Neuro

What aspects of dendritic ramification can be altered?. Only the quantity of dendritic branches. The type, quantity, distribution, and length of dendritic branches. Only the length of dendritic branches. Only the distribution of dendritic branches.

What role does Doublecortin (Dcx) play in brain development?. It helps in the migration of neurons during embyonic development, especially in the core olfactory bulb. It inhibits the differentiation of glial cells in the central nervous system. It regulates the growth of dendrites in mature neurons.

What happens in retrograde degeneration?. The axon degenerates proximal to the injury, leading to cell body disruption and death. Backwards degeneration of an axon, allowing for regeneration. The axon regenerates proximal to the injury, preventing the degeneration of the cell body. The cell body regenerates, and the axon remains unaffected.

What description does NOT belong to leukoaraiosis?. White matter changes, reflecting damage to the small blood vessels in the brain and are associated with reduced blood flow. Oligodendrocytes appear to be preferentially reduced in number compared to astrocytes which have slightly larger and less densely stained nuclei. It is associated with vascular changes, where the walls of veins are thickened by multiple layers of collagen. It is a condition where there is excessive blood flow in the brain’s white matter.

Which imaging technique is best suited for detecting acute ischemic stroke due to its sensitivity to water diffusion?. CT scan. fMRI. Diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI). PET scan.

The Wada test is primarily used to: Measure blood flow in the brain. Determine hemispheric dominance for language and memory. Diagnose epilepsy. Assess white matter integrity.

Which of the following is a limitation of EEG?. Poor temporal resolution. Inability to detect deep brain structures. High cost. Use of ionizing radiation.

Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) is most commonly used to treat: Alzheimer’s disease. Parkinson’s disease. Schizophrenia. Stroke.

The dichotic listening test is used to study: Visual field processing. Hemispheric specialization for auditory processing. Motor coordination. Memory consolidation.

What are the possible dendritic ramification alterations?. Quantity, type, distribution, length. Color, surface, distribution. Quantity, color, length.

Which of the following techniques is typically used in post-mortem macroscopic analysis of the brain?. Measurement of neurotransmitter levels via spectroscopy. Analysis of brain asymmetries and individual differences. Recording of electrical activity via electrodes on the scalp.

What is the primary purpose of angiography in medical imaging?. To evaluate electrical activity in the brain. To visualize the structure of blood vessels. To assess bone density and joint alignment.

Which of the following is NOT a type of MRI?. Mini MRI. Vertical MRI. Horizontal MRI.

How does rCBF aid in dementia diagnosis?. By identifying characteristic patterns of reduced blood flow in specific brain regions. By detecting characteristic patterns of structural brain atrophy. By measuring dopamine (DA) levels in the basal ganglia.

Which of the following imaging techniques uses radio-tracers to measure blood flow and metabolism in the brain?. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Positron emission tomography (PET). Computed tomography (CT).

What type of radiation does a CT scan use?. X-rays. Gamma radiation. Magnetic resonance.

What vascular condition can angiography detect?. Brain tumor. Aneurysms. Multiple sclerosis.

Which of the following is NOT a common clinical use of EEG?. Sleep disorder diagnosis. Monitoring of brain activity during surgery. Diagnosing of multiple sclerosis.

Which type of stimuli are used in Evoked Potentials (EPs)?. Visual, Auditory, Magnetic. Visual, Auditory, and Somatosensory. Auditory, Somatosensory, Chemical.

What techniques can be used for the diagnosis of dementia?. rCBF. EEG. MRI.

What marker is used in PET?. radiotracers. gamma rays. magnetic fields.

Chose one of the clinical use of the Regional cerebral blood Flow (rCBF): provides analysis of cytoarchitectonic anomalies. provides insights into the progression of some Neurodegenrative Diseases. is used to visualize the normal structure of blood vessels.

What are the two main limits of the electroencephalography?. It is invasive, and it has a limited spatial resolution. It has a bad temporal resolution, and it is quite expensive. It has a limited spatial resolution, and cannot detect deep brain structures.

Which statement about evoked potentials (EPs) is FALSE?. This test is used to record the brain’s processing of sensory input. The three types of sensory input used in these tests are: auditory, visual, and olfactory. One of the clinical uses of these tests is to diagnose multiple sclerosis (MS).

Evoked potentials (EPs) and electroencephalography (EEG) are a part of which type of in-vivo analysis?. Magnetic Resonance Imaging. Metabolic recording. Electromagnetic recording.

Which of the following best describes the primary function of electroencephalography (EEG)?. Measuring the electrical activity of muscles. Recording electrical activity generated by neurons in the brain. Detecting magnetic fields generated by neural activity. Monitoring blood flow changes in the brain.

What is a distinguishing characteristic of evoked potentials (EPs) such as P300 and P400?. They measure spontaneous brain activity without external stimuli. They are electrical responses to specific sensory, cognitive, or motor events. They rely solely on invasive electrode placement. They are unrelated to EEG recordings.

What is the primary method utilised in Neurofeedback therapy. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). Functional MRI (fMRI). Electroencephalogram (EEG) feedback. Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS).

What does Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT) use to create 3D images?. X-rays. Gamma-emitting radiotracers. Ultrasound waves.

What is the main purpose of SPECT imaging?. To create 3D images of blood flow and metabolic activity. To produce high-resolution ultrasound scans. To generate detailed CT images of bones.

Chose the true. For the image resolution and quality, SPECT has a lower spatial resolution than PET. For the image resolution and quality, the SPECT image quality is more detailed than PET. For the image resolution and quality, advancements like SPECT-CT decrease image quality.

Chose the true: SPECT uses radio tracers emitting positrons. SPECT detects gamma photons directly. In SPECT, positron annihilation emits two gamma photons in opposite directions.

X-rays are most commonly used to visualize: Soft tissues such as muscles and tendons. Bones and dense structures. Blood vessels. Electrical activity in the brain.

Which of the following is a potential risk of angiography?. Radiation exposure. Kidney damage from contrast dye. Allergic reactions to contrast dye. All of the above.

Compared to a standard X-ray, a CT scan provides: Lower resolution images. More detailed, 3D cross-sectional images. No radiation exposure. Only soft tissue imaging.

What does SPECT use to create 3D images of blood flow and metabolic activity?. X-ray radiation. Gamma-emitting radiotracers. Ultrasound waves.

Which imaging technique has higher spatial resolution and provides more detailed images?. PET. SPECT. Both have the same spatial resolution.

How does Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT) obtain the expected image?. Using radioactive tracers emitting positrons to visualize metabolic processes in the body. By detecting changes in blood oxygenation levels in a non-invasive way. Using gamma-emitting radiotracers to detect gamma photons directly.

Among the three proposals, what is the advantage of using Position Emission tomography?: it is highly sensitive for detecting metabolic changes. it is non-invasive and causes no exposure to radiation. it has high spatial resolution.

What does functional MRI (fMRI) primarily measure to assess brain activity?. Direct electrical activity of neurons. Changes in blood oxygenation levels. Concentration of neurotransmitters.

How does Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS) differ from traditional MRI?. It provides anatomical images rather than metabolic information. It measures the concentration of metabolites in brain tissue. It requires the injection of contrast agents to visualize structures.

Which is one of the main disadvantages of Functional MRI?. Their images have high spatial resolution. Their images have low temporal resolution. Their images have high visual resolution.

Select the correct statement regarding Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS). It generates detailed structural images, making it a key tool for diagnosing structural abnormalities. It analyzes the chemical composition of tissues, offering insights into metabolic processes and biochemical changes in the body. It identifies regions with restricted water diffusion, which can indicate neurological conditions like strokes.

Which of the following best describes the principle behind functional MRI (fMRI)?. Measuring the concentration of neurotransmitters. Detecting changes in blood flow and oxygenation related to neural activity. Imaging the structural integrity of white matter tracts. Analyzing the electrical activity of neurons.

What does Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS) primarily measure?. Brain blood flow. Brain glucose metabolism. Concentrations of specific chemical metabolites in the brain. Brain electrical activity.

The BOLD signal in fMRI refers to: Brain Oxygenated Lipid Density. Blood Oxygen Level Dependent. Basic Oscillatory Linear Dynamics. Bio-Optical Light Diffusion.

Which of the following is a key advantage of MRS over fMRI?. Higher spatial resolution. Direct measurement of neurochemical concentrations. Better temporal resolution. Lower cost.

What type of information does fMRI provide?. Static structural information of the brain. Dynamic information of brain activity. Chemical composition of the brain. Electrical signals of the brain.

For which type of patients did Wilder Penfield (1930) develop the technique of “cortical mapping”?. Schizophrenic patients. Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) patients. Epilepsy patients.

Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) can help to rebalance the basal ganglia circuits by modulating the output, thus indirectly affecting one neurotransmitter level and improving motor symptoms. What type of neurotransmitter is?. Dopamine. GABA. Noradrenaline.

What is the primary purpose of the separated visual fields technique?. To measure overall eye movement and reaction time. To assess hemispheric specialization by presenting stimuli to one visual field at a time. To determine the impact of binocular vision on depth perception.

In the separated visual fields test, information presented to the left visual field is primarily processed by: The left hemisphere of the brain. The right hemisphere of the brain. Both hemispheres equally at the same time.

What type of patients have provided important insights for hemispheric specialization through CVS?. Patients with age-related macular degeneration. Patients with optic nerve damage. Split-brain patients.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Separated Visual Fields (SVF) technique in neuropsychology?. To measure reaction time in motor tasks by alternating visual stimuli. To assess hemispheric specialization by presenting visual stimuli to each visual field separately. To evaluate auditory processing and language dominance through dichotic listening.

What is a notable limitation of the Dichotic Listening Test in evaluating auditory processing?. The results can be complex to interpret due to individual variability and attention factors. It can only be conducted effectively with individuals who have normal hearing. The test does not provide any insights into brain lateralization for non-verbal stimuli.

Which one is NOT a key region supplied by the internal carotid artery (ICA) and its branches?. Brain areas involved in motor and sensory control of the lower libs, cognition, personality and decision-making. Brain regions critical for motor and sensory control of the face, hand and upper libs, as well as speech and language (Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas), auditory processing, and vision. the eyes and their surrounding structures, including the optic nerve, which is crucial for vision. The posterior parts of the brain including the occipital lobe.

Which area of the brain is primarily supplied by the anterior cerebral artery (ACA)?. Lateral surface of the temporal lobe. Medial surface of the frontal lobe. Occipital lobe. Cerebellum.

Which artery is most likely affected if a patient presents with contralateral leg weakness and personality changes?. Middle cerebral artery (MCA). Anterior cerebral artery (ACA). Posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Basilar artery.

A patient with sudden-onset aphasia and right-sided hemiparesis likely has a stroke in the: Left MCA territory. Right MCA territory. Left PCA territory. Right PCA territory.

Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage?. Gradual memory loss. "Worst headache of my life.". Tremors. Visual hallucinations.

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (CTE) is most associated with: Single severe head trauma. Repeated minor head injuries. Ischemic stroke. Brain tumors.

Which brain tumor type arises from Schwann cells and often affects the vestibular nerve?. Glioblastoma. Meningioma. Schwannoma. Oligodendroglioma.

Which of the following brain areas is primarily supplied by the middle cerebral Artery (MCA)?. The medial surface of the frontal and parietal lobes. The brainstem and the inferior part of the occipital lobes. The lateral surface of the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes.

A stroke affecting the territory of the Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA) is most likely to cause which of the following symptoms?. Aphasia. Contralateral weakness and sensory loss, mainly affecting the lower limbs. Cortical blindness.

What is the most common type of hemorrhagic stroke?. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage. Intracerebral Hemorrhage. Epidural Hemorrhage.

What causes ischemic stroke?. A ruptured brain blood vessel. Sudden increase in blood pressure. Blocked or narrowed brain artery due to a clot or plaque buildup.

Which of the following pathogens is primarily responsible for Lyme disease (neuroborreliosis)?. Virus. Bacteria. Fungi.

What is the primary reason why early diagnosis and treatment of CNS infections are critical?. To prevent immediate death. To prevent long-term neurological damage. To alleviate mild symptoms and reduce fever.

What characterises Secondary Brain Tumors (Metastatic)?. They originate from brain cells and do not spread. They spread to the brain from other parts of the body (the lungs, breast, or skin). They are less common than primary brain tumors.

Which types of tumor are benign and could affect hormone production, causing imbalance in growth and prolactin excess? The symptoms of this tumor include headaches, visual changes and pituitary dysfunctions. Pituitary adenomas. Acoustic neuromas (schwannomas). Meningiomas.

What are the 3 types of benign tumors?. Meningiomas, pituitary adenomas and acoustic neuromas. Pituitary adenomas, meningiomas, and astrocytomas. Astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, and ependymomas.

Which of the following statements is true about astrocytomas?. They can also be called schwannomas. They arise from cells lining the ventricles and the spinal cord. There are 2 types of astrocytomas, brainstem astrocytomas and cerebellar astrocytomas.

How do we call the tumors that grow in the ventricular ependymal glia, which can cause hydrocephalus, nystagmus, and cerebellar ataxia in particular?. Ependymomas. Acoustic neuromas. Oligodendrogliomas.

Which of the following best describes a benign tumor?. It invades surrounding tissues and spreads to distant organs. It grows slowly and remains localized. It originates from blood cells and rapidly metastasizes. It always causes severe symptoms and requires chemotherapy.

What characteristic differentiates malignant tumors from benign tumors?. Malignant tumors are always smaller in size. Malignant tumors can invade other tissues and metastasize. Benign tumors are more aggressive in growth than malignant tumors. Benign tumors originate only in epithelial tissues.

What brain function is most likely to be impacted by a tumor in the frontal lobe?. Visual processing. Auditory processing. Executive functioning. Speech.

What structure does the ophthalmic artery primarily supply?. The inner ear and auditory nerve. The eyes and the optic nerve. The nasal septum and sinuses.

Which of the following best describes the main characteristic of atherosclerosis?. Infection of the arterial walls by bacteria. Plaque buildup that narrows and hardens the arteries. Weakening of arteries due to vitamin deficiency.

Which of the following best differentiates an ischemic stroke from a hemorrhagic stroke?. Ischemic stroke is caused by a blocked artery, while hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a ruptured blood vessel. Ischemic stroke results from a ruptured blood vessel, while hemorrhagic stroke is due to a blood clot blocking an artery. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs due to low blood pressure, while ischemic stroke occurs due to high blood pressure. Hemorrhagic strokes are more common than ischemic strokes.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a stroke?. Sudden weakness or numbness, especially on one side of the body. Difficulty speaking or understanding speech. Chest pain and shortness of breath. Sudden vision problems or loss of balance.

What is the most common type of hemorrhagic stroke?. Epidural hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. Intracerebral hemorrhage. Subdural hemorrhage.

Which of these TBI tends to be common between athletes?. Closed head injury. Microtrauma. Open head injury.

Which of these sentences about microtrauma is wrong?. long-term consequences can be prevented through early recognition. Microtrauma can enhances the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. Microtrauma always leads to immediate symptoms.

Which of the following is not a type of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?. Open Head Injury. Macrotrauma. Closed Head Injury.

When does closed Head Injury occur?. the skull has fractures but they are so mild that the brain is not exposed. the skull is fractured and the brain is exposed exposed to the outside environment. the skull is not fractured but the brain is still still injured.

How do you recognize someone who suffers from microtrauma?. difficulty with balance and coordination. seizures. hearing loss.

Which type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) involves a skull fracture and may be caused by a penetrating object, gunshot wound, or severe impact?. Closed head injury. Open head injury. Microtrauma.

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of microtrauma?. Mood changes. Difficulty with balance and coordination. Sudden paralysis.

Which of the following is/are primary lesions in Traumatic Brain Injury?. Edema. Contusion. Ischemic Hypoxia.

What is a secondary lesion that results from fluid accumulation?. Coma. Hemorrhage. Edema.

chose the true. Hygromas is an accumulation of blood between the brain and the skull, often resulting from a tear in the dura mater, the tough outer membrane covering the brain. Hygromas is an accumulation of fluid between the brain and the skull, often resulting from a tear in the pia mater, the tough outer membrane covering the brain. Hygromas is an accumulation of fluid between the brain and the skull, often resulting from a tear in the dura mater, the tough outer membrane covering the brain.

chose the true. For primary lesions, the pathophysiological effects of impact can include hygromas, cranial fractures, and contusions. For primary lesions, the pathophysiological effects of impact can include hygromas, spinal fractures, and contusions. For primary lesions, the pathophysiological effects of impact can include hygromas, cranial fractures, and hematomas.

How would a patient with a score of 5 in the Glasgow Coma Scale be classified?. They would be thought of as having moderate brain injury or impairment. They would be classified as having mild brain injury or moderate impairment. They would be thought of as having severe brain injury, often associated with coma or deep unconsciousness.

Could a person having had loss of consciousness for 1h be classified as having mild concussion syndrome?. No, they would be classified as classical. No, the loss of consciousness has to be less than 20 minutes long. No, the loss of consciousness for 1h would not have a classification.

A coma is best defined as: A deep sleep from which a person can be easily awakened. A state of profound unconsciousness from which a person cannot be aroused. A temporary lapse of awareness. A state of altered consciousness with hallucinations.

Which of the following brain structures is critical for maintaining consciousness?. Cerebellum. Hippocampus. Reticular activating system (RAS). Occipital lobe.

How does Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS) differ from traditional MRI?. It provides anatomical images rather than metabolic information. It measures the concentration of metabolites in brain tissue. It requires the injection of contrast agents to visualize structures.

Which of the following conditions is the dichotic listening test most useful for assessing?. Dyslexia and language processing disorders. Color blindness. Motion sickness.

In a dichotic listening test, how would a split-brain patient most likely perform?. They would correctly report the word presented to the right ear, because it connects to the left hemisphere, which controls language. They would hear and report words from both ears equally. They would be unable to report any words, as the severed corpus callosum prevents all auditory communication.

What does the dichotic listening test show about how the brain processes language?. Both ears process speech equally, proving that language is not controlled by one side of the brain. Most right-handed people hear words better in their right ear, which shows that the left hemisphere is dominant for language. The left ear is always better at understanding language, no matter which hand is dominant.

Common causes of coma include: Head trauma, stroke, and metabolic disorders. Muscle spasms and joint pain. Skin rashes and allergies. Minor digestive upsets.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses: Blood pressure and heart rate. Eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. Body temperature and respiratory rate. Muscle strength and reflexes.

What is a key difference between a coma and a vegetative state?. A coma involves sleep-wake cycles, while a vegetative state does not. A vegetative state involves sleep-wake cycles, while a coma does not. A coma involves purposeful movements, while a vegetative state does not. There is no difference between a coma and a vegetative state.

Which medical scale can show us a loss of consciousness (coma) in the patient?. Glasgow Coma Scale. WAIS-IV. WADA test.

For knowing the total score in Glasgow Coma Scale, we need: Only knowing motor response of the patient. Only knowing eye opening response of the patient. Knowing the response of the patient in eye, verbal and motor response.

What is one of the primary purposes of early intervention in the rehabilitation of patients with traumatic brain injury (TBI)?. To maximize the duration of rehabilitation therapy. To help minimize secondary injury and promote healing. To increase the complexity of rehabilitation strategies.

Which of the following professionals is NOT typically part of the multidisciplinary team involved in managing head trauma?. Neurologists. Rehabilitation Therapists. Pharmacists.