test moodle IM

1. The _____ is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific components of the marketing research problem. a) none of the answers. b) problem audit. c) management problem. d) problem definition.

2. The management decision problem focuses on ______ while the marketing research problem focuses on ______. a) none of the answers. b) symptoms; solutions. c) solutions; underlying causes. d) symptoms; underlying causes.

3. External research suppliers can be classified as ______ and ______. a) full-service; partial-service. b) full-service; limited-service. c) limited-service; partial-service. d) none of the answers.

4. The researcher should rely on _____ to determine which variables should be investigated. a) theory. b) objective evidence. c) all answers. d) analytical model.

5. ______ is conceptualized as consisting of six steps which include problem definition, developing an approach to the problem, research design formulation, field work, data preparation and analysis and, report generation and presentation. a) Marketing research problem. b) A decision support system. c) Marketing information systems. d) The marketing research process.

1. Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?. a) Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research. b) Develop hypotheses. c) Specify the sampling process and sample size. d) Construct and pre-test a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form for data collection.

5. ______ is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents included in the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample. a) Random sampling error. b) Response error. c) Non-response error. d) Non-sampling error.

3. Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research?. a) Determine cause and effect relationships. b) Provide insights and understanding. c) Describe market characteristics or functions. d) Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.

4. Published external secondary data sources may be broadly classified as ______ or ______ sources (Figure 4.2. in the text). a) general business; federal. b) public business; government. c) general business; government. d) public business; federal.

1. The two main expressive techniques are ______ and ______. a) third-person technique; word association. b) role playing; word association. c) role playing; third-person technique. d) word association; sentence completion.

5. There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following. a) None of the answers. b) It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods to obtain information from respondents. c) People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions. d) People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their privacy, embarrass them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.

2. _____ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analysing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the data with the use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix. a) Conclusion drawing and verification. b) Data reduction. c) Data determination. d) Data display.

3. In a depth interview, the interviewer should ______. a) be detached and objective, yet personable. b) probe the respondent. c) all answers. d) avoid appearing superior and put the respondent at ease.

4. “Why do you say that?”, “That’s interesting, can you tell me more?” or, “Would you like to add anything else?” are examples of ______. a) probing. b) projecting. c) none of the answers. d) all answers.

1. Which of the following advantages is the greatest advantage of observation methods?. a) If the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational methods may be cheaper and faster than survey methods. b) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternative stated. c) Coding, analysis, and interpretation of data are relatively simple. d) Observational methods permit measurement of actual behaviour rather than reports of intended or preferred behaviour.

4. Which method of the following is a disadvantage of the survey method of data collection?. a) Coding, analysis and interpretation of data are relatively simple. b) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternatives stated. c) The questionnaire is simple to administer. d) Wording questions properly is not easy.

5. The extent to which the respondents can interact with the interviewer and survey questionnaire refers to the _______. a) control of data collection environment. b) response rate. c) sample control. d) flexibility and data collection.

3. In the context of the department store patronage project, analysing store charge card slips to examine customer store credit usage behaviours is an example of ______. a) trace analysis. b) personal observation. c) mechanical observation. d) content analysis.

1. The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the following except ______. a) elimination of other possible factors. b) time order of occurrence of variables. c) role of evidence. d) concomitant variation.

2. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?. a) Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used. b) All statements are correct. c) Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution channels. d) It is a one-shot case study.

3. Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and sampling procedures and all of the following except ______. a) specifying how to control the extraneous variables. b) specifying the independent variables. c) specifying the dependent variables. d) specifying the plan for data analysis.

4. Using the test of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs, which symbol below represents the random assignment of test units or groups to separate treatments?. x. T. R. O.

5. EG: R O_1 X O_2 CG: R O_3 O_4 In the pre-test-post-test control group design shown above, selection bias is eliminated by _______. a) design control. b) matching. c) randomization. d) statistical control.

1. All of the statements below are ways in which the researcher can encourage respondents to provide information they are unwilling to give except _______. a) provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures. b) preface the question with a statement that the behaviour of interest is common. c) all answers. d) use randomized techniques.

2. A _________ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree”, which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus objects. a) Likert scale. b) Stapel scale. c) continuous rating scale. d) semantic differential scale.

3. If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing, you are at which step of the questionnaire design process?. a) Eliminate bugs by pretesting. b) Arrange the questions in proper order. c) Determine the content of individual questions. c) Determine the content of individual questions.

4. Which of the following statistics is not permissible for interval data (Table 8.1 in the text)?. a) harmonic mean. b) factor analysis. c) binomial test. d) t-tests.

5. ________ scaling and ________ scaling both are comparative in nature. Both result in ordinal data and might result in the respondent disliking the brand ranked 1 in an absolute sense. a) Rank order; paired comparison. b) Q-sort; constant sum. c) Paired comparison; constant sum. d) Rank order; constant sum.

6. When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why and way) are used when _________. a) choosing question wording. b) defining the issue. c) determining the content of individual questions. d) avoiding generalizations and estimates.

7. ________ is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical questions of why a scale works and what deductions can be made concerning the theory underlying the scale. a) construct validity. b) internal consistency validity. c) criterion validity. d) content validity.

1. In ________, the target population is first divided into mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive subpopulations, or clusters. a) Simple random sampling. b) Cluster sampling. c) Stratified sampling. d) Systematic sampling.

2. The _______ is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean or proportion. a) Standardized variate. b) Variance. c) Standard error. d) Standard deviation.

3. _______ is a sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample. a) Judgmental sampling. b) Convenience sampling. c) Nonprobability sampling. d) Probability sampling.

4. Which statement is not true about nonresponse issues in sampling?. a) Nonresponse error is one of the most significant problems in survey research. b) For a given study, if the nonrespondents differ from the respondents on the characteristics of interests, the sample estimates will only be mildly biased. c) Response rates themselves do not indicate whether the respondents are representative of the original sample. d) Increasing the response rate may not reduce nonresponse bias.

5. Which of the following conditions does not favour the use of a sample (Table 11.1 in the text)?. a) There are budget and time limit constraints. b) The cost of non-sampling errors is high. c) The population is large. d) The cost of sampling errors is high.

6. The percentage of qualified respondents who complete the interview is the _________. a) Final sample size. b) Initial sample size. c) Completion rate. d) Incidence rate.

1. ________ are appropriate when there is a single measurement of each element in the sample, or there are several measurements of each element but each variable is analysed in isolation. a) Multivariate techniques. b) Univariate techniques. c) Dependence techniques. d) Interdependence techniques.

2. Which of the following tests is not a non-parametric one-sample test?. a) Binomial test. b) Runs test. c) Mann-Whitney U test. d) Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test.

3. When utilizing univariate techniques, for the purpose of analysis, data pertaining to different groups of respondents, e.g., males and females, are generally treated as _______ samples while the samples are _______ when the data for the two samples relate to the same group of respondents. a) Independent; metric. b) Paired; independent. c) Independent; paired. d) Metric; paired.

4. Which option for treatment of missing values involves cases, or respondents, witch any missing responses being discarded from the analysis?. a) Substitute a neutral value. b) Pairwise deletion. c) Case wise deletion. d) Returning to the field.

5. ________ is a test statistic that measures the association between two ordinal-level variables. It makes an adjustment for ties and is most appropriate when the table of variable is square. a) Tau c. b) Tau b. c) Gamma. d) Symmetric lambda.

1. ________ is a statistical procedure for analysing associative relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables. a) Product moment correlation. b) Regression analysis. c) ANOVA. d) Partial correlation coefficient.

2. Which statement is correct concerning one-way ANOVA?. a) The set of independent variables consists of both categorical and metric variables. b) Only one categorical variable is involved. Besides, a treatment is the same as particular combination of factor levels. c) A treatment is the same as a particular combination of factor levels. d) Only one categorical variable is involved.

3. A statistical technique for examining the differences among means for two or more populations is called ________. a) Independent samples t test. b) Cross-tabulation. c) Analysis of variance (ANOVA). d) Chi-square.

4. In one-way ANOVA, the null hypothesis may be tested by ________. a) F statistic. b) The t statistic. c) Chi-square. d) Eta2.

5. ________ is the appropriate test statistic to use to determine the significance of the coefficient of determination in bivariate regression. a) F statistic. b) ω2. c) Z statistic. d) T statistic.

6. When considering nonmetric correlation, as a rule of thumb, _______ is to be preferred when a large number of cases fall into a relatively small number of categories (thereby leading to a large number of ties). a) Pearson product moment correlation. b) Spearman’s rho. c) Chi-square. d) Kendall’s tau.