive for, and similar pairs are recruited within a diverse group. Altogether, forced collaboration between members of subgroups and a focus on accomplishing a goal may boost performance in some organizations. Pro-diversity beliefs and open-mindedness norms also help. Esta no ikerpe.

74) Which of the following is a weakness of group decision making?. A) Group decision making is time consuming. B) Groups lead to decreased acceptance of a solution. C) Groups have nonconformity pressures. D) Groups tend to generate incomplete information. E) Groups offer decreased diversity of views.

75) Which of the following statements is true regarding group decision making?. A) If creativity is important, then individuals tend to be more effective than groups. B) Group decision making tends to decrease the acceptance of the solution. C) Group decisions are typically less time consuming than individual decisions. D) Group decisions are generally less accurate than the decisions of the average individual in a group. E) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge than individuals.

76) The phenomenon of ________ describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. A) social loafing. B) groupshift. C) groupthink. D) group polarization. E) satisficing.

77) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________. A) self-concordance. B) groupshift. C) satisficing. D) emotional labor. E) groupthink.

78) If you ever felt like speaking up in a meeting, a classroom, or an informal group but decided against it then the reason behind it could be ________. A) self-efficacy. B) positivity offset. C) groupthink. D) self-concordance. E) groupshift.

79) Sandy, Lupe, and Aisha are on the board of directors for an area non-profit organization. At a recent meeting, guest David delivered a rousing speech on how group leadership is often too complex and that non-profits could often be better served by a CEO and no board of directors. Sandy emphatically disagreed with David stating that not having the board could open the organization up to massive levels of corruption. Lupe agreed with David and feels that maybe the organization might do better if only one of the ladies were in charge, mainly herself. Aisha chose not to comment on the matter, thus leading Sandy to assume that she agreed with her. It could be said that Sandy is suffering from ________. A) groupthink. B) groupshift. C) group polarization. D) both groupthink and groupshift. E) groupthink, groupshift, and group polarization.

80) Sandy, Lupe, and Aisha are on the board of directors for an area non-profit organization. At a recent meeting, guest David delivered a rousing speech on how group leadership is often too complex and that non-profits could often be better served by a CEO and no board of directors. Sandy emphatically disagreed with David stating that not having the board could open the organization up to massive levels of corruption. Lupe agreed with David and feels that maybe the organization might do better if only one of the ladies were in charge, mainly herself. Aisha chose not to comment on the matter, thus leading Sandy to assume that she agreed with her. It could be said that Sandy and Lupe are suffering from ________. A) groupthink. B) groupshift. C) group polarization. D) both groupthink and groupshift. E) all three—groupthink, groupshift, and group polarization.

81) Which of the following is a strength of group decision making?. A) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. B) There are conformity pressures in groups. C) Groups offer clear accountability for decisions. D) Group decisions facilitate ambiguous responsibility. E) Group decisions are not very time consuming.

82) Your organization has recently started using group decision making. You are most likely to observe that ________. A) group decision making is slower than individual decision making. B) group decision making leads to decreased acceptance of the solution. C) groups generate less information and knowledge than individuals. D) group decisions are less creative than individual decisions. E) group decisions are more accurate than the judgments of the most accurate individual in the group.

83) You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and there appears to be an illusion of unanimity. You conclude that they may be suffering from ________. A) negative affect. B) groupshift. C) cognitive dissonance. D) groupthink. E) positivity offset.

84) Which of the following is not a group decision-making technique?. A) Cognitive mapping. B) Brainstorming. C) Nominal group technique. D) Group polarization. E) Both cognitive mapping and group polarization.

85) While using which of the following type of group decision-making techniques is a group more likely to experience increased groupthink?. A) Interacting group. B) Brainstorming. C) Video conference. D) Nominal group technique. E) Electronic meeting.

86) Patricia needs as many creative ideas as she can get for the new advertising campaign, and her small agency doesn't have a lot of money for high-tech meeting facilities. Given the information provided, which meeting technique will provide the highest number of quality ideas?. A) Interacting groups. B) Brainstorming. C) Nominal group technique. D) Electronic meeting. E) Social interaction.

87) Maya just got out of a meeting. She is extremely frustrated because nothing got done and now she has to deal with workplace drama. Ming is threatening to quit because the group members severely criticized her idea without even giving her a chance to complete her point. The entire meeting turned into a conflict management session for Maya. Which of the following meeting techniques was most likely used by Maya?. A) Interacting group. B) Brainstorming. C) Nominal group. D) Electronic meeting. E) Video conferencing.

88) ________ is the most common form of group decision making. A) Electronic meeting. B) Brainstorming. C) Nominal group technique. D) An interacting group. E) Delphi technique.

89) In this group discussion technique, the group leader states the problem in a clear manner so all participants understand. Members then freewheel as many alternatives as they can in a given length of time. No criticism is allowed, and all alternatives are recorded for later discussion and analysis. One idea stimulates others, and judgments of even the most bizarre suggestions are withheld until later to encourage group members to "think the unusual." Identify the decision- making technique in the discussion. A) Group polarization. B) Morphological analysis. C) Mind mapping. D) Electronic meeting. E) Brainstorming.

90) Which of the following statements is not true regarding brainstorming?. A) Brainstorming withholds criticism of ideas. B) Brainstorming overcomes the pressure for conformity. C) Brainstorming increases creativity. D) In brainstorming, members freewheel as many alternatives to the problem in a given length of time. E) In brainstorming, groups often censor themselves.

91) Huberto needs an instruction manual for his new product. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to rapidly write the manual. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Huberto consider?. A) Nominal and virtual. B) Nominal and interacting. C) Brainstorming and global. D) Electronic and interacting. E) Interacting and brainstorming.

92) You decide that your company's choice of which new product to manufacture needs to have widespread acceptance and that this decision needs to be of the highest quality possible. Having read the literature on decision making, you believe that this choice needs to be made by a group of your best managers. You have decided to use the nominal group technique. Which of the following statements is true about this method?. A) This method is good for building group cohesiveness. B) This method is good for processing ideas rapidly. C) This method is good for encouraging independent thinking. D) This method is not an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas. E) This method is good for achieving commitment to a solution.

93) You are likely to select the nominal group technique over brainstorming because ________. A) nominal group technique involves a great deal of face-to-face interaction. B) brainstorming encourages severe criticism to all ideas. C) research generally shows nominal groups outperform brainstorming groups. D) brainstorming decreases group cohesiveness. E) during brainstorming sessions, group members feel high pressure for conformity.

94) While groups offer increased diversity of views, they lead to decreased acceptance of a solution. T. F.

95) There are conformity pressures in groups. T. F.

96) Group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. T. F.

97) The most common form of group decision making takes place in interacting groups. T. F.

98) In group decision making, brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity that dampen creativity. T. F.

99) Why is the nominal group technique considered an effective method?. Answer: One of the ways to reduce problems inherent in the traditional interacting group is the nominal group technique. This is a group decision making method in which individual members meet face to face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion. Here, before any discussion takes place, each member independently writes down ideas about the problem. Each member then presents one idea to the group. No discussion takes place until all ideas have been presented and recorded. The group discusses all the ideas for clarity and evaluates them. Each group member silently and independently rank-orders the ideas. The idea with the highest aggregate ranking determines the final decision. This is an effective method to enable independent thinking by group members. Alonso feminista.

100) Explain the following terms: "groupthink" and "groupshift.". Answer: Groupthink is related to norms. It describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance. Groupshift indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. What appears to happen in groups is that the discussion leads members toward a more extreme view of the position they already held. Conservatives become more cautious, and more aggressive types take on more risk. Txingon pata chula.

1) Leadership is best defined as ________. A) the ability to merely project one's abilities in the lack of actual accomplishments. B) the ability to reduce the dependence of team members on each other. C) the ability to induce the team members to focus on individual goals rather than collective goals. D) the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals. E) the ability to use factors like training and experience to reduce dependence on formal.

2) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?. A) All managers are leaders. B) Formal rights ensure good leadership. C) Formal appointment is essential in creating leaders. D) All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers. E) Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as formal influence.

3) Which of the following is a desirable feature of leadership?. A) one-directional influence from the leader to the follower. B) coercive power and authority. C) lack of freedom. D) passivity of followers. E) coexistence of leaders and managers.

4) Trait theories of leadership focus on ________. A) the special relationship that leaders establish with a small group of their followers. B) the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders. C) the way the leader makes decisions. D) the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task. E) the match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control.

5) Which of the following Big Five personality traits has been identified as the most important trait in effective leaders?. A) conscientiousness. B) openness. C) extraversion. D) agreeableness. E) emotional stability.

6) Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is ________, which reflects the consideration that leaders must be able to express. A) conscientiousness. B) empathy. C) optimism. D) introversion. E) perfectionism.

7) Trait theories most accurately predict ________. A) distinguishing features of an effective leader. B) differences between an effective and an ineffective leader. C) success of a leader. D) roles to be played by the leader. E) emergence of a leader.

8) Tim Wrench was leading the client services division of AmWeb for seven years when he was asked to move to another region where the company was setting up its office. Before moving, Tim was asked to help in finding a successor for him from his team. Tim's most obvious choice was Judy Judge, and the management accepted his choice as Judy was a popular person across the company. Judy was known for her vivacious nature, was often seen speaking to employees from various divisions, and was always excited to take up a new opportunity. Once she became a leader, she continued to give employees freedom and flexibility even if it resulted in deficiencies on the work front like missed deadlines or low quality. Judy's initial weeks as a leader were full of confusion among her team members, but many felt that the situation would come under control. When things did not improve in the next two months and many complaints poured in from clients, the management realized that Judy was not the best candidate to lead the team. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?. A) Judy was a high-performing employee and enjoyed good relationships with everyone on the team. B) Everyone felt Judy was given insufficient time to prove her worth as a leader. C) Research has shown that traits can predict the emergence of a leader, but not his or her efficiency as a leader. D) The client complaints were a common thing encountered by the company. E) Judy demonstrated low levels of consideration and high levels of task-orientation.

9) According to the Big Five personality model, emotional stability is the most important trait of effective leaders. T. F.

10) Trait theories of leadership most accurately predict the emergence and appearance of leadership. T. F.

11) What is the role played by traits in predicting leadership behaviors?. Answer: Studies have shown that the extraversion dimension of the Big Five personality model is the most important trait of effective leaders, followed by the dimensions of conscientiousness and openness to experience. Empathy, one of the core components of emotional intelligence, is also closely linked to effective leadership. The two major conclusions about trait theories and leadership are that (1) traits can predict leadership and (2) traits are more useful in predicting the emergence of leaders and the appearance of leadership than in actually distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders. Ozil.

12) The Ohio State Studies narrowed the independent dimensions of leader behavior to two that substantially accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees: consideration and ________. A) employee-orientation. B) empathy. C) constructing vision. D) initiating structure. E) charisma.

13) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure refers to the extent to which ________. A) a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings. B) a leader engages in participative management. C) a leader is accepting of and respects individual differences among various team members. D) a leader is likely to define and organize his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment. E) a leader initiates efforts to communicate personally with employees.

14) Adrian Atwood, a senior manager at MNC, spends a lot of his time assigning group members to particular tasks and scheduling their work such that deadlines are achievable. Adrian also sets high expectations for standards of performance and holds regular meetings to ensure that productivity and quality are up to the mark. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Adrian, as a leader, is ________. A) low in task orientation. B) high in consideration. C) relationship oriented. D) employee oriented. E) high in initiating structure.

15) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, ________ is the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings. A) consideration. B) transaction. C) authentication. D) task orientation. E) identification.

16) Nellie Fritz, the head of client support services at Olson Inc., is very popular among her subordinates. Many believe that Nellie has a knack for getting the work done without making the employees feel pushed into a corner. She is often seen speaking to her subordinates and support staff about their families, helping them with any personal problems they have, and praising employees for their good work. In light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Nellie, as a leader, is ________. A) task oriented. B) high in consideration. C) low in trust propensity. D) low in relationship orientation. E) production oriented.

17) The Ohio State Studies started with more than a thousand dimensions of leader behavior. T. F.

18) The Ohio State Studies narrowed a list of more than a thousand dimensions to just one that accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees: participation. T. F.

19) The behavioral theories view leadership as a set of actions that people can be trained in. T. F.

20) Explain mentoring with reference to the dimensions of initiating structure and consideration. Answer: Initiating structure is the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment. It includes behavior that attempts to organize work, work relationships, and goals. Consideration is the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings. A leader high in consideration helps employees with personal problems, is friendly and approachable, treats all employees as equals, and expresses appreciation and support. Mentoring is a process by which a senior employee sponsors and supports a less- experienced employee or a protégé. Mentoring performs many career functions, like helping the new employee get challenging assignments, opportunities to develop skills, exposure to influential individuals in the company, and nominations for potential advantages. These career functions of mentoring are similar to the initiating structure of leadership. Mentoring also fulfills certain psychosocial functions, like counseling the employee to enhance confidence, providing friendship and acceptance, and providing the new employee with a role model. These are similar to the consideration dimension of leadership. Petillas.

21) Contingency theories focus on the ________ that impact leadership success. A) personality variables. B) leader's abilities to inspire and transform followers. C) situational variables. D) values and ethics. E) features of the followers.

22) Which of the following theories of leadership is based on situational variables?. A) attribution theory. B) trait theories. C) charismatic leadership theory. D) path-goal theory. E) behavioral theories.

23) The least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire is used to measure whether ________. A) the followers are able and willing. B) a leader is task- or relationship-oriented. C) the members are in the ingroup or out-group. D) employees prefer servant leadership over situational leadership. E) the leader is high on the dimension of conscientiousness.

24) Dora Lee has just completed and scored the LPC questionnaire given to her during an evaluation exercise. She is surprised when she finds out that she described her least preferred co- worker in relatively positive terms because she recalls being particularly annoyed by this difficult co-worker several times in the past. Based on your understanding of Fiedler's model, you explain to Dora that her LPC score makes sense within the model because ________. A) Dora tends to become very dominating when given ambiguous tasks. B) Dora is usually much more focused on productivity than on developing relationships. C) Dora tends in general to focus on building good relationships with the other employees. D) Dora has a spotty work history and has tended to switch jobs every couple of years. E) Dora is usually chosen for positions of high responsibility within your organization.

25) Fiedler's contingency model assumes that ________. A) an individual's leadership style is essentially fixed. B) an individual is constantly striving to develop a more productive style. C) an individual's leadership is primarily determined by the features of the followers. D) an individual's leadership style can be altered much like his or her personality traits. E) an individual's leadership style must be task oriented to be effective.

26) Fiedler defines the degree of confidence, trust, and respect that subordinates have in their leader as ________. A) leader-member relations. B) task structure. C) positional power. D) follower variables. E) path-goal frameworks.

27) Trevor Guerney is a manager who believes that those who are to be affected by a change must be involved in the change. Consequently, he always ensures that his subordinates have the knowledge of what is happening around them, and he often holds meetings to obtain employee opinion and suggestions before making any decision that would apply to them. Similarly, Trevor's team proactively approaches him with problems and potential solutions as they know he will not respond by criticizing them. From the information provided in the scenario, we can say that ________. A) Trevor's leadership is primarily task-oriented. B) Trevor's team has a low degree of trust propensity. C) Trevor's team requires more directive leadership. D) Trevor's team has positive leader-member relations. E) Trevor's team is unsatisfied with his power position.

28) Which of the following situational dimensions identified by Fiedler relates to the degree to which job assignments are regimented, that is, structured or unstructured?. A) task reflexivity. B) task significance. C) task structure. D) task complexity. E) task orientation.

29) According to the Fiedler contingency model, a very favorable situation in which the leader has a great deal of control is characterized by ________. A) high task structure, good leader-member relations, and strong position power. B) limited position power, good leader-member relations, and low task structure. C) less structured jobs, strong position power, and moderate leader-member relations. D) broad employee responsibilities, low position power, and moderate leader-member relations. E) good leader-member relations, low position power, unstructured jobs.

30) Which of the following theoretical approaches in the study of leadership focuses on followers' readiness as a determinant of effective leadership?. A) Big Five personality model. B) behavioral theories. C) Fiedler contingency model. D) laissez-faire leadership. E) situational leadership theory.

31) According to the situational leadership theory, if employees are unwilling and unable, the appropriate leadership style in this situation would be ________. A) participative. B) democratic. C) person-oriented. D) directive. E) supportive.

32) According to the situational leadership theory, a follower with the desired ability and willingness is likely to be ________. A) lacking in the area of motivation. B) deficient in the specific skills required. C) comfortable in his ability to do the job well. D) highly skilled in relevant areas but low on experience. E) in need of leadership that is highly task oriented.

33) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the path-goal theory of leadership?. A) The theory considers leadership to be a set of attributes ascribed to leaders by followers. B) The theory proposes only a passive and supportive role for leaders. C) The theory considers removing obstacles to be a component of effective leadership. D) The theory proposes that leaders must work closely with followers throughout. E) The path-goal theory represents a laissez-faire approach to leadership.

34) In the context of Fiedler's model, the situational dimension termed ________ relates to the degree of influence a leader has over important variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases. A) task structure. B) leader-member exchange. C) position power. D) initiating structure. E) leader-member relations.

35) According to the situational leadership theory, if followers are unable and willing to do a task, then a leader needs to ________. A) follow a supportive style. B) engage in participative leadership. C) refrain from providing too many inputs. D) display high task and relationship orientation. E) demonstrate high task and low relationship orientation.

36) Maura Ruiz has been working in the e-learning industry for over eight years. She is aware of the fact that in this industry, once an employee has learned his or her job, the work becomes fairly automatic and competence can be achieved rapidly. She has been noticing how in her team, this competence has come along with a lot of complacency; the employees, though able, are unwilling to work hard. According to the situational leadership theory, to rectify this situation, Maura would benefit the most if she uses the ________ style of leadership. A) task-oriented. B) production-oriented. C) participative. D) directive. E) autocratic.

37) George has been a project leader at NSys for five years. George's job description involves scheduling work for his team, coordinating their work with that of the other departments, and providing feedback. George, who has successfully led this team, believes that it is his task- oriented and directive approach that has helped him in the last five years. Which of the following, if true, would weaken his argument supporting a directive leadership?. A) The members of the team are resentful with George's directives relating to work. B) George has seen that employees in his team lack initiative and motivation to work hard. C) The team's workload is expected to rise substantially as the company is growing at an unprecedented rate. D) George's team is organized as a wheel network and depends on his ability to coordinate amongst members of the team and between other departments. E) NSys hires only highly qualified and experienced employees.

38) Leslie is a middle-level production manager at the California branch of ALT Corp. ALT Corp. is an automobile manufacturing company that specializes in the manufacture of heavy motor vehicles. Leslie's job is to supervise his assembly line employees. Leslie has worked in this position for over four years, and he strongly believes that a supportive leadership style is most suitable in his context. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Leslie's approach to leadership in this case?. A) The company has recently announced its move to diversify into manufacturing light motor vehicles because of high profitability in that line. B) Most of the assembly line employees are highly experienced in their jobs and committed to Leslie. C) With developments in technology, the company was enhancing the role of assembly line employees with new tasks combined into natural work units. D) The company has initiated many changes in the tasks of assembly line workers in its attempts to refine the process of manufacturing. E) A good proportion of the assembly line employees are new employees.

39) Leslie is a middle-level production manager at the California branch of ALT Corp. ALT Corp. is an automobile manufacturing company that specializes in the manufacture of heavy motor vehicles. Leslie's job is to supervise his assembly line employees. Leslie has worked in this position for over four years, and he strongly believes that a supportive leadership style is most suitable in his context. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Leslie's approach to leadership in this case?. A) The company is planning to lay off some employees in the near future. B) The company has stopped the production of most of its older models as it wants to focus on the most profitable models. C) The assembly line jobs are routine and highly structured by nature. D) The recent round of OSHA inspections revealed that many assembly line employees were not complying with stipulated safety measures. E) The company's workforce is comprised primarily of employees of the baby boomer generation.

40) Max Hiller was recently hired by Sync, a consumer goods company. During his first meeting with the sales team, Max impressed upon his team that work performance is the only criterion he would use to evaluate them. To help them perform well and meet their targets, he pushed his team to work extra hours. He also gave very clear instructions to each member regarding their job responsibilities and continually verified if they were meeting their targets. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Max's approach?. A) Max is leading many new employees who have joined his team directly after training. B) Max's team functions in a sluggish manner and picks up pace only a week or so before the monthly operations cycle meetings. C) Max's sales team is comprised of independent and experienced employees who are committed to their jobs. D) Max's team does not display high levels of cohesiveness, and members fail to coordinate with each other. E) Sales figures for the region that Max's team is responsible for have improved in the last quarter.

41) The leader-participation model focuses on ________. A) the personality traits of leaders. B) the presence of charisma in the leader. C) the way decisions are made by the leader. D) the mere projection of successful leadership by the leader. E) the use of ingroups by the leader.

42) In the context of the Fiedler contingency model, leader-member relations measures the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases. T. F.

43) The situational leadership theory focuses on follower readiness to determine the appropriate leadership behavior. T. F.

44) According to the path-goal theory, directive leadership is likely to be welcomed and accepted by employees with high ability or considerable experience. T. F.

45) According to the Fiedler model of leadership, how can leader effectiveness be improved?. Answer: Fiedler views an individual's leadership style as fixed. Therefore, there are only two ways to improve leader effectiveness. First, you can change the leader to fit the situation. If a group situation rates highly unfavorable but is currently led by a relationship-oriented manager, the group's performance could be improved under a manager who is task-oriented. The second alternative is to change the situation to fit the leader, by restructuring tasks or increasing or decreasing the leader's power to control factors such as salary increases, promotions, and disciplinary actions. Celiacos y pan.

47) Which of the following leadership theories argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their subordinates–the ingroup, who are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges?. A) situational leadership theory. B) leader-member exchange. C) path-goal. D) expectancy. E) Fiedler's theory.

48) According to the LMX theory, a leader implicitly categorizes followers as "in" or "out" ________. A) after careful performance analysis. B) on a temporary basis. C) early in the interaction. D) because of political pressure. E) only after several months of working together.

49) In her first few weeks at the marketing division of Rolland Retails, Judith Cox realized that Joshua, Doug, and Carl were closer to her manager, Eric Scott, than the other five team members. Eric, Joshua, Doug, and Carl came to work at the same time, were seen together at the cafeteria, and stayed late and worked when the need arose. In contrast to them, the other five team members did the routine jobs assigned to them, and their interactions lacked the understanding and camaraderie that Eric shared with the others. Joshua, Doug, and Carl make up Eric's ________. A) out-group. B) reference group. C) nominal group. D) ingroup. E) peripheral group.

50) In her first few weeks at the marketing division of Rolland Retails, Judith Cox realized that Joshua, Doug, and Carl were closer to her manager, Eric Scott, than the other five team members. Eric, Joshua, Doug, and Carl came to work at the same time, were seen together at the cafeteria, and stayed late and worked when the need arose. While Judith was in training, she received very good feedback from Eric, and as she transitioned to the floor, she felt that Eric was giving her interesting projects, allowing her more freedom, and seeking her opinion frequently. The information provided in the scenario supports the prediction that ________. A) Judith will develop low trust propensity toward Eric. B) Joshua, Doug, and Carl will display low trust propensity in Judith. C) Eric's ingroup will remain a reference group for Judith permanently. D) Judith will become a part of Eric's ingroup in the marketing division. E) Judith will have lower levels of identification-based trust with Eric when compared to other trainees.

51) Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors?. A) situational leadership theory. B) path-goal leadership theory. C) transactional leadership theory. D) behavioral leadership theory. E) charismatic leadership theory.

52) According to evidence, what is the first step a charismatic leader takes to influence followers?. A) by developing an aura of charisma. B) engaging in emotion-inducing and often unconventional behavior. C) setting an example for followers through actions and words. D) articulating an appealing vision. E) communicating high performance expectations.

53) Charismatic leaders ________. A) engage in traditional behaviors that follow norms. B) focus on their own responsibilities largely ignoring the needs and feelings of employees. C) avoid personal risk. D) propose a vision of the future that is better than the status quo. E) ensure their own position as leader even if it means sacrificing others.

54) Leaders who function primarily by clarifying role and task requirements to accomplish established goals exhibit a(n) ________ style of leadership. A) transformational. B) transactional. C) charismatic. D) laissez-faire. E) employee-oriented.

55) A transactional leader is likely to ________. A) reward employees for the work that they have done, thus recognizing accomplishments. B) help followers trust the leader and develop a loyalty toward the common vision. C) stimulate others in the organization to become thinkers of what the organization is all about. D) pay attention to the emotional needs of others and consider individual differences. E) avoid authoritarian, command, and control behaviors when dealing with employees.

56) Which of the following scenarios reflects a transactional approach to leadership? A) Samuel Perez has been running a small automobile service agency with a set of employees that he hired and trained over a decade ago. Though the business is mediocre and profit margins are not substantial, the employees work well as a team because each of them treats the other as equal, just like Samuel himself does. A) Samuel Perez has been running a small automobile service agency with a set of employees that he hired and trained over a decade ago. Though the business is mediocre and profit margins are not substantial, the employees work well as a team because each of them treats the other as equal, just like Samuel himself does. B) Carol Turner began V Care, a non-profit organization, with the purpose of battling various forms of abuse. As the organization grew, she took care to hire employees who felt the same kind of sensitivity she felt for victims of abuse. Today, she openly proclaims that the organization that she started is successful because every single employee shares and understands what the organization is aiming for. C) When new projects come, it is a time of excitement for the content production team of Impact, an advertising agency. Lori Wood, the department head, begins a project meeting by having her whole team envision what the final product of this campaign must aim at. She then sets progressively higher standards for the team and clarifies what each member of the team stands to gain if the project is a success. In allocating roles and tasks, she often incorporates the needs and preferences of her team members. D) Wayne Torres believes that setting targets, monitoring employee performance, and correcting defaulting employees are his tried and tested ways to accomplish tasks. He rewards employees who do well and match his predetermined expectations and recognizes accomplishments that he values. His team, however, has not grown substantially and seems to be at a functional status quo. E) Glenn Cruzz works at Leverage as a senior consultant. She ensures that her team of consultants has a framework of flexible tools and skills to help clients who come their way with diversity and inclusion issues. Through audits, research, and workshops, her team is encouraged to come up with unconventional solutions that help clients establish and leverage its employee diversity.

57) ________ leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization and can have an extraordinary effect on their followers. A) Transformational. B) Transactional. C) Task-oriented. D) Laissez-faire. E) Production-oriented.

58) Transformational leaders enhance performance of employees by ________. A) restricting creativity among employees. B) focusing on short-term goals for employees. C) instilling pride in employees. D) establishing goals, roles, and requirements. E) abdicating all responsibility to employees.

59) In terms of the full range of leadership models, which leadership behavior is the least effective?. A) management by exception (active). B) contingent reward. C) management by exception (passive). D) individualized consideration. E) laissez-faire.

60) Which of the following leadership behaviors is likely to differentiate between transactional and transformational leaders?. A) management by exception (active and passive). B) contingent reward. C) individualized consideration. D) micromanagement. E) laissez-faire.

61) In terms of the full range of leadership models, which leadership behavior represents the most active and effective approach for leaders?. A) contingent reward. B) idealized influence. C) management by exception (active). D) individualized consideration. E) laissez-faire.

62) The leader-member exchange (LMX) theory proposes that the leader implicitly categorizes the follower as belonging to his ingroup or out group after a detailed analysis of his or her performance over a prolonged period of time. T. F.

63) An individual who lacks self-esteem and questions his or her self-worth is more likely to absorb a leader's direction rather than establish and individual way of leading or thinking. T. F.

64) The best leaders are transformational, not transactional. T. F.

65) Transactional leaders guide their followers toward established goals by clarifying role and task requirements. T. F.

66) Intellectual stimulation and individualized consideration are likely to be seen in the management by exception (active) style of leadership. T. F.

67) Transformational leadership has a greater impact on the bottom line in smaller, privately held firms than in more complex organizations. T. F.

68) The HR department at Basic Elements, a software development firm, has begun testing employee personality and preferences to reorganize their teams such that team members and leaders are matched. They believe that this will enable them to ensure smooth functioning and greater cohesion. As a part of this test, employees were given the least preferred co-worker questionnaire. The employees were asked to think of all the co-workers they had in the past and describe the one they least enjoyed working with by rating that person on a scale of 1 to 8 for each of 16 sets of contrasting adjectives. Rachel's LPC score was high, while Victor's was low. Many employees like Ashley had LPC scores that were moderate. Interpret and compare the results of Rachel, Victor, and Ashley. Answer: The fact that Rachel's LPC score was high means that she described the person she was least able to work with in favorable terms. Victor's low LPC score reflects that he rated his least preferred co-worker in unfavorable terms. Thus, we can say that Rachel is relationship-oriented, while Victor is task-oriented. Ashley's LPC score, being in the middle range, cannot be interpreted as her preference falls beyond the range of the predictions of Fiedler contingency model. Violeta indigena.

69) What are the key characteristics of charismatic leaders?. Answer: A charismatic leader is characterized by: -vision and articulation: having an idealized goal and being able to clarify its importance -personal risk: willingness to take personal risks, incur high costs, and make sacrifices -sensitivity to follower needs: recognizing and responding to others' abilities, needs, and feelings -unconventional behavior: engaging in behaviors that are novel. Adrian negro?.

70) Describe the full range of leadership model. Answer: According to the full range of leadership model, laissez-faire is the most passive and therefore least effective of leader behaviors. Management by exception–active or passive–is slightly better than laissez-faire, but it's still considered ineffective. Management-by-exception leaders tend to be available only when there is a problem, which is often too late. Contingent reward leadership can be an effective style of leadership but will not get employees to go above and beyond the call of duty. Only with the four remaining styles–all aspects of transformational leadership–are leaders able to motivate followers to perform above expectations and transcend their self-interest for the sake of the organization. Individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, inspirational motivation, and idealized influence all result in extra effort from workers, higher productivity, higher morale and satisfaction, higher organizational effectiveness, lower turnover, lower absenteeism, and greater organizational adaptability. Based on this model, leaders are generally most effective when they regularly use each of the four transformational behaviors. Me quedo sin ideas.

71) Charismatic leaders are not always authentic leaders. Discuss. Answer: Charismatic leadership is a leadership theory that states that followers make attributions of heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors. Though charismatic leaders exert great influence on their followers, unfortunately, they do not necessarily act in the best interests of their organizations. Many charismatic leaders have allowed their personal goals to override the goals of the organization. Thus, their followers can never consider them ethical people unless they inspire that confidence. Authentic leaders know who they are, know what they believe in and value, and act on those values and beliefs openly and candidly. The primary quality produced by authentic leadership, therefore, is trust. Authentic leaders share information, encourage open communication, and stick to their ideals. The need to incorporate trust and ethics into charismatic leadership has led to the concept of socialized charismatic leadership, which conveys other-centered (not self-centered) values by leaders who model ethical conduct. Socialized charismatic leaders are able to bring employee values in line with their own values through their words and actions. Soran = zulo????.

72) Compare and contrast charismatic leadership from the understanding of leadership under the attribution theory. Answer: Charismatic leadership is a leadership theory that states that followers make attributions of heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors. A number of studies have attempted to identify the characteristics of charismatic leaders: they have a vision, they are willing to take personal risks to achieve that vision, they are sensitive to follower needs, and they exhibit extraordinary behaviors. Individuals are born with traits that make them charismatic. Personality is also related to charismatic leadership; charismatic leaders are likely to be extraverted, self-confident, and achievement oriented. However, most experts believe individuals can be trained to exhibit charismatic behaviors. The attribution theory, on the other hand, says leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals. Attribution theory suggests what is important is projecting the appearance of being a leader rather than focusing on actual accomplishments. According to this theory, those who want to be leaders merely need to shape the perception that they are smart, personable, verbally adept, aggressive, hardworking, and consistent in their style. This portrayal is enough to increase the probability their bosses, colleagues, and employees will view them as effective leaders. Cidy Shisoko.

73) A long-term strategy for attaining a goal by linking the present with a better future for the organization is defined as a(n) ________. A) transaction. B) attribution. C) contingent plan. D) vision. E) substitution.

74) Cooper Mills is a company that accomplished one of the greatest success stories of our time. The company, which began in the garage of its current CEO, Kyle Cooper, went on to become one of the largest producers of textiles in the country. The company has now diversified successfully into other product lines. A group of researchers is now undertaking a study on Cooper Mills as an organization led by a transformational leader. Which of the following, if true, would most support the conclusion that Kyle Cooper is a transformational leader?. A) The management follows Kyle's principle of avoiding risks and conducting business conservatively. B) Cooper Mills' goals tend to be very ambitious and to hold personal value for employees. C) Cooper Mills has a centralized decision-making structure. D) Cooper Mills' performance has held at average levels for the past three years. E) Cooper Mills' compensation plans are designed to reward short-term results.

75) The primary quality produced by authentic leadership is ________. A) efficiency. B) reinforcement. C) supervision. D) trust. E) authority.

76) Which of the following is a feature of servant leadership?. A) pursuit of the leaders' self-interest. B) use of power and authority to achieve organizational ends. C) universal appeal and effectiveness across cultures. D) focus on growth, development, and well-being of followers. E) applicability restricted to the leader's ingroup.

77) Servant leadership reflects the ________. A) traditional view that followers are expected to serve the leaders. B) task-oriented approach to leadership. C) use of empathy, listening, and persuasion by leaders. D) Western prototype of a leader who gives orders to followers. E) tendency of leaders to prioritize their interests over the interests of their employees.

78) ________ is defined as a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out. A) Consideration. B) Trust. C) Support. D) Empathy. E) Respect.

79) ________ is a dimension of trust defined as honesty, truthfulness, and the ability to display consistency between one's words and action. A) Consideration. B) Sensitivity. C) Support. D) Reflexivity. E) Integrity.

80) Which of the following dimensions of trust is defined as an individual's technical and interpersonal knowledge and skills?. A) integrity. B) ability. C) propensity. D) reflexivity. E) complexity.

81) The CEO of Xenon Solutions recently cancelled numerous leave requests and asked several employees to put in extra days of work as the company was slated to meet several deadlines in the immediate future. In addition, he also assured that those who work this extra bit will be given their due leaves and additional incentives once the time crisis had passed. Following this announcement, Joan and Shane were overheard speaking in the cafeteria. Shane was resentful that his holiday plans were disrupted, and he was sure that the management would ultimately not provide any of the leaves and incentives it promised. Joan, however, said that she was sure that their CEO had a valid reason behind making such a request and that if they put in the extra effort, they would be rewarded suitably. From the information provided in the scenario, which of the following statements can be inferred?. A) Shane has a high degree of empathy. B) The leader-member relations between Shane and the CEO are the same as that between Joan and the CEO. C) Joan has a high degree of trust propensity. D) Shane has a high degree of identification-based trust in the CEO. E) Shane is one of the members of the CEO's ingroups.

82) Leaders who want to foster a climate that reinforces ethical behavior do all of the following except ________. A) set high ethical standards. B) demonstrate good ethical behavior. C) encourage integrity among employees. D) reward employees demonstrating integrity. E) use their charisma to enhance power over followers, directed towards self-serving ends.

83) Abusive supervision is supervision that is hostile both verbally and nonverbally. T. F.

84) Abusive supervision leads to increases in organizational commitment, job satisfaction, and perceived organizational support. T. F.

85) Attempts to integrate ethical and charismatic leadership have led to the advancement of the idea of socialized charismatic leadership. T. F.

86) What is abusive supervision?. Answer: Abusive supervision refers to supervision that is hostile both verbally and nonverbally. A recent review suggests that several factors are related to abusive supervision. For one, nearly all forms of justice are negatively related to abusive supervision, suggesting that a sense of injustice is at the core of abusive supervision (especially for interpersonal justice). Although some personality traits such as agreeableness and conscientiousness appear to be negatively (but weakly) associated with perceptions of abusive supervision, negative affect is strongly linked with it. The same review also suggests that abusive supervision comes with dire consequences. First and foremost, abusive supervision negatively affects health. Second, it also leads to decreases in organizational commitment, job satisfaction, and perceived organizational support, along with increased work-family conflict. PATXI PUÑAL.

88) A(n) ________ is a senior employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee, a protégé. A) intern. B) subordinate. C) supervisee. D) mentor. E) apprentice.

89) The only key characteristic we use to determine the trustworthiness of a leader is his or her ability. T. F.

90) Describe the relationship between trust and leadership. Answer: Trust is a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out. Trust is a primary attribute associated with leadership; breaking it can have serious adverse effects on a group's performance. The key characteristics that lead us to believe that a leader is trustworthy are integrity, benevolence, and ability. Integrity refers to honesty and truthfulness. It is the most critical characteristic in assessing another's trustworthiness. Benevolence means the trusted person has your interests at heart, even if yours aren't necessarily in line with theirs. Ability encompasses an individual's technical and interpersonal knowledge and skills. Another factor that influences trust is trust propensity, which refers to how likely a particular employee is to trust a leader. La chilena de Bale.

91) As an upper level manager in his organization, Lionel Tucker has been asked to mentor a less experienced, lower-level employee. His boss wants both the lower-level employee and Lionel to have input into the relationship. Lionel is not happy with the request because he feels his work load is already too heavy. Lionel reluctantly agrees to the request because he ________. A) thinks the lower-level employee is falling behind. B) cannot see any way out of the request. C) owes his boss a favor. D) believes in network ties. E) thinks the relationship with be beneficial to him.

92) Formal mentoring programs are most likely to succeed if they appropriately match the work style, needs, and skills of protégé and mentor. T. F.

93) The primary gains from mentoring are seen in greater compensation and higher job performance. T. F.

94) According to the attribution theory of leadership, leadership is characterized by ________. A) the significant gains made in the mentoring relationship between the leader and follower. B) the act of people ascribing qualities like intelligence or charisma to leaders. C) the focus on the actual accomplishments and performance of the leader. D) the impact of substitutes and neutralizers in enhancing the role of the leader. E) the division of the group into ingroup and out-group members based on the leader's preference.

95) According to the attribution theory of leadership, a person aiming to be a leader has to ________. A) gain sufficient experience to be a leader. B) possess qualities like charisma and intelligence. C) make changes on ground before leading people. D) possess many significant actual accomplishments. E) shape the perception that he or she could be a leader.

96) The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation's economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government's second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here?. A) trait theories. B) behavioral theories. C) path-goal theory. D) servant leadership perspective. E) attribution theory.

97) Which of the following is a substitute for leadership in the theory that suggests leaders' actions are irrelevant in many situations?. A) lack of experience. B) training. C) ambiguous task. D) high need for supervision. E) external feedback.

98) Which of the following is true about substitutes for leadership?. A) Substitutes are clearly distinguishable from neutralizers. B) Substitutes enhance the need for leader's support or ability to create structure. C) Substitutes increase the levels of identification-based trust. D) Substitutes are factors and conditions that replace formal leadership. E) Organizations cannot provide any substitutes for leadership.

99) The top management of Myers Corp are planning a reorganization of their company to cut costs and increase efficiency. The different department heads have been asked to present their departmental strengths, needs, and concerns at a meeting. The various division heads have come to an agreement that clarity of goals and tasks, detailed procedural guidelines like employee manuals, and a cooperative workforce are their main strengths. Additionally, they are of the opinion that cutting managerial positions to reduce costs and reorganizing Myers Corp as a relatively flat organization is a good approach. This scenario reflects the operation of ________ in replacing the support and ability offered by leaders. A) vision. B) traits. C) attributes. D) substitutes. E) charisma.

100) ________ make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. A) Catalysts. B) Mentors. C) Neutralizers. D) Hygiene factors. E) Vision and charisma.

101) Which of the following is a neutralizer of leadership?. A) indifference to rewards. B) experience and training. C) explicit formalized rules. D) cohesive work groups. E) highly structured task.

102) Which of the following is true with regard to getting the most from leadership-training budgets?. A) Leadership training is likely to be more successful with low self-monitors. B) It is difficult for organizations to teach implementation skills. C) Teaching trust building and monitoring is virtually impossible. D) Leaders can be trained in transformational leadership skills that have bottom-line results. E) For online leaders, substitutes and neutralizers have no effect.

103) The attribution theory of leadership says leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals. T. F.

104) Genetics and experiences shape young people, and the relationship between these factors and CEO success is complex. T. F.

105) How do substitutes and neutralizers challenge the effectiveness of leadership?. Answer: One theoretical approach of leadership suggests that in many situations leaders' actions are irrelevant. Experience and training are among the substitutes that can replace the need for a leader's support or ability to create structure. Organizational characteristics such as explicit formalized goals, rigid rules and procedures, and cohesive work groups can also replace formal leadership, while indifference to organizational rewards can neutralize its effects. Neutralizers make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. It must be added that the difference between substitutes and neutralizers is not clear-cut. eL DiAblO.

106) What is the most important event an organization needs to plan for?. Answer: The most important event an organization needs to plan for is a change in leadership. In general, organizations seem to spend no time on leadership succession and are surprised when their pick turns out poorly. Josu comunista.

1) The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________. A) they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals. B) they represent a better way to use employee talents. C) they reduce the need for coordination and supervision. D) they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs. E) they strengthen the worth of individual teams players over the team.

2) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?. A) A work group performs at a level greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members. B) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort. C) A work group consists of members who work together and generate positive synergy through coordinated effort. D) A work group consists of members having complementary skills that are applied in a coordinated fashion to the task at hand. E) A work group involves individual and mutual accountability regarding results and outcomes.

3) Work groups are characterized by ________. A) the emphasis on generatng positve synergy. B) the goal of sharing informaton among members. C) the mutual and team-based accountability for results. D) the need to attain collectve performance. E) the availability of complementary skill sets.

4) The goal of work groups is ________. A) generating positive synergy. B) improving collective performance. C) inculcating a climate of trust. D) sharing relevant information. E) enhancing team efficacy.

5) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team?. A) Work teams are rarely used in organizations today. B) Work teams are generally less flexible than traditional departments. C) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort. D) Work teams are less responsive to changes in the internal and external environment of the company. E) Work teams involve members of random and varied skill sets.

6) A work team is characterized by ________. A) the goal of sharing information. B) the presence of neutral to negative synergy. C) the availability of complementary skills among members. D) the individual accountability for outcomes and results. E) the mere accumulation of individual efforts.

7) Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams?. A) Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-level workers. B) Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues. C) Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use employees who have random and varied skills. D) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function. E) Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization.

8) The extensive use of work teams benefits organizations by ________. A) generating neutral synergy among all employees of the team. B) eliminating the need for mutual accountability for results. C) developing the various team member's skills such that they are random and varied. D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs. E) ensuring that the mere accumulation of individual efforts is used for group work.

9) A team consists of employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving the work environment, but they do not have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. This is most likely to be a(n) ________ team. A) cross-functional. B) virtual. C) self-managed work. D) problem-solving. E) independent.

10) Problem-solving teams can ________. A) implement the recommended changes to resolve a problem. B) assume responsibility for the outcomes of a solution they implemented. C) provide recommendations after a discussion amongst department members. D) resolve problems of different departments in an organization simultaneously. E) combine the expertise of employees across different divisions and organizational levels.

11) The supervisors of the production division of one of the branches of Georgia Mills have beeninformed of some irregularities noticed in inventory of raw materials by some trusted subordinates. To get a clearer picture, the supervisors had a quick meeting with the subordinates who reported the matter over lunch. The subordinates recommended rotating the schedule of employees who account for the incoming and used up stock so as to pinpoint the defaulting employee. The supervisors agreed that this was a good strategy but admitted that the matter must be escalated to the production manager before such a change can be implemented. They followedup this meeting with subsequent sessions to evaluate how the change worked. The supervisors and subordinates form a(n) ________ team in this scenario. A) cross-functional. B) independent. C) problem-solving. D) virtual. E) self-managed.

12) ________ teams are defined as groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. A) Independent. B) Self-managed work. C) Cross-functional. D) Problem-solving. E) Traditional.

13) Nick, the director of manufacturing at a large electronics company, has created a team of eleven employees from quality control for working on high priority projects. Nick gives the teammembers the responsibility of planning and scheduling their own work and making all functionaldecisions. Also, members of this team evaluate each other's performance. This is an example of a________ team. A) problem-solving. B) self-managed work. C) cross-functional. D) virtual. E) task-resolution.

14) Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams?. A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees. B) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well. C) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction. D) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other. E) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance.

15) Which of the following teams is more likely to be made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas?. A) problem-solving. B) self-managed work. C) cross-functional. D) traditional. E) departmental.

16) To retain its edge in the organic health food market, Natura has established a high-priority team comprised of senior executives from the company's production, marketing, and research divisions. These employees work together closely to study consumer aƫtudes about organic health foods and come up with a closely monitored development and marketing strategy for new products. This ensures that each division is informed of the specific needs, timelines, and expected outcomes of the strategy. It also makes Natura a company that adapts to changes in market trends swiftly. The team Natura uses here is of the ________ type. A) problem-solving. B) self-managed work. C) cross-functional. D) traditional. E) departmental.

17) GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company's C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team. A) command. B) cross-functional. C) self-managed work. D) problem-solving. E) task.

18) Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?. A) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels. B) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department. C) Cross-functional teams have decreased in popularity in the last few decades. D) In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short. E) Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

19) Which of the following types of teams allows for collaboration between team members who are physically dispersed?. A) problem-solving teams. B) self-managed work teams. C) task teams. D) virtual teams. E) command teams.

20) Virtual teams are characterized by ________ in comparison to teams which interact face-to-face. A) low popularity among companies. B) low social rapport and direct interaction. C) low sharing of unique information. D) low need for supervision. E) low need for publicizing throughout the organization.

21) Which of the following is desirable when a crucial project is delegated to a virtual team?. A) encouraging less interaction among members so they completely focus on the project. B) avoiding publicity of the team's progress and success in the organization. C) promoting a sense of independence over group spirit to encourage competition. D) engaging in close monitoring of the work being done by the team throughout the project. E) discouraging the sharing of unique information as it benefits some employees unfairly.

22) Which of the following statements is not true regarding multiteam systems?. A) They are used to offset the problems associated with adding more members to an existing team. B) They are collections of two or more independent teams that share a superordinate goal. C) They are effectively teams of teams. D) They are more successful when they have boundary spanners. E) They perform better when lines of communication are restricted.

23) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams?. A) team efficacy. B) company reputation. C) adequate resources. D) member flexibility. E) leadership and structure.

24) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors?. A) team efficacy. B) climate of trust. C) common purpose. D) social loafing. E) specific goals.

25) The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories: context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables belongs to the composition category?. A) adequate resources. B) conflict level. C) team efficacy. D) performance evaluation system. E) personality of team members.

26) According to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team?. A) leadership and structure. B) team efficacy. C) member flexibility. D) performance evaluation and reward systems. E) abilities of members.

27) Jean Wills, a trainer with Leverage Inc., is infuriated because the conference hall that she hadbooked for her morning session with a new batch of trainees will be occupied by the HR team forthe day. Jean feels that the company only superficially commits to training and that it is not a priority as this lack of facilities for training is a recurring phenomenon. Recently, she had asked the HR department to supply printed copies of her material for the orientation and training modules to the new trainees, and HR refused, saying the soft copies available on the systems would suffice. Which of the following contextual areas is the source of problem between the training department and the HR department in this scenario?. A) performance evaluation. B) reward systems. C) adequate resources. D) leadership. E) structure.

28) Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each other's backs after the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members' work and looking for mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is lacking in Araceli's team?. A) adequate resources. B) climate of trust. C) team structure. D) performance evaluations. E) leadership.

29) In which of the following teams is leadership of most importance to coordinate the efforts of various teams in order to produce a desired outcome?. A) technical teams. B) self-managed work teams. C) problem-solving teams. D) management teams. E) multiteam systems.

30) Which of the following reward systems is likely to reinforce team effort and commitment?. A) job sharing. B) gainsharing. C) piece-rate pay. D) merit-based pay. E) skill-based pay.

31) Which of the following pairs of personality dimensions contribute to high team effectiveness?. A) introversion and reflexivity. B) type A and type B. C) reflexivity and submissiveness. D) conscientiousness and openness to experience. E) perfectionism and rule consciousness.

32) People scoring high on ________ are valuable in teams because they're good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when their support is truly needed. A) conscientiousness. B) positivity. C) emotional stability. D) agreeableness. E) openness to experience.

33) Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition?. A) A team's performance is merely the summation of its individual members' abilities. B) High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations. C) Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in groups. D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled. E) A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the leader.

34) The controller role in a team is responsible for ________. A) initiating creative ideas. B) examining details and enforcing rules. C) offering insighƞul analysis of options. D) coordinating and integrating group tasks. E) providing directions and following up with implementation.

35) The adviser role in a team is responsible for ________. A) providing structure. B) fighting external battles. C) offering insighƞul analysis of options. D) coordinating and integrating group tasks. E) encouraging the search for more information.

36) Which of the following terms describes the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service?. A) social conformity. B) organizational value. C) organizational demography. D) diversity. E) organizational multiculturalism.

37) Organizational demography suggests that aƩributes such as age or the date of joining should help the organization in ________. A) promoting diversity and multiculturalism. B) reducing discrimination in the workplace. C) determining appropriate compensation packages. D) assessing the training needs at an occupational level. E) predicting employee turnover in the company.

38) According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________. A) increased employee satisfaction. B) decreased level of conflicts. C) higher employee motivation. D) higher employee turnover. E) higher team efficacy.

39) Which of the following is true with regard to the impact of diversity on team effectiveness?. A) High levels of diversity among team members benefit the group from the stage of forming. B) Race and gender diversity bear the highest positive impact on team performance. C) Leadership has a negligible role to play in diverse teams because the members manage themselves autonomously. D) Elements of diversity are undesirable as they interfere with team processes in the long run. E) Cultural diversity serves as an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints once the team has worked out its differences.

40) Which of the following statements is true regarding a culturally diverse team?. A) Elements of diversity do not interfere with team processes. B) Culturally homogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems than culturally heterogeneous teams. C) Generally, newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform as compared to newly formedculturally homogeneous teams. D) Cultural diversity within a team is not advisable for those tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints. E) Culturally diverse teams are more affected by surface-level diversity than by deep-level diversity.

41) Cultural diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________. A) require a variety of viewpoints. B) are simple and routine. C) involve emotional labor. D) are highly technical. E) required for completing the work are highly independent.

42) Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams?. A) The most effective teams have twelve to fifteen members. B) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines. C) As team size increases, social loafing decreases. D) When teams have excess members, mutual accountability increases. E) Members of large teams coordinate work better when pressed for time.

43) Which of the following statements represents a strategy that is desirable for making effective teams?. A) Combining people with extremely high and extremely low abilities helps make a balanced team. B) Individuals should ideally have one role in a team as multiple roles reduce their effectiveness and efficiency. C) Diversity should be avoided as diverse teams involve a lot of conflict in day-to-day functioning. D) If a natural work unit is larger, its size must be maintained for the nature of the job requires large teams. E) The preference of individual members to work as a part of groups must be considered when forming teams.

44) Which of the following statements is true with regard to team processes?. A) This category comprises variables that relate to how teams should be staffed. B) Effective teams invest time and effort to discuss and agree on a purpose that belongs to them both collectively and individually. C) Once a specific goal is chosen, effective teams resist making any changes in them so as to maintain the momentum of the team. D) Effective teams do not engage in task and relationship conflicts. E) Effective teams begin by selecting the right kind of people to be members of the team.

45) ________ illustrates a process loss from using teams. A) Organizational demography. B) Role conflict. C) Social loafing. D) Multitasking. E) Profit-sharing.

46) Gerald Murphy is a manager at Wright & Wayner, a publishing house which is a very employee-friendly company. The demarcation between managers and subordinates is flexible and the nature of these reporting relationships is flexible and informal. Gerald recently assigned five of eight of his subordinates to work on a new publication project with a fairly tight deadline because he believed that these efficient employees would function even better with each other's support. A week before the deadline, however, Gerald realized that the group had been shirking work as each of the members thought that the project was not just his or her responsibility. Additionally, under the guise of working together, the team was actually doing their personal work, surfing the Internet, or just socializing. This scenario reflects ________. A) gainsharing. B) high process gains. C) reflexive goal-seƫng. D) job sharing. E) social loafing.

47) A team that has a good plan but is also willing to adjust its master plan and adapt when conditions call for it demonstrates high ________, an important variable in successful team processes. A) goal specificity. B) goal congruency. C) conformity. D) diversity. E) reflexivity.

48) While discussing their marketing campaign for a new product, the members of the cross-functional team responsible for Carver Inc. realized that a couple of changes relating to their prior plan would be beneficial. The offer of a franchising that had earlier been brushed off by the company head was discussed thoroughly, and it was decided that it would be implemented on a trial basis initially and on full scale if found to work well. From the information provided, it can be concluded that this cross-functional team has a high degree of ________. A) demography. B) reflexivity. C) conformity. D) diversity. E) uncertainty.

50) Effective teams translate their common purpose into ________ goals. A) universal. B) generic. C) vast. D) specific. E) diverse.

51) The belief that effective teams have in their ability to succeed is called ________. A) goal specificity. B) reflexivity. C) mental model. D) common purpose. E) team efficacy.

49) Hank Murphy was selected to develop an advanced personal communication device with his own self- managed work team. Hank was assured that resource allocation and timelines were flexible for this project provided the work was a cut above that provided by the rest of the employees. As a part of the project guidelines, Hank included the demand that the device being developed by the team should also be marketed exclusively by them without resorting to franchising or cobranding. This was to ensure that customers recognized the product as reflectingthe values of their company. Work on this project began with a lot of vigor and once the device was developed, Hank's team implemented their marketing strategy. However, even three months after the product's release, visibility remained low in the market and many reviewers did not consider the device to be much of an innovation. Which of the following statements, if true, would indicate a lack of reflexivity in Hank's self-managed work team?. A) Hank's team members developed multiple blueprints of the device, which were thoroughly discussed, improvised, and synthesized into the final plan for the product. B) In the first few weeks of the project, Hank had witnessed a moderate level of conflict between the team members as each one had his own idea about how best to go about this high-priority project. C) The device was later marketed as a part of a national level tie-up with E-store outlets and did remarkably well in its second stint in the market. D) In Hank's team, the members took accountability for the group's performance as a whole and reported their individual progress to him as well. E) Hank's team used e-mail and instant messaging to communicate unique information when some of the team members were not available for face-to-face interactions.

52) Alberto's team is developing a database for the water pollution data of three cities. Before he begins on this intensive project, he wants to improve the team efficacy of his team. Which of the following acƟons can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before the project starts?. A) plan a team outing for the team members. B) make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people. C) spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for each. D) provide client's software and database training for all the team members. E) create team goals that are very challenging.

53) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy?. A) providing vast and generic goals. B) helping the team achieve small successes. C) creating a team such that it has diverse members. D) ensuring that team goals are substantially difficult. E) reducing the number of members on a team drastically.

54) ________ are defined as organized mental representations of the key elements within a team's environment that team members share. A) Path-goal models. B) Task models. C) Mental models. D) Individual models. E) Specific models.

55) Managers facing job candidates who lack team skills should do all of the following except ________. A) avoid hiring the job candidate. B) hire the candidate, but assign them to tasks where teamwork is not important. C) provide the candidate with the type of training that can help improve his or her ability to be a successful member of a team. D) choose the individual with the best technical skills regardless of his or her ability to perform as a member of a team. E) bring the candidate on board, but assign the individual to an area where teamwork is not a priority.

56) With a deadline approaching, all seven members of Sharon's product development team wereworking round-the-clock and still the work was not completed in time. After the project was completed, Sharon spoke individually with the members to determine the cause for this delay. Many members complained, saying the work given to them was not in accordance with their roles. Some were unclear about which team member to approach when faced with a problem, and many underestimated the time and effort the project demanded. This team is characterized by________. A) a clear role allocation for all team members. B) dissimilar mental models. C) high degree of role clarity. D) excessively large team size. E) a strong climate of trust.

57) Which of the following is not a common characteristic of an effective team?. A) The team has adequate resources. B) The team has effective leadership. C) The team has a climate of trust. D) The team has a performance and evaluation system that reflects team contributions. E) The team is the right size for the task—about 15-20 people.

58) When teams are performing nonroutine activities, ________ stmulate discussion, promote critcal assessment of problems and optons, and can lead to better team decisions. A) task conflicts. B) disciplinary conflicts. C) relaƟonship conflicts. D) resource allocaton conflicts. E) discriminatory conflicts.

59) Which of the following is an example of a task conflict?. A) Will and Hilda have been removed from the team they worked with after they were overheard making derogatory comments about one of their colleague's racial origin. B) Henry and Solomon have been reprimanded by their project lead for spending too much Ɵme using the Internet for personal use at work. C) Linda and Dorothy had a disagreement over which of their employees should be assigned to work on a high-priority project. D) Sally and her manager have just had a heated argument because Sally feels she has been overlooked for a promoƟon that was her righƞul due. E) The company head has resigned after longstanding conflict between him and his top management employees.

60) Which of the following must be avoided if one wants to create and maintain an effective team?. A) task conflicts. B) reflexivity. C) specific goals. D) relationship conflicts. E) congruent mental models.

61) When individuals engage in ________, they coast on the group's effort because their particular contributions cannot be identified. A) task conflicts. B) gainsharing. C) retaliating. D) process gains. E) social loafing.

62) Shane Dermott is a manager at a software design firm that develops software programs for clients using multiple teams of specialists. One of his most successful teams has been performing very well for years and so it came as a surprise to Shane when he noticed a sharp drop in the team's performance. He decided to speak with the team members individually and find a solution. After interviewing all 7 team members, he determined that one of the team members performed routine administrative tasks that were hardly visible to any of the other team members and understood that this was a case of social loafing which demoƟvated the entire group. Which of the following would most likely improve the performance of the employee who was social loafing?. A) encouraging him to work more independently. B) making him individually responsible for definite and crucial tasks. C) empowering him to make decisions autonomously. D) providing him with administrative training. E) giving him additional assignments to complete.

63) Jason Jones has been asked to assemble an eight-member self-managed work team of experienced employees to work on a project that combines the functional areas of research, production, marketing, and distribution. Jason is apprehensive about managing a team so large; he knows from prior experience that larger teams do not always result in greater productivity. Jason has also been informed by the management that this team is being established as the project must progress according to the predetermined timeline. The work lagging behind by one division will cause a cumulaƟve delay in all the successive stages of the project's execuƟon. Which of the following measures, if adopted by Jason, would best ensure that the team members are working efficiently?. A) implementing a training program to provide the team members with the necessary technical and human relations skills for the project experimenting with and learning the jobs done by other members of the team. B) discouraging team members from restricting themselves to their own functional areas by. C) instructing the team members to finalize the plan for the project right at the beginning and ensuring that it is implemented without any changes. D) assigning the specific tasks of the project to each team member by keeping in mind their preferences and abilities. E) implementing a group-based incenƟve he has planned for this team.

64) Jason Jones has been asked to assemble an eight-member self-managed work team of experienced employees to work on a project that combines the functional areas of research, production, marketing, and distribution. Jason is apprehensive about managing a team so large; he knows from prior experience that larger teams do not always result in greater productivity. Jason has also been informed by the management that this team is being established as the project must progress according to the predetermined timeline. The work lagging behind by one division will cause a cumulative delay in all the successive stages of the project's execution. Jason plans to implement a group-based incentive that he feels would motivate each of the team members to work efficiently. Which of the following is an assumption made by Jason in implementing this plan?. A) Increasing the number of experienced employees in the team will reduce the need for supervision. B) Each employee in the team is motivated to work equally hard to ensure that the group's performance is saƟsfactory. C) Since the team is comprised of employees who are highly skilled in their respective areas, the output of the group will be of high quality. D) Each employee will work well within the boundaries of their divisional functions, and conflicts will be relaƟvely fewer. E) Each employee will be committed to working within the resources allocated.

65) Which of the following will be useful in creating team players?. A) technical training. B) academic training. C) job rotation. D) cross-training. E) negotiation training.

66) Diane Fielding, owner of the famous Mint chain of restaurants, planned to revamp the whole concept and structure of her outlets. With this purpose in mind, she selected five managers from her existing outlets based on their performance in relation to targets, experience, and motivation. Each manager was asked to take up an aspect of the restaurant's functioning like menu, décor, and customer service measures. Diane was sure that this group of high performers possessed a clear understanding of the ground realities, which made them the best candidates to contemplate and implement the required changes. In order to reward them, she announced a hefty bonus for their collective performance. Six months later, after the changes were implemented, Diane realized that the group had made many quesƟonable decisions, which were resulƟng in problems. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?. A) The team members had skills that were complementary to each other and added value to the project. B) The team members had high levels of affective commitment to their jobs as Diane was a good leader. C) Typically, these managers viewed each other as competition as Diane only rewarded the highest earning outlet with incentives. D) Two of the branches of Mint were located in the suburbs, while the other three outlets were located in busy areas and witnessed more customers. E) The team members were clear about their duties, and role ambiguity was minimal.

67) A software development firm has witnessed substantial growth and seeks to expand and reorganize its structure to meet the demands from clients in a better manner. HR has been given aclear directive that one of the major criteria for selection of recruits would be the candidate's ability to function as a team player. This is because the company is revamping all its major functions from the traditional departmental model to an arrangement of flexible teams. Joe Sanchez, one of the firm's oldest and most experienced employees, has demonstrated considerable ability in developing the best programs, but he prefers to work alone. The company does not wish to lose resources like Sanchez and others who lack the ability to work in groups, but teamwork is essential to its reorganization. Which of the following strategies will help rectify this problem?. A) encouraging the formation of more diverse teams. B) informing all employees that ability to work in teams will be a major determinant for promotions and bonuses. C) increasing the size of teams so the contribution of people like Joe will not affect team performance overall. D) applying merit-based compensation systems instead of gainsharing. E) encouraging employees like Joe to work more independently.

68) Which of the following is true with regard to use of individuals and teams?. A) Teams and individuals can be used interchangeably for all kinds of jobs without any significant impact seen on effectiveness. B) Teamwork requires less time and resources when compared to individual work. C) Individuals have increased communication, supervision, and conflict-management demands when compared to teams. D) Individuals are bound by a collective common purpose that is organizationally determined, and this typically reduces their performance. E) Task complexity and requirement of different perspecƟves must be used as criteria when assigning work to teams over individuals and vice versa.

69) Work should be performed by an individual if ________. A) the work is complex and requires different perspectives. B) the work creates a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals. C) the work is simple and does not require diverse input. D) several tasks that are interdependent are to be performed for completing the work. E) performing the work requires learning a new technology or understanding a new system.

70) The work of your group would be better done in teams if the members of the team are ________. A) independent. B) autonomous. C) individualistic. D) interdependent. E) reflexive.