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An IFR pilot may accept a visual approach clearance, provided?. They operate in VMC. They have ATC authorization. The reported ground vis is at least 3 SM. All of the above.

Which of the following is incorrect about visual approaches?. A visual approach is not an instrument approach procedure and therefore has no missed approach segment. If a go-around is nescessary at a controlled airport, the aircraft will not be issued instructions or advisories from ATC. While conducting visual approaches at uncontrolled airports, you must maintain seperation from VFR traffic which may be unknown to ATC. You must provide your own wake turbulence separation.

"NO PT" means?. No procedure turn is required from the point indicated. No procedure turn is required if you are within 25 NM of the FAF. No procedure turn is required if you are at MSA. None of the above.

True or False: If the minimum altitude inbound to the FAF is not readily apparent, the "NO PT" abbreviation may be shown betweenthe fix and FAF, along with an altitude applicable for this segment?. True. False.

At DH on a precision approach, you must?. Have the required visual reference in site, otherwise you can not land. Have full flaps. Have checklists completed. None of the above.

Maximum speed while climbing in a jet during a hold is?. 310 knots. 275 knots. 250 knots. 200 knots.

True or False: When using a TAF to choose an alternate, the PROB condition shall not be below the alternate aerodrome weather minimums?. True. False.

In the the general approach ban, approaches are governed by?. RVR values only. Visibility. RVR and visibility. Ceilings.

A pilot may be excempt from the approach ban if?. The pilot has received the below minima report after passing the FAF. The aircraft is a training flight. The RVR is fluctuating above and below the minimum. All of the above.

The aircraft altimeter?. Will only only read correct altitude under ISA. When the temperature is higher than standard, true altitude will be higher, when the temperature is lower than standard, true altitude will be lower. In extreme cold pilots must add values derived from the altitude correction chart, to procedure altitudes. All of the above.

Radar vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC?. Are temperature compensated. Must be temperature compensated. Should be refused during cold weather. None of the above.

When altitude corrections are applied to FAF crossing, procedure turn, and missed approach altitudes?. ATC should be notified. The PIC should be notified. FSS should be notified. Nothing is required.

In order to take credit for a GNSS based approach at the alternate?. The destination aerodrome must be served by traditional aids or must be at least 100NM from the alternate. RAIM must be planned to be available at the alternate ETA. No credit can be taken for LPV minima. All of the above.

Standard alternate minima is?. 600-2 and 800-2. 800-1 and 1000-1. 700-1 1/2 and 900-1 1/2. None of the above.

True or False: If the selected weather requirements for an alternate aerodrome is 600-2 then 700-1 1/2, and 800-1 also meets the requirements?. True. False.

True or False: Aerodromes with advisory forecasts may qualify as an alternate, provided forecast ceiling is not less than 500' above the lowest usable HAA/HAT, and visibility is not less than 3 mi.?. True. False.

True or False: Aerodromes served with a GFA may qualify as an alternate provided there is no cloud forecast below 1,000' above the lowest usable HAT/HAA, no C/B's, and 3 sm?. True. False.

How many different groups of instrument ratings are there?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Which group of instrument rating would be for multi engine aircraft with center line thrust?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Which of the following privileges does the holder of a Group 3 instrument rating NOT have?. The privilege to fly a single engine aircraft VFR-OTT. The privilege to fly a single engine aircraft under instrument conditions. The privilege to fly a multi engine aircraft with center line thrust in instrument conditions. None of the above.

What is the minimum pass mark for the INRAT exam?. 50%. 90%. 70%. 75%.

What is the minimum cross country PIC time that you must have in order to obtain an instrument rating?. 25 hours. 50 hours. 80 hours. 40 hours.

In order to write the INRAT exam, who must provide you with a recommendation letter?. A recommendation is not required. Any flight instructor. The flight instructor that completed your ground training. A Transport Canada inspector.

Which of the following must you complete prior to obtaining an instrument rating?. 50 NM dual cross country. 55 hours of dual instrument time. A minimum 100 NM dual cross country. None of the above.

How many months are you able to exercise the privileges of a instrument rating before completing one of the requirements to maintain proficiency?. 18 months. 24 months. 12 months. 6 months.

In order to keep your instrument rating current, which of the following must be completed after 12 months from your initial flight test?. 6 hours of instrument flight, 6 instrument approaches every 6 months. 6 Instrument approaches. 6 hours of instrument flight, 6 appraoches every 12 months. 6 hours of instrument flight every 6 months.

A Instrument Proficiency Check is designed. to ensure less pilots fly in instrument conditions. to ensure you are able to fly a instrument approach in all weather conditions. to confirm the pilot-in-command is able to pass a instrument rating flight test any time or day. to confirm retention of a level of proficiency that meets the standards of performance required for an Instrument Rating.

No person shall operate an aircraft within _____ hours of consuming an alcoholic beverage?. 24hrs. 8hrs. 48hrs. 12hrs.

When is fueling of an aircraft permitted with passengers on board?. It is not permitted. It is only permitted if the crew and fuellers follow the procedures in section 604.84(1) of the CARs. Only when passengers are inside the aircraft. Only if it is an emergency medical transfer and the patient(s) cannot leave the aircraft.

What is the minimum altitude that you may operate an aircraft (airplane) over a built up area without special permission?. 5,000' above ground. 2,000' above the highest obstacle within 1,000' horizontally. 2,000' above the highest obstacle within 2,000' horizontally. 1,000' above the highest obstacle within 2,000' horizontally.

When overtaking an aircraft, which way should you alter your heading in order to pass, and which aircraft has the right of way?. You should alter heading to the right because the aircraft being overtaken has the right of way. You should alter heading to the left because the aircraft being overtaken has the right of way. You should alter heading to the right because you have the right of way. You should alter heading to the left because you have the right of way.

When is it permitted to dump fuel from an aircraft in flight?. Never. Only when it is necessary to do so for safety reasons. Only when there is a fire. Whenever you have too much fuel for landing.

If you are given a taxi and hold short clearance, should you read it back?. Only if it is busy at the airport. Only when ATC instructs you to read it back. No, you do not have to read it back. Yes, it must always be read back.

If you are given an instruction by ATC on an IFR flight, what are you required to do?. You must acknowledge it. You must read it back. You can either click the mic or reply with the aircraft call sign. None of the above.

What is the maximum airspeed you are permitted to fly at in IMC conditions below 10,000' ASL (without permission from ATC)?. 200 knots TAS. 250 knots TAS. 200 knots IAS. 250 knots IAS.

When departing from an aerodrome in the altimeter setting region and climbing to a final altitude of FL220, when should you set your altimeter to 29.92"?. Immediatly after passing through 18,000'. Just prior to passing through 18,000'. Right after take-off. You would not reset the altimeter for this flight.

When descending out of the standard pressure region for the purpose of landing, when should you reset your altimeter to the current altimeter of the nearest airport?. After passing through 18,000'. Just prior to passing through 18,000'. Just prior to landing. Just prior to starting the descent.

Canadian domestic airspace is divided into . . . . . classes. 6. 7. 5. 8.

Class A airspace in the Southern Control Area extends from an altitude of. 24,000 ft to 60,000 ft. 18,000 ft to 60,000 ft. 23,000 ft to 60,000 ft. 27,000 ft to 60,000 ft.

All pilots flying in class A airspace must have. a commercial pilot license. high altitude training. an instrument rating. an airline transport pilot license.

The classes of airspace that require a transponder are class. A, B, C, D, and F. A, and B. A, B, C, and D. A, B, and C.

Low level airways start at an altitude of. 2,000 ft ASL. 2,200 ft ASL. 2,000 ft AGL. 2,200 ft AGL.

Will ATC clear an IFR aircraft through class F airspace?. No, unless the pilot has obtained permission from the user. Yes, if the pilot is conducting a visual approach. Yes, if the pilot is conducting a contact approach. All of the above are correct.

No person shall operate an IFR aircraft in class A, B, C, D or E airspace unless the aircraft is operated in accordance with. an ATC clearance. an altitude reservation. a transponder. an encoding altimeter.

IFR flights in controlled airspace will be cleared through class F advisory airspace. True. False.

Prior to operation in class G airspace an IFR aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance. True. False.

The basic LF/MF airway width is. 4.34 NM each side out to 49.66 NM. 4.0 NM each side out to 49.66 NM. 8.68 NM each side out to 49.66 NM. 4.34 NM each side out to 50.8 NM.

A Flight Service Station offers which of the following services to pilots?. En Route Information Service. NOTAM Service. PIREPs. All of the above.

A low level airway based on a VOR and NDB station has a lateral protected airspace of. 4 NM from airway centerline up to 49.66 NM from either station. 5° on either side of the airway. 4.5° on either side of the airway. 8.0° on either side of the airway.

A low level airway based on two NDB stations has a lateral protected airspace of. 4.34 NM from airway centerline up to 49.66 NM from either station. 4.5° on either side of the airway. 4.34 NM from airway centerline up to 50.8 NM from either station. 10.0° on either side of the airway.

A low level airway based on two VOR stations has a lateral protected airspace of. 4.34 NM from airway centerline up to 50.8 NM from either station. 4 NM from each side centerline out to 50.80 NM, thereafter 4.5° on either side of the airway. 4.5° on either side of the airway. 4 NM from each side centerline out to 49.66 NM, thereafter 4.5° on either side of the airway.

An Area Control Center (ACC) provides pilots with. en route IFR traffic and VFR flight following services. ground taxi instructions. arriving IFR aircraft operations. flight planning and weather briefing services.

ATC provides a vertical separation for IFR traffic not on radar below FL290 of. 1,000 ft. 2,000 ft. 500 ft. 1,500 ft.

The airspace to be protected along Off-Airway tracks beyond navigational and signal coverage range is. 45 NM on either side of the track. 24 NM on either side of the track. 60 NM on either side of the track. 15 NM on either side of the track.

The lowest usable flight level for an aircraft in the standard pressure region when the altimeter setting is 28.62 in. Hg is. FL200. FL210. FL190. FL180.

When a track changes direction by more than . . . . . overhead navigation aids while flying at or above . . . . . extra airspace will be protected for the turn. 15°; FL180. 15°; FL230. 25°; FL180. 25°; FL230.

When an IFR clearance is accepted by the pilot. it must be complied with at all times. it must be complied with even if safety is in jeopardy. the pilot must read back the entire clearance unless the clearance is for an unmodified SID. in class E, it can be deviated from without ATC notification. The pilot must broadcast intentions first.

IFR separation takes place in. three dimensions: Lateral, Longitudinal, and Vertical. two dimensions: Lateral and Longitudinal. three dimensions: Horizontal, Longitudinal, and Vertical. one dimension: Lateral.

With radar ATC within 40 miles can provide a minimum of. 3 miles separation between IFR aircraft. 5 miles separation between IFR aircraft. 2 miles separation between IFR aircraft. 7 miles separation between IFR aircraft.

Radar permits the expansion of flight information services. True. False.

A pilot complying with a speed adjustment is expected to maintain the assigned speed within. +/- 10 KIAS for all aircraft. +/- 10 KIAS for turbo-prop aircraft. +/- 0.01 MACH for turbo-jet aircraft. +/- 5 KIAS for turbo-prop aircraft.

Aircraft speed adjustments are based on. True Airspeed (TAS). Equivalent Airspeed (EAS). Calibrated Airspeed (CAS). Indicated Airspeed (IAS).

Usually issuance of an approach clearance. cancels the speed adjustment. doesn't cancel the speed adjustment unless ATC specifically states so. cancels the speed adjustment after arrival over the FAF. cancels the speed adjustment upon intercepting the inbound track.

Speed adjustments will be expressed in units of. 10 KIAS and multiples of 10 based on IAS. 5 KIAS. 10 KTAS and multiples of 10 based on TAS. 10 KCAS and multiples of 10 based on CAS.

While being radar vectored in icing conditions ATC instructs you to maintain 170 KIAS. The aeroplanes minimum icing speed is 175 KIAS, you must. maintain assigned speed of 170 KIAS. maintain minimum icing speed of 175 KIAS. notify ATC that assigned speed is unsafe. notify dispatch.

When radar is available to an air traffic controller then. beyond 40 miles, as low as 5 miles of separation may be utilized between IFR aircraft. within 40 miles, as low as 5 miles of separation may be utilized between IFR aircraft. beyond 40 miles, as low as 5 miles of separation may be utilized between VFR aircraft. within 40 miles, as low as 3 miles of separation may be utilized between VFR aircraft.

The dimensions of protected airspace for a particular track do not take into account the accuracy of navigation that can reasonably expected. True. False.

Which of the following is always required when filing an IFR flight plan?. Two usable alternate aerodromes. A usable alternate aerodrome unless otherwise authorized in the AOC. A list of all passenger on the flight. Must be filed no later than 6 hours before the ETD.

An alternate airport must be indicated on an IFR Flight Plan or Itinerary when?. The weather at the destination is forecast to be below minimums. No precision approach exists at the destination. The pilot elects for the additional safety of planning an alternate aerodrome. At all times unless authorized by an operations certificate.

The alternate airport weather minima are based on the aerodrome having what kind of weather planning product?. TAF. METAR. GFA. PIREP.

The alternate weather minima requirements suitable for an airport that has two NDB approaches available are?. 800-2 or 300-1 above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater. 400-1 or 200-1/2 above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater. 600-2 or 300-1 above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater. 400-1 or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater.

Standard Alternate Minima implies the following?. If ceiling is sufficient a reduction in visibility requirements may be authorized. If visibility is sufficient a reduction in ceiling requirements may be authorized. If the ceiling is forecasted to be twice as high as the minimums then a reduction in visibility requirements may be authorized. If the visibility is forecasted to be twice as high as the advisory value a reduction in ceiling may be authorized.

An airport served by only a GFA forecast may?. Not be filed as an alternate aerodrome. Not be filed as a destination aerodrome. Be filed as an alternate provided forecasted weather meets certain requirements. Be filed as a destination provided forecasted weather meets certain requirements.

The requirements to file an alternate served by a GFA are?. No cloud below 1,000' above the HAT/HAA. No cumulonimbus. Visibility at least 3 statute miles. All of the above.

Your alternate destination has one localizer approach available with an MDA of 521' AGL. The lowest acceptable forecasted ceiling is?. 900' AGL. 800' AGL. 821' AGL. 521' AGL.

Which statement is false regarding the term 'BECMG' in a TAF with regard to IFR Alternate planning?. When conditions are forecast to improve, the BECMG condition is valid at the end of the BECMG time period. When conditions are forecast to deteriorate, the BECMG condition is valid at the start of the BECMG time period. When conditions are forecast to improve, the BECMG condition is valid at the start of the BECMG time period. The BECMG condition shall not be below the altrnate minima for the alternate aerodrome.

Regarding the term 'PROB' as part of a TAF for an alternate weather minima calculation?. The forecast condition must not be below the alternate minima. The forecast condition must not be below the alternate minima for the specified time period. The forecast condition must not be below landing minima. When conditions are forecast to improve, the PROB condition is valid at the start of the PROB time period.

The departure procedures found on an aerodrome chart assume the following climb performance?. Crossing at least 35' above the end of the runway; climb straight ahead to 400'; maintain climb gradient of 200' per NM. Crossing at least 35' above the end of the runway; climb straight ahead to 200'; maintain climb gradient of 400' per NM. Crossing at least 50' above the end of the runway; climb straight ahead to 300'; maintain climb gradient of 200' per NM. Crossing at least 50' above the end of the runway; climb straight ahead to 400'; maintain climb gradient of 300' per NM.

Takeoff minima specifies that takeoff for all aircraft is governed by?. Visibility only. Visibility and ceiling. Ceiling only. Ceiling or visibility.

A decent below the MDA or DH can only be made when?. When flight is within 5° of track. Following a precision approach. The required visual reference has been established. All of the above.

True or False: Climb gradients of greater than 200' NM after departure will not be published?. True. False.

Pilots that are radar identified by ATC?. Need not make position reports unless requested by ATC. Must make position reports over all compulsory reporting points. Must make position reports over all compulsory, and non-compulsory reporting points unless ATC instructs otherwise. Must conduct position reporting unless ATC says otherwise.

When should an IFR pilot call clearance delivery?. Before calling ground for taxi authorization. After receiving taxi instructions. As soon as ready to takeoff. Any time after an IFR flight plan has been filed.

How should an arriving IFR flight report that intends on conducting an instrument approach at an uncontrolled aerodrome?. 5 mins prior to commencing the procedure, passing the FAF if a PT is expected or on interception of the FAC, passing the FAF on final or 3 mins before landing, in the event of a missed approach. 5 miles prior to commencing the approach; commencing the approach; intercepting final; missed approach. 5 mins prior to landing in the case of no final approach fix. 5 miles prior to commencing; procedure turn or final approach course; final approach fix; final; missed approach.

Consider an aircraft on an IFR approach into an uncontrolled aerodrome: The ceiling is 1,500' AGL and there are VFR aircrafts in the circuit. If VFR aircrafts are operating on RWY 27 and you are approaching for 09, which aircraft has the right of way?. IFR traffic has the right of way for the straight in approch on 09. VFR traffic has the right of way and the IFR arrival should conform to the established circuit once visual. Both aircrafts should continue and land on their desired runway. Neither aircraft has right of way.

While operating at a controlled airport which of the following statements are correct?. Frequency changes are at the pilot's discretion. A listening watch should be made on the published tower frequency at all times. After initial contact, the pilot will be advised if any frequency changes are required. Pilot's shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate ground control frequency while under the control of the tower.

Radio equipped aircraft operating in an MF area within an uncontrolled airport should?. Monitor 126.7. Monitor the common designated frequency. Monitor 121.5. Monitor 121.5 and 126.7.

If a radio check is required, whenever possible, should be requested on?. ATC frequencies. Tower frequency. Ground frequency. Clearance delivery frequency.

Normally the establishment of radio contact with an agency is sufficient to confirm that the radios are functioning properly. True. False.

Pilots operating under IFR at an uncontrolled airport: Do not establish priority over VFR aircraft. Establish priority over VFR aircraft. Establish priority over VFR aircraft if instructed as such by ATC. Establish priority over VFR aircraft if instructed as such by FSS.

After establishing initial contact with a control tower: Pilots will be advised of any frequency changes required. Pilots will not be advised of any frequency changes required. Pilots will be advised of frequency changes to arrival control when required. Pilots will be advised of frequency changes to departure control when required.

Inbound IFR aircraft to uncontrolled aerodromes, shall report: Passing the FAF during final approach or 3 mins prior to landing. Passing the IAF during final approach or 3 mins prior to landing. Passing the FAF during final approach or 5 mins prior to landing. Passing the IAF during final approach or 5 mins prior to landing.

When flying in the Northern Domestic Airspace, if your desired track was 0 degrees north (magnetic) and you had 5 degrees of easterly variation - which of the following would be valid cruising altitudes for IFR (assume obstacle clearance is not a factor)?. 5,000' ASL. 6,000' ASL. 5,500' ASL. 6,500' ASL.

The Northern Control Area is between?. FL230 to FL600 and occupies the same area as the Northern Domestic Airspace. FL230 to FL600 and occupies a smaller area than the Northern Domestic Airspace. FL270 to FL600 and occupies the same area as the Northern Domestic Airspace. FL270 to FL600 and occupies a smaller area than the Northern Domestic Airspace.

If ATC does not assign a transponder code, when entering high level airspace you should squawk?. 1000. 2000. 1400. 1200.

A Class E airway begins at what height above sea level?. 1200. 2200. 1500. None of the above.

A VHF / UHF airway is defined as a protected Class E area in which to fly, that is, how many miles wide total?. 4 NM. 8 NM. 4.34 NM. 8.68 NM.

What is the splay width from centerline of an NDB airway in degrees?. 4.5º. 5.0º. 9.0º. 10.0º.

What class of airspace is an air route above 2,200' AGL considered to be?. Class G. Class E. Class F. Class A.

Control zones are usually capped at what height above ground level (AGL)?. 2,500'. 3,000'. 4,000'. 4,500'.

An IFR aircraft flying at 16,000' ASL would be expected to squawk _____ unless otherwise assigned by ATC?. 1000. 2000. 1200. 1400.

When flying in the altimeter setting region, your altimeter should be set to 29.92''?. After climbing through 18,000' ASL. Before climbing through 18,000' ASL. Immediately after takeoff. Immediately prior to reaching the flight level at which cruising is to be conducted.

What shall a pilot set on the altimeter when taking off from an airport in the standard pressure region?. 29.92'' should be set on the altimeter prior to takeoff. The elevation of that aerodrome should be set on the altimeter prior to takeoff. The current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or the elevation of that aerodrome if altimeter setting is unavailable. None of the above.

When descending or landing in the standard pressure region with the intention of holding, a pilot should set the altimeter to the aerodrome of intended landing?. Prior to commencing a descent for the hold. Immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted. Prior to descending through FL180. After descending through FL180.

IFR obstacle clearance requirements in Mountainous Regions 1 and 5 are?. At least 2,000' above the highest obstacle within 5 NM. At least 1,500' above the highest obstacle within 5 NM. At least 1,000' above the highest obstacle within 5 NM. At least 500' above the highest obstacle within 5 NM.

With respect to IFR flight in Class F Special Use Restricted airspace or Class F Special Use Advisory airspace, which of the following is true?. There are no restrictions to IFR aircraft. Must have clearance from ATC. The PIC must obtain authorization from the person specified for that purpose in the Designated Airspace Handbook. Only VFR is restricted.

With respect to IFR flight in Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace, which of the following is true?. Aircraft must be operated in accordance with an air traffic control clearance or an authorization from the Minister. The PIC must obtain authorization from the person specified for that purpose in the Designated Airspace Handbook. The PIC need not obtain permission. VFR is not permitted.

With respect to compliance with air traffic control clearances and instructions, which of the following is true?. The PIC shall comply with and acknowledge, to the appropriate air traffic control unit, all of the air traffic control instructions received and directed to the PIC provided safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized. The PIC shall acknowledge all instructions by clicking the push to talk button. The PIC should exercise due diligence when receiving control instructions, and need not formally acknowledge the instruction. The PIC shall comply with and acknowledge, to the appropriate air traffic control unit, all of the air traffic control instructions received and directed to the PIC.

Below 10,000' ASL no person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than. 250 kts. 200 kts. 230 kts. 150 kts.

No person shall operate an aircraft below an altitude of 3,000' AGL and within 10 nm of a controlled aerodrome at an indicated airspeed of more than?. 250 kts, unless authorized otherwise. 200 kts, unless authorized otherwise. 175 kts, except for departing aircraft. 210 kts, except for departing aircraft.

While transitioning into the Standard Pressure Region from the Altimeter Setting Region all crew members who occupy a flight crew member position equipped with a sensitive altimeter shall?. Set the current altimeter setting immediately before entering the standard pressure region. Set the current altimeter setting immediately after entering the standard pressure region. Set the altimeter sub-scale to 29.92" immediately after entering the standard pressure region. Set the altimeter sub-scale to 29.92" immediately before entering the standard pressure region.

When a holding procedure is being conducted, in the standard pressure region, all flight crew members who occupy a flight crew member position that is equipped with a sensitive pressure altimeter shall?. Immediately after descending below the lowest usable flight level, set their altimeters to the current altimeter setting of the destination aerodrome. Immediately prior to commencing descent below the lowest usable flight level, set their altimeters to the current altimeter setting of the destination aerodrome. Immediately prior to commencing descent below the lowest usable flight altitude, set the altimeter to the altimeter setting of the alternate aerodrome specified in the flight plan. None of the above.

With respect to IFR flight planning procedures, which of the following is true?. An IFR flight plan is required to be filed only when a flight is expected to be conducted within whole or part outside of controlled airspace. An IFR flight itinerary must be filed before conducting an IFR flight. An IFR flight itinerary may be filed in the place of an IFR flight plan where facilities are inadequate to permit the communication of an IFR flight plan to an air traffic control unit, FSS, or community aerodrome radio station. An IFR flight itinerary is required for transborder IFR flights.

No pilot may list an alternate aerodrome unless at the time of arrival?. The ceiling and ground visibility are forecasted to be better than or equal to required alternate minima. The ceiling is forecasted to be better than or equal to required alternate minima. The visibility is forecasted to be better than or equal to required alternate minima. The ceiling and ground visibility are forecasted to be better than or equal to required landing minima.

An IFR flight plan or itinerary must be filed, and must include an alternate aerodrome unless?. Authorized in the AOC. Authorized in the COM. Authorized by the Chief Pilot. Authorized by Dispatch.

A pilot conducting an IFR flight who has intentions to land at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report his intentions regarding the operation of the aircraft?. 0 minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing, when conducting a circling maneuver, and as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure. 20 minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing, when conducting a circling maneuver, and as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure. 3 minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing, when conducting a circling maneuver, and as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure. 5 minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing, when conducting a circling maneuver, and as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure.

A pilot who intends to conduct an instrument approach at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall do the steps in Question 11, and?. Shall report when outbound, where the pilot intends to conduct a procedure turn or, if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft intercepts the final approach course and when passing the final approach fix. Shall report 20 mins prior to conducting the approach. Shall report when intercepting the final approach course. Shall report 10 mins prior to conducting the approach.

With respect to flights conducted in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC), which of the following is true?. All flights conducted in IMC must be done so in accordance with visual flight rules. All flights conducted in IMC, while in controlled airspace, must be done so in accordance with an air traffic control clearance. A flight plan must be filed at least 2 hours before departure. All flights conducted in IMC, while in uncontrolled airspace, must be done so in accordance with an air traffic control clearance.

With respect to aircraft operating in accordance with an IFR flight plan, which of the following is true?. An alternate airport is not required. The PIC shall specify in the flight plan an alternate aerodrome having a landing area suitable for use by that aircraft. Must be closed within 2 hours of landing. Must be closed within 1 hours of landing.

Alternate aerodrome weather minima are based on the aerodrome having a?. TAF. METAR. Control Tower. GFA.

The appropriate cruising altitude or cruising flight level is determined in accordance with the?. True track, in the Southern Domestic Airspace, and magnetic track in the Northern Domestic Airspace. Magnetic track in the Southern Domestic Airspace, and true track in the Northern Domestic Airspace. Magnetic heading, in the Southern Domestic Airspace, and true heading in the Northern Domestic Airspace. Magnetic track in the SCA, and true track in the NCA.

With respect to aircraft operating on an IFR clearance, in VFR conditions, which of the following is true?. IFR aircraft are provided with separation from IFR and VFR traffic in uncontrolled airspace. IFR aircraft are not required to provide separation from VFR traffic, while in uncontrolled airspace. IFR aircraft are provided with separation from other IFR traffic in controlled airspace only. IFR aircraft are provided with separation from other IFR traffic in controlled, and uncontrolled airspace only.

An aerodrome not serviced by a TAF may qualify as an alternate with a GFA being used as a forecast provided?. No cloud is forecasted to exist below 1,000' above the HAT/HAA. No cloud is forecasted to exist below 2,000' above the HAT/HAA. No cloud is forecasted to exist below 1,500' above the HAT/HAA. No cloud is forecasted to exist below 500' above the HAT/HAA.

With respect to alternate aerodrome forecast requirements, the "TEMPO" condition?. Shall not be below the published alternate minima for the aerodrome. Shall not be below the published landing minima for the aerodrome. Shall not be below the published circling minima for the aerodrome. Shall not be below the published SPEC VIS for the aerodrome.

With respect to actions to be taken in the event of navigation equipment failure, while in controlled airspace, which of the following is true?. The PIC need only notify ATC of the failure if the failure will adversely affect the navigation of the flight. The PIC must notify ATC immediately. The PIC must notify the passengers of the failed equipment. The PIC must notify Dispatch immediately.

A Group 2 instrument rating is required by a pilot in order to exercise IFR privileges in a?. Multi engine centreline thrust aeroplane. Helicopter. Single engine aeroplane. Multi engine aeroplane.

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicate that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will?. Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile. Be at least 300 feet and 2 miles. Be at least 500' above a minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing. Be at least 500' above a minimum IFR altitude that will permit a IFR circling approach and landing.

An instrument rating is valid for?. 24 months commencing from the first day of the first month following the flight test date. 1 year to the end of the month. 2 years from the day of the flight test. 6 months.

Class G airspace is that airspace wherein?. The minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles. ATC controls only IFR flights. ATC does not control air traffic. The minimum visibility for VFR flight is 2 statute miles.

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she?. Receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff. Calls prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway. Receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace. Receives clearance from ATC before entering an air-route.

RVR "A" is located adjacent to the runway threshold?. True. False.

What alternate weather minima is required for an airport that has a single precision approach procedure?. 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. 800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. 300' and 1 above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility whichever is greater. 200 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility.

What alternate weather minima must be forecast, for your ETA, at an airport that has two or more precision approach procedures?. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM. 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA. 400 foot ceiling and 1 SM. 900' and 1/2SM.

You are unable to reach ATC, and suspect two way radio communication failure and have received clearance to enter controlled airspace, you must?. Maintain a listening watch on 121.5 MHz. Select transponder to code 7500 and then 7700. Squawk 7600. Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency for control messages from ATC and squawk 7500.

Upon recognition of a communication failure the pilot shall continue the flight as follows?. Fly last assigned route, or expected clearance from ATC, then flight planned route. Fly last assigned route, or expected clearance from ATC. Maintain first assigned altitude or expected clearance from ATC. Descend for approach from en route altitude at the flight planned ETA in place of updated ETA or EFC or EAT given by ATC.

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be?. Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart. Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected. Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of "IFR Alternate Minimums.''. Whichever is greater.

IFR position reports, when required, shall include information in the sequence set out in the?. CFS. AIM. CARS. IMP.

In order to operate an aircraft, under IFR, a flight plan or flight itinerary must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to?. Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments. Entering IMC in any class of airspace. Entering controlled airspace. Entering Class A airspace.

In order to operate IFR below 18,000', a pilot must have completed an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to?. Entering controlled airspace. Takeoff. Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums. Flying in Canada.

What is the base of Class A airspace in the Southern Control Area?. 10,000 feet MSL. 18,000 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL. 12,500 feet MSL.

What is the base of Class E low-level airspace while tracking a published airway?. 2200' ASL. 700' ASL. 700' AGL. 2200' AGL.

What recent experience requirements must be obtained before you can act as PIC of an aeroplane under IFR after the first year of the instrument rating validity has lapsed?. A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months. A minimum of six instrument approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months. A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months. Any of the above.

What weather minima is required to be forcasted before an airport can be used as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 1 mile, respectively.

What weather minima must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has two usable ILS approaches, each available to separate suitable runways?. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility. 1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR. 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility. 400 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility.

Which category approach minima should be used by the aircraft that is flown on a straight in approach at 115 KIAS?. Category A. Category B. Category C. Category D.

In what class of airspace is an IFR clearance mandatory?. While operating in Class E airspace. While operating in Class D airspace. While operating in Class A airspace. All of the above.

Which is the upper limit for all Class A airspace?. FL600. FL450. FL180. FL230.

A pilot operating in the Northern Control Area, will encounter the Standard Pressure Region?. Everywhere. Above FL230. Above FL270. Above FL180.

When transiting from the altimeter setting region to the standard pressure region?. Each flight crew member, who occupies a station equipped with a sensitive pressure altimeter shall, immediately after entering the standard pressure region, set 29.92" on the altimeter sub-scale. Each flight crew member, who occupies a station equipped with a sensitive pressure altimeter shall, immediately prior to entering the standard pressure region, set 29.92" on the altimeter sub-scale. Each flight crew member, who occupies a station equipped with a sensitive pressure altimeter shall, immediately after entering the standard pressure region, set the current altimeter setting on the altimeter sub-scale. Each flight crew member, who occupies a station equipped with a sensitive pressure altimeter shall, immediately prior to entering the standard pressure region, set the current altimeter setting on the altimeter sub-scale.

The Canada Air Pilot contains aeronautical information for the conduct of?. IFR Flight. VFR Flight. 705 Flight. 704 Flight.

The CAP requires updating every?. 56 days. 26 days. 46 days. 90 days.

Runway numbers are provided in the procedure identification when?. When an approach can be made to straight-in minima. When an approach can be made to circling minima. When the approach intersects the runway extended centre-line at more than 30 degrees. When there's an abnormal descent gradient from the FAF to the MAP.

The term "Straight in Approach", used by ATC, indicates that?. The approach is conducted so that a procedure turn will not be performed. Final approach track intersects the runway at less than 30 degrees. A normal descent rate can be made from the FAF to the threshold. A normal descent rate can't be made from the FAF to the threshold.

When the final approach track intersects the extended runway centerline at less than a 30 degree angle?. Straight in minima is published. Straight in minima is not authorized. A straight in approach may not be conducted. Circling minima will be published.

When an abnormal descent rate is required from the FAF to the threshold?. Minima for straight in landing will not be published. Greater than 400 ft.NM will be required. Runway numbers will be omitted from the procedure identification. All of the above.

An approach procedure contains the term "NDB B" - what does this imply?. Circling minima is authorized. Two NDB's are required. Descent to straight in minima is authorized. This is a precision approach with an NDB as the FAF.

The touch down zone elevation (TDZE) is indicated?. Underneath the airport elevation near the bottom right hand corner of the approach plate. Underneath the location indicator box in the top right hand corner of the approach plate. Underneath the location indicator box in the top left hand corner of the approach plate. Underneath the procedure identification box in the top left hand corner of the approach plate.

With respect to the profile view of the approach plates which of the following statements is correct?. Procedure turn altitude is published here. GP angle is published here. MAP is indicated here. All of the above.

True or False: Pilot's must determine in advance that the approach and the missed approach can be accomplished with the equipment on board?. True. False.

NOTAMs will generally be issued at least ____ hours in advance?. 2. 5. 3. 6.

The format of a REPLACING NOTAM will be?. NOTAM [A, B, C, etc]. NOTAMN. NOTAMR. NOTAMC.

A NOTAM that includes the term "TIL APRX" signifies that?. After the time that follows APRX expires the NOTAM is no longer in effect. A replacing or cancelling NOTAM must be issued next. The condition specified in the NOTAM will be resolved by the APRX time specified (or sooner). The conditions specified in the NOTAM are only specified according to approximate measures.

NOTAMJ indicates?. A NOTAM that replaces NOTAMI. A Runway Surface Condition Report (RSC). A new NOTAM. A cancelling NOTAM.

What is the purpose of NOTAMs?. To increase communication. To annoy us. So we do not break the law. All of the above.

A NOTAM is a timely notice concerning the establishment, condition, or change of any?. Aeronautical facility. Aeronautical hazard. Aeronautical service. All of the above.

Which of the following would require the issuance of a NOTAM?. NBD will be undergoing maintenance. Control tower frequency change. Snow clearing operations. All of the above.

True or False: A local telecommunications company decides to build a new cell phone tower. This does not require the issuance of a NOTAM?. True. False.

NOTAMS are not usually issued more than___ hours in advance?. 5. 48. 24. 12.

The first four characters of the NOTAM text identify?. The aerodrome, facility, or obstruction being advertised. The aerodrome NOTAM file where continuity is maintained. The condition of the facility. The type of facility.

An aircraft for which a flight itinerary has been filed is considered to be overdue?. One hour after last reported ETA or as specified in itinerary. 24 hours after last reported ETA or as specified in itinerary. 12 hours after last reported ETA or as specified in itinerary. Immediately after specified search and rescue time specified on itinerary.

An IFR Flight Itinerary?. May not be filed for an IFR flight - must file an IFR flight plan instead. May be filed when the flight is conducted in part or in whole inside controlled airspace. may be filed when facilities are inadequate to file a flight plan. May not be filed with a responsible person.

A VFR aircraft may depart without a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary when?. The flight is conducted within 25 NM of the departure aerodrome. The aircraft is not shutdown at another aerodrome. The flight is conducted within 25 SM of the departure aerodrome. The flight is conducted within 50 NM of the departure aerodrome.

Which of the following changes in a flight plan or itinerary do not require the PIC to notify ATC or the responsible person?. The groundspeed changes by 5 per cent or more. The cruising altitude or FL. The route of flight. The Mach number change is .01 or more then that included in the ATC clearance.

The fuel requirement for IFR fixed wing prop aircraft is?. To fly to the destination (and execute a missed approach) and alternate plus an additional 45 minutes. To fly to the destination (and execute a missed approach) and alternate plus an additional 30 minutes. Enough fuel to fly to the destination plus an additional 45 minutes at normal cruising speed and then to an alternate destination. Pilots discretion only.

The fuel requirements for an IFR turbo-jet aircraft require enough fuel?. To fly to the destination (and execute a missed approach) and alternate plus an additional 30 minutes. To fly to the destination (and execute a missed approach) and alternate plus an additional 45 minutes. To fly to the destination and alternate plus an additional 30 minutes. To fly to the destination and alternate plus an additional 45 minutes.

For the purposes of flight planning and wake turbulence categories, a medium aircraft is considered to be?. More than 15,500 lbs but less than 300,000 lbs. More than 18,500 lbs but less than 150,000 lbs. More than 7,000 lbs but less than 136,000 lbs. More than 17,000 lbs but less than 300,000 lbs.

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?. The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach. The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach. The point of first intended landing. The clearance limit.

The fuel endurance on an IFR flight plan?. Should be indicated in hours and minutes including all reserves. Should be indicated in minutes and seconds including all reserves. Should be indicated in hours and minutes excluding 45 minute reserve. Should be indicated in hours and minutes excluding reserves.

No person shall operate an IFR aircraft between Canada and foreign state unless?. An IFR flight plan has been filed. An IFR flight itinerary has been filed. An IFR composite flight itinerary has been filed. An IFR composite flight plan has been filed.

The CFS is revised and reissued every _____ days?. 56. 43. 90. 31.

Which of the following features are depicted on enroute LO charts?. Navigation aids; controlled and uncontrolled airspace; restricted areas. Topographical data; navigation aids; controlled airspace only. Reporting points; all aerodromes; FSS information. Holds; Class E airspace; highways.

A LO chart covers from the surface up to but not including what altitude?. 18,000'. 25,000'. 45,000'. 60,000'.

The scale for a LO chart is?. Variable. 1:250,000. 1:500,000. 1:1,000,000.

En-route High Altitude charts are revised and reissued every?. 56 days. 30 days. 35 days. 90 days.

How many High Altitude charts are required for complete coverage of Canada?. 1. 4. 6. 8.

How many Terminal Area Charts are required for coverage of Canada's major airports?. 12. 6. 1. 3.

Which of the following publications would be most likely to contain noise abatement procedures?. CAP. LO Chart. HI Chart. TAC.

Which of the following publications would provide information on preferred IFR routings?. CFS. CAP. HI Chart. TAC.

Which of the following must be accounted for when doing fuel calculations?. Missed approach. Diversion to an alternate. ATC delays. All of the above.

Cruise indicated airspeed: 170 KIAS Altimeter Setting: 29.62'' Cruise fuel burn: 240 lbs/hr. Climb fuel burn: 350/lbs/hr. Approach and missed approach: 75lbs Upper winds: 320/15 @ 6000'ASL, -10 degrees C. Upper winds: 340/22 @ 9000'ASL, -15 degrees C. Cruise Altitude: 7000' Flight Plan: CYBR - CYQK Alternate: CYHD Routing: CYBR-V304-UDE-V304-YWG-G1-YQK How will you navigate V304 to UDE?. Follow R-066 From YBR till a distance of 47 NM from YBR, then towards UDE bearing of 071. Follow R-066 From YBR till passage of UDE. Follow R-066 From YBR till a distance of 65 NM from YBR. Follow R-066 From YBR till a distance of 47 NM from YBR, then towards UDE bearing of 251.

The symbol '30 ' indicated on the LO chart located to the south east of CYQK means?. Area Minimum Altitude, which provides 1000' clearance formerly known as GASA (Geographic Safe Altitude). Minimum Sector altitude. Minimum IFR altitude. Minimum safe altitude.

'CYR410' to the southeast of CYBR depicts which of the following?. Restricted Area that extends from the ground to FL280. Advisory airspace that extends from the ground to FL280. Military Operations Area that extends from the ground to FL180. Military Operations Area that extends from the ground to FL018.

What is the total distance from the Brandon VOR to Kenora on the route described?. 223 nm. 289 nm. 207mn. 240mn.

What is the lowest MEA and MOCA for this route?. MEA 3000'ASL - MOCA 2200'ASL between UDE and YWG. MEA 2200'ASL - MOCA 3000'ASL between UDE and YWG. MEA 3000'AGL - MOCA 2200'AGL between UDE and YWG. MEA 2200'AGL - MOCA 3000'AGL between UDE and YWG.

Cruise indicated airspeed: 170 KIAS Altimeter Setting: 29.62'' Cruise fuel burn: 240 lbs/hr. Climb fuel burn: 350/lbs/hr. Approach and missed approach: 75lbs Upper winds: 320/15 @ 6000'ASL, -10 degrees C. Upper winds: 340/22 @ 9000'ASL, -15 degrees C. Cruise Altitude: 7000' Flight Plan: CYBR - CYQK Alternate: CYHD Routing: CYBR-V304-UDE-V304-YWG-G1-YQK estimated time en-route from the Brandon VOR to the Kenora NDB would be closest to (assuming a flight planned altitude of 7000'ASL)?. 1:40. 1:09. 1:45. 1:20.

With an average ground speed of 190 knots, including the climb and cruise segments, and taking into account the minimum fuel requirements as per the CARs, the minimum amount of fuel required for the proposed flight is (assume 10 mins. at climb power, and 75 lbs for contingencies, 50 lbs for each approach and missed approach)? Plan for 2 approaches at your destination and 1 approach at your alternate. 780 lbs. 600 lbs. 720 lbs. 680 lbs.

At Brandon who would you receive the IFR clearance from?. Brandon Radio 122.1 MHz. Brandon Tower 122.1 MHz. Brandon Clearance Delivery 248.3 MHz. Brandon Ground Control 122.1 MHz.

What would be the applicable alternate weather minima for Dryden? Assume the NDB 29 is the only approach for which we are equipped. 600-2. 400-1. 800-2. 900-1/2.

After flying a missed approach at Kenora you proceed to your alternate Dryden. While enroute you discover the weather at Dryden to be 600' AGL and 1 1/2 SM visibility. What are our options?. You cannot proceed to Dryden because the weather is below alternate minimums. You may proceed to Dryden though you will not be authorized to approach if visibility remains below advisory value. Barring an Approach Ban, the PIC is free to attempt an approach at the alternate even if the latest reports indicate ceilings and visibilities are below both alternate and landing minimums (this may not be prudent, but it is none the less legal. You may proceed to Dryden though you will not be authorized to approach if visibility and ceiling remain below alternate requirements.

With respect to IFR flight planning procedures, which of the following is true?. An IFR flight itinerary must be filed before conducting an IFR flight. An IFR flight plan is required to be filed only when a flight is expected to be conducted within whole or part outside of controlled airspace. An IFR flight itinerary may be filed in the place of an IFR flight plan where facilities are inadequate to permit the communication of an IFR flight plan to an air traffic control unit, FSS, or community aerodrome radio station. An IFR flight itinerary is required for transborder IFR flights.

With respect to IFR flight plan closing procedures, which of the following is true?. A PIC operating on an IFR flight plan shall close the flight plan 30 minutes prior to reaching the destination aerodrome. A PIC operating on an IFR flight plan who terminates a flight at an aerodrome where there is an operating ATC unit or flight service station is not required to file an arrival report unless requested to do so by the appropriate ATC unit or FSS. A PIC who terminates an IFR flight at an aerodrome where there is an operating control tower or flight service station shall file an arrival report. A PIC operating on an IFR flight plan who terminates a flight at an aerodrome where there is an operating ATC unit or flight service station shall file an arrival report no later than 60 minutes after arrival.

With respect to IFR flight planning fuel requirements, which of the following is true?. A propeller driven aircraft must carry enough fuel to fly to and execute an approach and missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 mins. A propeller driven aircraft must carry enough fuel to fly to and execute an approach and missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of one hour. A propeller driven aircraft must carry enough fuel to fly to and execute an approach and missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 15 mins. A propeller driven aircraft must carry enough fuel to fly to and execute an approach and missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 mins. Correct Feedback.

An aircraft that is operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft?. In the case of a turbo-jet powered aeroplane to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then for a period of 30 mins. In the case of a turbo-jet powered aeroplane to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then for a period of 15 minutes. In the case of a turbo-jet powered aeroplane to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then for a period of 45 mins. In the case of a turbo-jet powered aeroplane to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then for a period of 1 hour.

Before a pilot can make changes in respect to the IFR flight plan shall?. Notify an ATC unit or responsible person of the intended change immediately. Notify an ATC unit or responsible person, as the case may be, of the intended change within 30 minutes. Notify an ATC unit or responsible person, as the case may be, of the intended change as soon as practicable. Notify an ATC unit or responsible person of the intended change within 10 minutes.

With respect to filing an IFR flight itinerary which of the following is true?. An IFR flight itinerary may be filed with an ATC unit. An IFR flight itinerary may be filed with a community aerodrome radio station. An IFR flight itinerary may be filed with a responsible person. All of the above.

During IFR flight planning we should utilize?. CFS. HI and LO Charts. Terminal Area Charts, and Canada Air Pilot. All of the above.

Vertical coverage of a LO Chart is?. From the surface to FL600. From 12,500' ASL - 17,999' ASL. From the surface to 12,500' ASL. From the surface to 17,999' ASL.

LO Charts are revised, and reissued every?. When enough changes are made to validate a reissue. 56 days. 28 days. 3 months.

Vertical coverage of HI Altitude Charts is from?. 2,500' ASL up to FL600. 18,000' ASL and above. From the surface to 17,999' ASL. 12,500' ASL and above.

Regarding the updating of IFR charts, which of the following is correct?. All charts may be updated by NOTAM. All charts may be updated by AIM. All charts may be updated by CFS. All charts may be updated by PIREP's.

When IFR within DMRs, but outside of areas for which minimum altitudes for IFR operations have been established including RVAs (radar vectoring altitudes), MOCAs, transition altitudes, 100 nm safe altitudes, MSAs and AMAs shall be flown at least_____above the highest obstacle within_____nm of the aircraft in flight when in areas 1 and 5?. 2,000'; 5. 1,500'; 10. 1,000'; 5. 1,500'; 5.

When IFR within DMRs, but outside of areas for which minimum altitudes for IFR operations have been established including RVAs (radar vectoring altitudes), MOCAs, transition altitudes, 100 nm safe altitudes, MSAs and AMAs shall be flown at least_____above the highest obstacle within_____nm of the aircraft in flight when in areas 2,3 and 4?. 2000', 5. 1000', 5. 2000', 10. 1500', 5.

Instrument pilots should be aware that when there is large variations of temperature or pressure, the aircraft should be flown at least____higher than the published minimums for the route of fligh?. 3,000'. 1,500'. 2,000'. 1,000'.

Except when taking off or landing, instrument pilots should?. Operate at not less than 1,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 10 nm of the aircraft. Operate at not less than 3,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 10 nm of the aircraft. Operate at not less than 2,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 5 nm of the aircraft. Operate at not less than 1,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 5 nm of the aircraft. Correct.

A pilot operating his aircraft at the MEA is guaranteed?. ATC radar coverage. Signal coverage only. Signal coverage, and obstacle clearance. Obstacle clearance only during standard atmospheric conditions prevail.

The minimum flight plan altitude altitude for IFR shall be?. Consistent with direction of flight. Above the MEA. Based on the magnetic track in the southern domestic airspace. All of the above.

True or False: Different MEAs may not be established for adjoining route segments of airways or air routes?. True. False.

Mountain waves in combination with extremely low temperatures may result in an altimeter over-reading by as much as?. 1,500'. 1,000'. 2,000'. 3,000'.

In the absence of a published visibility for a particular runway, a pilot may depart IFR with a visibility that will allow for avoidance of obstacles on departure and in no case less than _____ of visibility?. 1/2 nm. 1/4 sm. 1 sm. 1/2 sm.

Your prospective alternate airport's TAF contains the term "PROB" therefore?. The "PROB" condition shall not be below the PT altitude for that aerodrome. The "PROB" condition shall not be below the landing minima for that aerodrome. The "PROB" condition shall not be below the MSA for that aerodrome. The "PROB" condition shall not be below the alternate minima for that aerodrome.

Every aircraft on an IFR flight shall carry sufficient fuel to allow for?. Taxiing and foreseeable delays. Foreseeable air traffic routings. Traffic delays. All of the above.

If TAF has been downgraded to ADVISORY forecast, aerodrome may still qualify as an alternate, if?. Ceiling not lower than 500' above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility not less than 3 miles. Correct. Visibility not less than 3 miles. Ceiling not lower than 500' above the lowest usable HAT/HAA. None of the above.

The CFS is revised and reissued every _____ days?. 356 days. 45 days. 60 days. 56 days.

Outside designated mountainous regions the MOCA provides?. 2,000' obstruction clearance. 5,00' obstruction clearance. 1,500' obstruction clearance. 1,000' obstruction clearance.

IFR takeoffs in Canada are governed by?. Ceiling's, and prevailing visibility. Precipitation. Cloud ceiling only. Visibility only.

No pilot shall takeoff if the reported visibility is less than the minimum specified in the?. The Air Operator Certificate, and the CAP. The CAP only. The Air Operator Certificate only. None of the above.

During a radar departure controllers generally apply a separation of?. 4 miles for a heavy behind a heavy. 6 miles for a heavy behind a heavy. 4 miles for a light behind a heavy. 4 miles for a medium behind a heavy.

If radar separation is not available during departure, a minimum separation of?. 2 minutes is applied between any aircraft that takes off behind a known heavy aircraft. 3 minutes is applied between any aircraft that takes off behind a known heavy aircraft. 4 minutes is applied between any aircraft that takes off behind a known heavy aircraft. None of the above.

Regarding non-radar departure wake turbulence separation minima it is incorrect?. Controllers will apply a two minute separation interval to any aircraft that takes off into the wake of a known heavy aircraft if the aircraft takes off from the threshold of the same runway. The ultimate responsibility regarding wake turbulence rests with ATC. The ultimate responsibility regarding wake turbulence rests with the PIC. A three minute departure will be provided when the projected flight paths of any aircraft will cross the wake of a preceding heavy aircraft.

The takeoff minima is published?. In the bottom left side of the aerodrome chart. In the bottom right side of the aerodrome chart. In the top left side of the aerodrome chart. In the CFS.

"1/2'' Mile Takeoff Minima" is based on the premise that on departure the aircraft will?. Cross at least 35' above the departure end of the runway, make no turns below 400' AAE, maintain a climb gradient of 200' per. NM up to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Cross at least 35' above the departure end of the runway, make no turns below 400' AAE, maintain a climb gradient of 400' per. NM up to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Cross at least 400' above the departure end of the runway, and maintain a climb gradient of 200' per. NM up to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Cross at least 400' above the departure end of the runway, and maintain a climb gradient of 200' per. NM up to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations.

Climb gradients greater than____may be published?. 200' per NM. 400' per NM. 200' per min. 400' per min.

Unless otherwise stated the minimum takeoff visibility shall not be less than?. 1/2 sm. 1/2 nm. 1/4 sm. 1 nm.

An asterisk following all or specific runway indicates?. Refers the pilot to the applicable minimum takeoff visibility, and procedures which if followed will ensure obstacle and terrain clearance. The standard premise. An abnormal climb gradient is required. A visual climb is required using the SPEC vis.

True or False: Where a visual climb or maneuver is stated in the departure procedure, pilots are not expected to comply with the SPEC VIS corresponding to the appropriate category?. True. False.

Which of the following is not correct regarding the term "Not Assessed"?. IFR departure procedures have not been assessed. Pilot's are not responsible for ensuring obstacle and terrain avoidance. Pilot's are responsible for ensuring obstacle and terrain avoidance. The vis should not be less than 1/2 sm.

What would be the maximum climb gradient under the following conditions? Indicated climb speed: 150 KIAS. Wind: 5 knot headwind. Rate of climb: 1000. 600' per.NM. 500' per.NM. 400' per.NM. 100' per.NM.

If a light aircraft takes off into the wake of a known heavy aircraft, radar equipped controllers, will apply a separation interval of?. 6 mi. 3 mi. 5 mi. 2 mi.

An aircraft's climb speed is 130 KIAS. To conduct a visual climb departure the visibility would have to be at least (SPEC VIS)?. 1.5 SM. 5 SM. 2 SM. 2 NM.

What would be the maximum climb gradient under the following conditions? Climb speed: 140 KIAS. Wind: 15 knot headwind. Rate of climb: 600 fpm. 280' per.NM. 120' per.NM. 350' per.NM. 500' per.NM.

What would be the maximum climb gradient under the following conditions? Climb speed: 130 KIAS. Wind: 5 knot tailwind. Rate of climb: 500 fpm. 220' per.NM. 260' per.NM. 240' per.NM. 130' per.NM.

What would be the minimum climb rate needed for the following conditions? Climb speed: 150 KIAS. Wind: 10 knot headwind. Climb gradient: 400' per. NM. 950 fpm. 800 fpm. 850 fpm. 750 fpm.

What would be the minimum climb rate needed for the following conditions? Climb speed: 200 KIAS. Wind: 0 knot headwind. Climb gradient: 600' per.NM. 2050 fpm. 2150 fpm. 2000 fpm. 2300 fpm.

What would be the minimum climb rate needed for the following conditions? Climb speed: 90 KIAS. Wind: 20 knot headwind. Climb gradient: 550' per.NM. 642 fpm. 630 fpm. 540 fpm. 612 fpm.

What would be the minimum climb rate needed for the following conditions? Climb speed: 160 KIAS. Wind: 20 knot headwind. Climb gradient: 700' per.NM. 1633 fpm. 1510 fpm. 1400 fpm. 800 fpm.

If a climb gradient greater than 200' per.NM. is published the pilot is required?. Maintain the published gradient to the specified altitude or fix, then continue climbing at a minimum of 200' per.NM. until reaching a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Maintain the published gradient to the specified altitude or fix, then continue climbing at a minimum of 400' per.NM. until reaching a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Maintain the published gradient to the specified altitude or fix. Maintain the published gradient to the specified altitude or fix, then continue climbing at a minimum of 200' per.NM.

True or False: Takeoff minima is measured by RVR and reported ground visibility only?. True. False.

True or False: If neither the RVR, or reported ground visibility is available the PIC may use observed ground visibility?. True. False.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding a departure off RWY 34?. a. 1/2 sm. vis is required, and the aircraft must cross the departure end at no less than 35', make no turns below 400', and maintain a climb gradient of at least 200' per.NM. up to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. Correct. 1/2 sm. vis is required. 1/2 sm. vis is required, and the aircraft must cross the departure end at no less than 35', make no turns below 500', and maintain a climb gradient of at least 200' per.NM. up to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations. 1/2 sm. vis is required, and the aircraft must cross the departure end at no less than 35', make no turns below 400'.

When a visual climb is stated in the departure procedures pilots are expected to?. Comply with the SPEC VIS corresponding to the aircraft category. Climb visual using VFR weather minima. Use SVFR during the climb. None of the above are correct.

An airport that has the term "Not Assessed" stated in the departure minima section indicates that?. The PIC is responsible for ensuring obstacle and terrain clearance. The pilot must climb at 200' per.NM. The pilot must not make any turns below 400'. All of the above.

During a radar departure a separation of_____will be provided when a medium aircraft takes off into the wake of a known_____aircraft?. 5 mi; heavy. 6 mi; medium. 5 mi; light. Two minutes; heavy.

During radar service controllers provide wake turbulence separation minima when a preceding IFR/VFR aircraft and an aircraft vectored directly behind it at less than?. 1,000'. 2,000'. 1,500'. 500'.

Select the correct statement regarding non-radar departures?. ATC does not apply a two-minute separation when a light aircraft takes off into the wake of a medium aircraft but will issue an advisory. ATC does not apply a two-minute separation when a medium aircraft takes off into the wake of a heavy aircraft but will issue an advisory. ATC does not apply a two-minute separation when a heavy aircraft takes off into the wake of a heavy aircraft but will issue an advisory. None of the above.

A Pilot Navigation SID is one where?. The SID takes the pilot to the en route stage of the flight without ATC assistance. The SID gets the pilot started on a departure procedure until contact can be established with ATC. The SID contains any navigational information beyond maintaining runway heading for radar vectors. All SIDs are Pilot Navigation SIDs.

What should a pilot do if an aircraft cannot meet the required climb gradient indicated in the SID?. Refuse the SID and request radar vectors. Refuse the SID and adjust the load until the climb gradient can be met. Refuse the SID and refer to the Departure Procedures page or the Aerodrome Chart in the CAP for the airport in question. Depart VFR.

A climb gradient of 370 feet per NM is required for you SID. With a climb ground speed of 120 knots, this equates to a rate of climb of?. 350 fpm. 600 fpm. 650 fpm. 730 fpm.

What is a Vector SID?. ATC will provide radar vectors to a filed or assigned route, or to a specific fix. ATC will provide radar vectors until traffic separation is assured. A turn shortly after take-off required is indicated in the SID to gain traffic separation and altitude until radar vectors can begin. It is a unpublished SID used by ATC to increase departure flow efficiency.

What should a pilot do if he/she does not receive a climb clearance to the filed altitude within the time or distance indicated in the SID clearance?. Climb to the filed altitude when the time is up or the distance reached. Wait until further clearance is issued. Select 7600 and follow published lost communications procedures. Request further clearance to climb.

You are cleared for the Edmonton City One Departure for Runway 36. Shortly after departure, you are given a radar vector of 300º?. This cancels the SID. This revises the SID. This revises the SID and a clearance to continue with the SID will be forthcoming. The climb gradient for the departure from Runway 30 now applies.

When may an aircraft be vectored on a route that will not take the aircraft over the SID termination fix?. When ATC will gain an operational advantage. When the aircraft will gain an operational advantage. When the SID has been cancelled. All of the above.

What is an operationally suitable altitude or flight level?. Piston aircraft - flight planned altitude or lower. Other aircraft - as near as possible to flight planned altitude or flight level, but usually not more than 4,000' below the flight planned flight level. Piston aircraft - flight planned altitude or within 2,000' of flight planned altitude. Other aircraft - as near as possible to flight planned altitude or flight level, but usually not more than 4,000' below the flight planned flight level. All aircraft - as near as possible to flight planned altitude or flight level, but usually not more than 4,000' below the flight planned flight level. All aircraft - as near as possible to flight planned altitude or flight level.

Radar vectors?. Waive noise abatement procedures. Are issued only after noise abatement have been complied with. Will be given for the initial segment from the departure end of the runway. Are established where the pilot is required to use the chart as reference for navigation to the en route phase of flight.

If you were unable to meet the SID climb gradient requirement, you could try which of the following, or the SID clearance must be turned down?. Delay the departure until the load is reduced enough to meet the climb requirement. Delay the departure until the temperature drops enough to meet the climb requirement. Request another runway (winds permitting) where the climb gradient may be lower. All of the above.

Where would you find the noise abatement procedures referred to in the Calgary Three Departure?. The CFS. The CAP GEN. The CAP Noise Abatement Procedures pages. CAP Aerodrome Chart.

Regarding SID procedures, which of the following is true?. A SID is an en route clearance. A SID is a departure clearance issued by ATC, and ATC will provide VECTORS to the en route phase while the aircraft is operating on a SID clearance. A SID is a transitional procedure issued by ATC to departing aircraft, at select controlled airports. A sick controller.

After departing an airport from which a SID was received the aircraft initial call to the next agency should include?. Aircraft call sign, departure runway, present vacating altitude, and the assigned altitude. Aircraft call sign, ATIS information received, present vacating altitude, and the assigned altitude. Aircraft call sign, and assigned altitude. None of the above.

What is the departure procedure for RWY 25 in Grande Prairie (OTEPI ONE DEP)?. Climb runway heading to 7000' and turn right direct to OTEPI. Climb runway heading to 2600' and then turn right direct to OTEPI. Climb runway heading to 2600' and then turn left direct to OTEPI. There is no procedure specified for runway 25.

Where a pilot intends to takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome that underlies controlled low level airspace he shall?. Obtain an IFR clearance if required. Report on the appropriate frequency his or her intentions before moving onto the runway. Ascertain by radio or visual reference that no traffic conflicts exist. All of the above.

Whenever departing any type of uncontrolled aerodrome the PIC must?. Maintain a listening watch until clear the circuit. Maintain a listening watch until 10 nm. Maintain a listening watch until clear of the zone. Maintain a listening watch until wheels up.

After reaching the altitude or distance associated with MF, or ATF the pilot shall?. Communicate with the appropriate ATC unit or ground station on the appropriate en route frequency. Communicate with the appropriate ATC unit. Communicate with FSS. Update your ETA.

True or False: Where IFR departures are required to contact an IFR control unit, or ground station after takeoff, it is recommended that the aircraft monitor the IFR control unit only?. True. False.

True or False: In order to conduct IFR flight in uncontrolled airspace a clearance is not required?. True. False.

After departing an uncontrolled airport while on an IFR flight plan you will need a clearance prior to entering any?. Class A,B,C,D, or E airspace. Class A,B,C, or D airspace. Class A,B, or C airspace. Class F airspace.

If an IFR flight is delayed greater than____of the proposed departure time stipulated in the IFR flight plan,____should be notified?. 60 mins; ATC. 30 mins; ATC. 60 mins; FSS. 30 mins; FSS.

Failure to update the proposed IFR departure time may result in?. Activating the SAR process. Initiating a CADOR. An SMS report. Follow up action from the Operations Manager.

Which of the following is correct regarding clearance by phone?. This type of clearance may have a time or event-based departure restriction or clearance cancellation. Aerodromes within controlled airspace require a clearance,. May contain terms like, "DO NOT DEPART BEFORE..", and "CLEARANCE CANCELLED IF NOT AIRBORNE BY..". All of the above.

You will need an ATC clearance prior to entering?. Class E airspace. Class G airspace. Class J airspace. None of the above.

Before obtaining taxi instructions, at a control tower airport, it is recommended that you do not?. Set your altimeter to 29.92. Receive the ATIS broadcast. Receive IFR departure clearance from the ACC. Set your altimeter to the current altimeter setting.

ATIS frequencies when available will be found in the?. LO Charts. CFS and CAP. AIM. Canadian Aviation Regulations.

Whenever possible requests for radio checks and taxi instructions should be on?. Tower. Departure. FSS. Ground.

With respect to aircraft requesting "pushback" from a gate position, which of the following is true?. Pilots will be issued "pushback" instructions on the appropriate ground control frequency. Pilots will be issued "pushback" instructions on the appropriate apron control frequency. Pilots will be issued an advisory on the appropriate ground control frequency but "pushback" is at the pilots discretion. None of the above.

Where a clearance delivery frequency is not established, the pilot should contact?. The ground control frequency to obtain the ATC clearance. The tower control frequency to obtain the ATC clearance. The first agency after start-up (FSS or GROUND CONTROL). None of the above.

In a controlled airport with Tower, where there is no clearance delivery, in order to receive the IFR clearance the pilot should?. contact FIC and state the destination and planned initial cruising altitude for IFR clearance after getting airborne. state the destination and planned initial cruising altitude while holding short of the active runway for takeoff clearance. state the Destination and planned initial cruising altitude on initial contact with Ground. In a controlled airport clearance is automatically issued and is your flight planned route and altitude. You need not request it.

To avoid clutter on ATC radar displays, pilots should?. Adjust transponders to "ON" while taxiing. Adjust transponders to "ALT" while taxiing. Adjust transponders to "STAND-BY" while taxiing. None of the above.

Pilots wishing to request IFR and taxi clearance prior to engine start should?. Use the phrase "ready to go at (time).". Use the phrase "ready to copy clearance at (time).". Use the phrase "ready to start at (time).". Use any of the above phrases.

With respect to IFR clearance format order, select the correct answer? a) SID. b) Approved altitude (may be omitted if SID clearanceissued). c) Prefix (ATC CLEARS). d) Clearance limit. e) Route. f) Departure, en route, approach or holding instructions. g) Special instructions or information. h) Traffic information. i) Weather information. j) Landing clearance. k) Alternate aerodrome information. l) Aircraft identification. a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, l. j, c, e, h, f, a. c, h, d, a, e, f, b, g, l. None of the above.

You are departing from an airport where there is no RVR and no reported ground visibility?. You cannot depart. You cannot determine the safe visibility for departure. You can determine the safe visibility for departure but it must not be less than ½ mile. You can determine the safe visibility for departure but it must not be less than ¼ mile.

Is it necessary to get an IFR clearance before departing from an uncontrolled airport?. No, there is no one to relay an IFR clearance to you. Yes, a clearance must be obtained from ATC. Yes, if your departure will take you through controlled airspace. Yes, an IFR clearance must always be obtained prior to departure.

IFR departure procedures are shown in the form of "Take Off Minima" on the aerodrome chart, and meet obstacle and terrain clearance requirements. When the term 1/2 is denoted in the take off minima box, these procedures are based on the premise that on departure an aircraft will?. Cross the departure end of the runway at no lower than 40', climb straight ahead until reaching 500' AAE before commencing any turns, and maintain a climb gradient of 200' per nautical mile throughout the climb up to the minimum IFR altitude enroute. Cross the departure end of the runway at no lower than 35', climb straight ahead until reaching 500' AAE before commencing any turns, and maintain a climb gradient of 200' per nautical mile throughout the climb up to the minimum IFR altitude enroute. Cross the departure end of the runway at no lower than 35', climb straight ahead until reaching 400' AAE before commencing any turns, and maintain a climb gradient of 200' per nautical mile throughout the climb up to the minimum IFR altitude enroute. None of the above.

With respect to IFR departure procedures from un-controlled airports, which of the following is true?. Ensure that there are no VFR airplanes in the immediate area. Aircraft must report on the appropriate frequency his/her departure procedure and intentions before moving onto the runway, and ascertain by radio on the appropriate frequency and by visual observation that there will not be a traffic conflict during departure. Aircraft departing from an uncontrolled airport can only do so if VMC (visual meteorological conditions) prevail. None of the above.

With respect to aircraft category and appropriate specified take-off minimum visibility (SPEC VIS) procedures, which of the following is true?. Category A aircraft require 1 nm visibility. Category A aircraft require 1 sm visibility. Category D aircraft require 2 nm visibility. All of the above.

Without a published take-off minimum visibility, the pilot in command, departing under IFR may depart IFR by using a take-off visibility that will allow avoidance of obstacles on departure. In no case should the take-off visibility be less than?. 1/2 sm. 1 nm. 1/2 nm. 1 sm.

An aircraft traveling at 100 KIAS is required to climb at 500 ft.per.nm. What climb rate would be required in order to comply with this departure procedure requisite (CLIMB GRADIENT CHART)?. 900 fpm. 833 fpm. 1500 fpm. 1200 fpm.

Take-off visibility in order of precedence is? i. RVR ii. Pilot Observed Visibility. iii. The Ground Visibility. i, ii, iii. i, iii, ii. ii, i, iii. iii, i, ii.

With respect to IFR operations in cold temperatures, which of the following is true?. Cold temperatures will cause the pilot to fly lower than indicated. Cold temperatures will not effect the altimeter, only the density altitude. Cold temperatures will cause an altimeter to read lower than we are actually flying. Cold temperatures will cause the pilot to fly higher than indicated.

The term 'NOT ASSESSED', if found in the departure procedures section of the CAP (Canada Air Pilot or Canada Approach Plates), would imply?. IFR departure procedures have not been assessed for obstacles. Gradients and/or routings for obstacle Pilots-in-Command are responsible for determining minimum climb and terrain avoidance. Takeoff visibility of may not be less than 1/2 SM but it is up to the pilot to determine what visibility is safe given the airport environment. All of the above.

The CARs specifies take-offs for all Canadian aircraft as being governed by?. Cloud ceilings. RVR. Visibility only. Aircraft speed.

What is the minimum takeoff visibility required to depart from runway 16 in Trail, BC?. Runway 16 requires 1/2 sm. Trail, BC is not assessed. It is up to the pilot to determine minimum takeoff visibility and minimum climb gradients. In no case shall it be less 1/2 sm. Runway 34 requires 1/2 sm, runway 16 is not assessed. Runway 16 requires 1/2 sm, runway 34 is not assessed.

Using the above CYWG airport diagram, what would be the minimum visibility required to depart CYWG?. 1 sm. 1/2 sm. 1 1/2 sm. 2 sm.

Using the following information, select the correct departure procedure? SPECI CYCG 201720Z 33025KT 1 1/2SM -SN BKN011 OVC100 RMK SF5AS3= Aircraft Data: Climb speed 120 KIAS. Climb visual West of airport to 5400' ASL. Continue climb on TRK of 167 degrees from the YK NDB to 7000' ASL. Then climbing LEFT turn to CG NDB on track of 336 degrees CLB in shuttle to MEA North of CG NDB on INBD TRK of 177 degrees all turns left. Climb visual West of airport to 4700' ASL. Continue climb on TRK of 167 degrees from the YK NDB to 7000' ASL. Then climbing LEFT turn to CG NDB on track of 336 degrees CLB in shuttle to MEA North of CG NDB on INBD TRK of 177 degrees all turns left. Climb visual West of airport to 4800' ASL. Continue climb on TRK of 167 degrees from the YK NDB to 7000' ASL. Then climbing LEFT turn to CG NDB on track of 336 degrees CLB in shuttle to MEA North of CG NDB on INBD TRK of 177 degrees all turns left. Climb visual West of airport to 4400' ASL. Continue climb on TRK of 167 degrees from the YK NDB to 7000' ASL. Then climbing LEFT turn to CG NDB on track of 336 degrees CLB in shuttle to MEA North of CG NDB on INBD TRK of 177 degrees all turns righ.

SPECI CYCG 201720Z 33025KT 1 1/2SM -SN BKN011 OVC100 RMK SF5AS3= Aircraft Data: Climb speed 120 KIAS Using the unformation from the above question, what would be the SPEC VIS and aircraft category?. CAT C, 2 sm. CAT A, 1 sm. CAT D, 2 sm. CAT B, 1 1/2 sm.

CYXX Aerodrome Chart CYXX Departure Procedure You intend to depart CYXX, select the correct departure procedure? SPECI CYXX 201644Z 07015KT 1/2SM FZFG VV002 RMK FG8 Climb speed 121 KIAS. Requires a minimum climb gradient of 390 ft/nm to 4000'ASL. Climb runway heading to 1800'AGL. Climbing right turn to 201 degrees for vectors to assigned route. Contact Victoria Terminal passing 1500' AGL unless instructed otherwise by ATC. Maintain 3000. Requires a minimum climb gradient of 480 ft/NM to 4600. Climb hdg 069° to 1800. Then, climbing RIGHT turn hdg 204° to 5000 or assigned alt for vectors BPOC. Requires a minimum climb gradient of 230 ft/NM to 400. Climb hdg 069° to 700. Then, climbing RIGHT turn hdg 204° to 3000 or assigned alt for vectors BPOC. Climbing right turn to 202 degrees for vectors to assigned route. Contact Victoria Terminal passing 1500'AGL unless instructed otherwise by ATC. Maintain 3000' AGL or as assigned.

CYXX Aerodrome Chart CYXX Departure Procedure Climb Conversion Table Using the information from the question above, what rate of climb will be required in order to depart IFR given runway 07 is active? (Hint: assume upper wind is consistent with surface wind for this question). 700' fpm. 850' fpm. 450' fpm. 780' fpm.

Assuming a climb gradient of 550 ft.NM is desired, what rate of climb would meet this requirement (CLIMB GRADIENT CHART)? Climb groundspeed: 200 Kts. 1830 fpm. 1700 fpm. 2000 fpm. 1930 fpm.

In the absence of a published visibility for a particular runway, a pilot may depart IFR using a take-off visibility that will allow avoidance of obstacles on departure. In no case should the take-off visibility be less than?. 1/8 sm all aircraft. 3/4 sm for rotorcraft. 1/2 sm for fixed wing aircraft. 1 sm.

Assuming a climb gradient of 700 ft/nm is desired, what rate of climb would be meet this requirement (CLIMB GRADIENT CHART)?. 3500 fpm. 2910 fpm. 3000 fpm. 3200 fpm.

IFR traffic has priority at uncontrolled airports and is not required to adhere to the designated runway in use?. False, IFR traffic has no priority and must adhere to the designated runway for departure. False, IFR traffic has no priority and must adhere to the designated runway for departure, unless the pilot determines that there will be no conflict with other traffic. True, VFR traffic must give way to IFR Traffic. False, IFR traffic has priority, but may select the departure runway regardless of other traffic.

When departing from an uncontrolled airport, the PIC shall maintain a listening watch?. On the MF or ATF frequency until clear of the MFA or ATF area, and the ATC frequency. On the MF or ATF until airborne, and the ATC frequency. On the MF or ATF until airborne. On the MF until clear of the MF area.

What procedure should a pilot follow if he/she is required to contact ATC after departure when departing from an airport with an MF?. Contact ATC as soon as possible after airborne. The pilot will be in communication with ATC for a departure clearance before takeoff, and may remain on their frequency if desired. Contact ATC once clear of the specified MF area and continue listening out on the MF if a second radio is onboard. The pilot may monitor the MF or switch to ATC at their own discretion.

When can an IFR clearance be obtained in the air?. When departing from an uncontrolled airport where there is no SID. When departing from any uncontrolled airport. When you are unable to establish communications while departing from an uncontrolled airport. Anytime if a VFR departure is more efficient.

When must you contact ATC after departing an airport in uncontrolled airspace?. After departing the ATF area with a departure time to avoid a SAR response. As soon as possible to obtain a clearance. Before entering controlled airspace. As soon as possible with a departure time to avoid a SAR response.

Do all IFR departure procedures meet obstacle and terrain clearance requirements?. Yes. Yes, unless The Take-off Minima Box is marked "Not Assessed". No, it is the pilot's responsibility to ensure obstacle clearance. Yes, but may contain minimum climb gradients to do so.

May a pilot depart IFR from an airport that only has a SPEC VIS departure procedure if the ceiling is below that which will allow a visual climb to the published altitude?. No. Yes, if the pilot determines an alternate procedure that takes into consideration obstacle clearance. No, when a SPEC VIS visual climb manoeuvre is the only departure available it must be complied with in order to ensure obstacle and terrain clearance. No, unless a clearance can be obtained to allow an alternate procedure.

The minimum take-off visibility for a specific departure is found in the?. CAP GEN. Air Operator Certificate. CFS. CAP.

When can ground visibility be used if the airport is served by an RVR?. When it is unavailable. When it is fluctuating above and below the minimum. When it is less than the minimum due to a localized phenomenon. All of the above.

A local phenomenon is deemed to be occurring when?. Only the end of a runway is obscured. Only one of the three RVR readouts is below minimums. The RVR readout is less than the reported ground visibility. All of the above.

Noise abatement is not the determining factor in runway designation under the following circumstances?. When the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 25 knots. When the tail wind component, including gusts, exceeds 10 knots. When the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 15 knots. When the runway is less than 5,000' long.

What is the SPEC VIS for a Category B aircraft?. 1 sm. 1 ½ sm. 2 sm. 3 sm.

A Category B aircraft has a maneuvering speed of?. 91 to 120 KIAS. 121 to 140 KIAS. 141 to 165 KIAS. 90 KIAS or less.

You are departing from an uncontrolled airport which has a FSS. The FSS can provide you with?. An airport advisory that includes VFR traffic only and an IFR clearance. An airport advisory that includes IFR and VFR traffic and can relay an IFR clearance from ATC if the airport lies within controlled airspace. An airport advisory only, the clearance must be obtained from ATC by phone or in the air. An IFR clearance. Airport advisories are for departing VFR traffic only.

While departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan or flight itinerary and receive a clearance before?. Takeoff. Entering IFR conditions. Entering controlled airspace. All of the above.

Before taking off in the standard pressure region, the pilot should?. Set the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury. Set the altimeter to the current setting for that aerodrome. Set the altimeter according to highest obstacle with the aerodrome elevation. Set the altimeter to standard.

FL350 corresponds to?. 3 500 feet with altimeter setting 29.92 inches of mercury. 35 000 feet with current altimeter setting. 35 000 feet with altimeter setting 29.92 inches of mercury. 3 500 feet with current altimeter setting.

When climbing into the standard pressure region from the altimeter setting region, the pilot should?. Set their altimeter to standard pressure immediately after entering the standard pressure region. Set their altimeter to standard pressure immediately before reaching cruise altitude. Set their altimeter to standard pressure immediately before entering the standard pressure region. Set their altimeter to standard pressure prior to starting the climb into the standard pressure region.

When transitioning from the standard pressure region to the altimeter setting region, the altimeter should be reset?. Before entering the altimeter setting region. After entering the altimeter setting region. Before descending to land in the altimeter setting region. Before descending to land assuming no holds will be made below the cruising level.

You are preparing to land in Yellowknife and are currently cruising at FL190. At what point will you set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting?. As soon as possible to the nearest station en route. Prior to descent, if no holds are planned . Prior to approach because Yellowknife is in the standard pressure region. Once passing through FL125.

In the standard pressure region, with standard pressure set on the altimeter, the term?. Flight Level is used in lieu of altitude. Level of flight is used in lieu of altitude. Standard Level is used in lieu of altitude. Aviation Level is used in lieu of altitude.

No person shall operate in the standard pressure region unless the altimeter is set to?. 29.92 inches of mercury. 1013.2 inches of mercury. The current altimeter setting of the nearest aerodrome. The current altimeter setting of the nearest aerodrome + 50'.

If a holding procedure is to be conducted in the standard pressure region the altimeter shall not be set to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome until?. Immediately prior to descending below the lowest usable flight level of the hold. Immediately after descending below the lowest usable flight level of the hold. Immediately prior to descending below FL180. Immediately prior to descending below FL100.

Pilots of aircraft descending into standard pressure region from flight levels greater than FL180, may reset their altimeters to the current altimeter setting, when approaching FL180 provided?. No holding below FL180 is anticipated. No cruising below FL190 is anticipated. No holding or cruising below FL180 is anticipated. No holding below FL100 is anticipated.

While in cruising flight in the altimeter setting region the altimeter should be set to?. The current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight. The standard altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight. The elevation along the route of flight. 29.92 inches of mercury.

Pilot's of IFR and controlled VFR flights which are not radar identified: Must make position reports over all intersections. Must make position reports over compulsory reporting points portrayed on the terminal and en route charts. Must make position reports over any other reporting point specified by ATC. Must land at the nearest airport.

Reporting points are indicated by a symbol on the appropriate charts. The designated compulsory reporting point symbol is: A solid triangle. A solid square. An open triangle. An open square.

A pilot may operate at an altitude not appropriate to the airway, air route or direction of flight if: A pilot requests it because of icing, turbulence, or fuel considerations. The airspace is structured for a one-way traffic flow. In a hold. All of the above.

Pilots of IFR aircraft shall establish, wherever possible: Communications with an ATC unit. Communications with a PAL. Direct Controller Pilot Communications (DCPC). Communications with an ACC.

Whenever radio contact cannot be established, pilots should: Make position reports to ATC. Make position reports to ATC through the nearest communications agency along the route of flight. Make position reports to ATC through the nearest FSS frequency along the route of flight. Need not make position reports because there will be no one to hear you.

To ensure that alerting service is provided, pilots of IFR aircraft operating outside controlled airspace should: Make position reports over all reporting points along the route of flight. Make position reports over all on-request reporting points along the route of flight. Make position reports over all intersections along the route of flight. Make position reports over all navaids along the route of flight.

Descent below the minimum IFR altitude of a route segment should not occur: Until fix passage into a segment with a lower minimum IFR altitude. Until the aircraft is within +/- 5nm of the fix. Until the aircraft is cleared to by ATC. Until the aircraft is cleared to by FSS.

Under conditions of standard temperature and pressure, the minimum obstruction clearance altitude, in non-mountainous regions: Provides 1,500' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment. Provides 2,000' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment. Provides 1,000' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment. Provides 500' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment.

MOCA (or MEA when the MOCA is not published) is best defined as: The published altitude ASL between specified fixes on airways or air routes, which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, and which meets IFR obstacle clearance requirements. The lowest altitude for the airway or air route segment that assures obstacle clearance. The lowest altitude an airplane may be flown VFR or IFR. None of the above.

The AMA (Area Minimum Altitude) within Designated Mountain Areas 1 and 5 has the purpose of indicating, on en route charts, a safe altitude at which an aircraft can operate and maintain an altitude of: 1,500' clearance over known obstacles. 1,000' clearance over known obstacles. 328' clearance over known obstacles. 2,000' clearance over known obstacles.

The combination of extremely cold temperatures and the effect of mountain waves may cause the altimeter to over-read by as much as: 2,000'. 2,500'. 3,000'. 3,500'.

Upon receipt of descent clearance from ATC, it is expected that the pilot descend at: 400 fpm for piston aircraft, 1000 fpm for turbine aircraft. 500 fpm for piston aircraft, 900 fpm for turbine aircraft. 500 fpm for piston aircraft, 500 fpm for turbine aircraft. Optimum descent rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft but expects at least, 500 fpm for piston aircraft; 1000 fpm for turbine aircraft.

Pilot altitude reports should be made to the nearest: 100' increment. 50' increment. 200' increment. 300' increment.

If a pilot requests it, ATC may authorize 1000 feet on top IFR flight provided that: The flight visibility is at least 1 mile, the top of the cloud formation is well defined, the aircraft will operate within class C or D airspace. The altitude being maintained is at least 1000 feet above all cloud, haze, smoke, or other formations. The aircraft will operate outside all class A or B airspace. The flight visibility is at least 2 miles.

You have reached the clearance limit, without receiving further clearance, you are expected to: Hold on the inbound track to the clearance limit, making all turns to the left. Hold on the outbound track to the clearance limit, making all turns to the left, and request further clearance. Hold on the outbound track to the clearance limit, making all turns to the right, and request further clearance. Hold on the inbound track to the clearance limit, making all turns to the right, and request further clearance.

Immediately before commencing approach, changing altitude, or departing IFR pilots operating in uncontrolled airspace shall broadcast their intentions on: 126.7. 123.2. 122.2. 121.5.

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft that experiences a two-way communications failure when operating in or cleared to enter controlled airspace under IFR or when operating in or cleared to enter Class B or C airspace under VFR shall: If transponder-equipped, select the transponder to reply to Mode A/3 Code 7600 interrogations. Maintain a listening watch on appropriate frequencies for control messages or further clearances; acknowledge receipt of any such messages by any means available, including selective use of the normal/standby functions of transponders. Attempt to contact any ATC facility or another aircraft and inform them of the difficulty and request they relay information to the ATC facility with whom communications are intended. All of the above.

An IFR flight operating off airways, and air routes, located in designated mountainous regions 1 and 5, shall: Operate at no less than 1,000' above the highest obstacle located within 10 nm of the aircraft. Operate at no less than 1,500' above the highest obstacle located within 5 nm of the aircraft. Operate at no less than 2,000' above the highest obstacle located within 5 nm of the aircraft. Operate at no less than 500' above the highest obstacle located within 10 nm of the aircraft.

An IFR flight operating off airways, and air routes, located in designated mountainous regions 2, 3 and 4 shall: Operate at no less than 1,000' above the highest obstacle located within 10 nm of the aircraft. Operate at no less than 1,500'above the highest obstacle located within 5 nm of the aircraft. Operate at no less than 2,000' above the highest obstacle located within 5 nm of the aircraft. Operate at no less than 500' above the highest obstacle located within 10 nm of the aircraft.

On designated airways and air routes, IFR flights may operate at the published MEA/MOCA, except that in winter when air temperatures may be much lower than those of ISA: The aircraft should be operated at an altitude which is at least 2,000' higher than the published MEA/MOCA. The aircraft should be operated at an altitude which is at least 1,500' higher than the published MEA/MOCA. The aircraft should be operated at an altitude which is at least 1,000' higher than the published MEA/MOCA. The aircraft should be operated at an altitude which is at least 2,500' higher than the published MEA/MOCA. Feedback.

Under standard conditions, the minimum obstruction clearance altitude, in non-mountainous regions?. Provides 2,000' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment. Provides 1,000' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment. Provides 500' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment. Provides 1,500' clearance above all obstacles located within the lateral limits of an airway or air-route segment.

Upon receipt of descent clearance from ATC, it is expected that the pilot descend at?. 400 fpm for piston aircraft, 1000 fpm for turbine aircraft. 500 fpm for piston aircraft, 500 fpm for turbine aircraft. 500 fpm for piston aircraft, 1,000 fpm for turbine aircraft. 500 fpm for piston aircraft, 900 fpm for turbine aircraft.

After accepting a hold clearance what are the first steps?. Tune, Identify, Test, Turn Direct, and Decide Entry. Tune, Test, Turn Direct, and Decide Entry. Tune, Identify, Test, and Decide Entry. Decide Entry,Tune, Identify, Test, and Turn Direct.

When approaching the hold facility you must decide if the entry will be?. Direct. Parallel. Offset. All of the above.

With respect to the elements of a hold clearance which of the following is incorrect?. A clearance to the holding fix. A direction to hold. The time to expected further clearance. A specific direction to hold from will be determined at the pilots discretion.

True or False: Holds are often given to provide separation during approaches and departures?. True. False.

A standard hold pattern is______, and the non-standard holding pattern is______?. Right Hand; Left Hand. Left Hand; Right Hand. Right Hand; Racetrack. None of the above.

During a standard hold "direct" entry, after arriving at the fix?. Turn right into the holding pattern. Turn right to the outbound track -30 degree heading. Turn to the reciprocal of the track. Turn left into the holding pattern.

During a standard hold "parallel" entry, after arriving at the fix?. Turn to the reciprocal of the inbound track and fly for 1 min. Turn right to the outbound track -30 degree heading. Turn right into the holding pattern. Turn left into the holding pattern.

During a standard hold "offset" entry, after arriving at the fix?. Turn to track 30 degrees from the reciprocal of the inbound track. Turn right into the holding pattern. Turn to the reciprocal of the inbound track and fly for 1 min. Turn left into the holding pattern.

For a headwind in the hold?. take half the increase in the inbound time, and subtract from the outbound time. Take one quarter the increase in the inbound time, and subtract from the outbound time. Take half the increase in the inbound time, and add to the outbound time. Take one quarter the increase in the inbound time, and add it to the outbound time.

Airspeed of a propeller driven Aircraft in a hold should not be more than?. 230 KIAS. 175 KIAS. 265 KIAS. 310 KIAS.

While flying IFR through terminal airspace you encounter severe icing and require a change in altitude. Unfortunately you are unable to contact ATC to inform them of your dilemma. The appropriate action to take is?. Remain at altitude and continue attempting to contact ATC for an altitude change clearance. Squawk 7600 for "Com failure" and change to an altitude that is less conducive to icing. Squawk 7700 for "Emergency" while taking the necessary actions to avoid the severe icing while continuing to attempt contact with ATC. Squawk 7500 and then 7700 for "Emergency" while taking the necessary actions to avoid the severe icing while continuing to attempt contact with ATC.

While departing from Hamilton airport on the "Hamilton Seven Dep" SID you experience a communications failure. The failure occurs 2 minutes after takeoff and you are still VFR when communications are lost. It is expected that the flight cannot be completed VFR - your course of action would be to?. Set 7600 on your transponder; proceed directly on course; maintain the last assigned altitude for 5 minutes after the recognition of the failure and climb to flight plan altitude. Remain VFR and land as soon as practicable. Set 7600 on your transponder, remain VFR and land immediately. Set 7600 on your transponder, remain VFR and land as soon as practicable.

While en route IFR you experience a com failure. ATC had previously cleared you for 10,000'. You were planning on beginning your descent to land and had been advised by ATC to expect a clearance to 6,000' in 10 minutes. Your ETA last received and acknowledged by ATC was 20 minutes from now. Your plan of action considering this information is? MEA: 4500' MOCA: 3000'. Maintain 10,000' to the approach fix used for the instrument approach while squawking 7600, beginning the descent to land at your planned ETA. Maintain 10,000' to the approach fix used for the instrument approach while squawking 7600, beginning the descent to land at your discretion. Descend from 10,000' to 6,000' at the expected clearance time while squawking 7600, beginning the descent to land when you arrive at the fix. Descend from 10,000' to 6,000' in 10 minutes, while squawking 7600, hold at the approach fix. Conduct the approach at the ETA.

While en route IFR you are given instructions by ATC to fly direct to the TRANSIT NDB for a hold. An instrument approach also begins from this NDB. You acknowledged an expected further clearance in 20 minutes and your most recent ETA is not until 30 minutes from now. In case of a radio failure your plan of action would be to?. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600 and commence the descent for approach. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600 and commence the descent for approach at the expected approach time clearance. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600, hold as directed and commence the descent for approach at the most recent ETA. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600, hold as directed and commence the descent for approach at the expected further clearance time.

When faced with emergency situations which of the following is correct?. ATC expects the pilot to take whatever action is necessary to ensure safety. After declaring an emergency ATC will assist in any way possible. Pilots are requested to advise ATC as soon as practicable (practically-safe) of any deviations from IFR altitudes and routes. All of the above.

Deviations may be made to clearances?. In an emergency. In response to an ACAS/TCAS advisory. In response to a Ground Proximity Warning System. All of the above.

While en route, IFR you experience a comm failure. ATC had previously cleared you for FL210. You were planning on beginning your descent to land and had been advised by ATC to expect a clearance to 10,000' in 15 minutes. Your ETA last received and acknowledged by ATC was 25 minutes from now. Your plan of action considering this information is? MEA: 2,500' MOCA: 2,000'. Maintain FL210 to the approach fix used for the instrument approach while squawking 7600, beginning the descent to land at your planned ETA. Maintain FL210 to the approach fix used for the instrument approach while squawking 7600, beginning the descent to land at your discretion. Descend from FL210 to 10,000' in 15 minutes, squawk 7600. Maintain 10,000' to the approach fix. Hold at the approach fix until the ETA, and then conduct a full procedure approach to the active runwa. Descend from FL210' to 10,000' at the expected clearance time while squawking 7600, beginning the descent to land at your planned ETA.

While en route IFR you are given instructions by ATC to fly direct to the YWG VOR for a hold. An instrument approach also begins from this VOR. You acknowledged an expected further clearance in 15 minutes and your most recent ETA is not until 10 minutes from now. In case of a radio failure your plan of action would be to?. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600 and commence the descent for approach. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600 and commence the descent for approach at the expected approach time clearance. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600, hold as directed and commence the descent for approach at the most recent ETA. Proceed directly to the holding fix, squawk 7600, hold as directed and commence the descent for approach at the expected further clearance time.

The PIC while operating in controlled airspace, shall report immediately any malfunction of navigation or communications equipment to?. ATC. FSS. FIC. Other pilots in the area.

Which squawk code would you select if you were hijacked?. 7500. 7800. 7600. 7700.

You are departing Sault Ste. Marie VIA SUALT FOUR DEP on RWY22. You have been cleared for take-off and depart at 2235z. After contacting Toronto Centre, you receive the following clearance; turn left to 055 for V348, maintain 4000'ASL. At 2241z, you realize you have a complete two-way radio communication failure in IMC, and your cell phone batteries are dead, what is the best course of action?. Squawk code A/3 7600, proceed directly on course, and at 2246z climb to 18,000' AGL (flight planned altitude). Squawk code A/3 7600, proceed directly on course, and at 2245z climb to 18,000' ASL (flight planned altitude). Squawk code A/3 7600, proceed directly on course, and at 2246z climb to 18,000'ASL (flight planned altitude). Squawk code A/3 7700, proceed directly on course, and at 2245z climb to 18000'ASL (flight planned altitude).

If ATIS is available, all pilots?. Should obtain the basic arrival and departure information as soon as practicable. Must obtain the basic arrival and departure information. Should obtain the basic arrival and departure information. None of the above.

An aircraft conducting a procedure turn at a major airport would?. Cause major traffic disruptions and may lead to a loss of separation. Help traffic flow. Increase airspace utilization. None of the above.

When being radar vectored, ATC will vector the aircraft so that it will intercept the final approach course approximately _______ back from the point where final descent will begin?. 10 NM. 2 NM. 1 NM. 5 NM.

An aircraft that is on an IFR medevac flight into a controlled aerodrome at 9,000' ASL is restricted to what speed without special permission?. 200 knots IAS. 250 knots IAS. 250 knots TAS. 200 knots TAS.

You are being radar vectored on an IFR flight in an aircraft that should not be flown below 102 knots on approach. ATC instructs you to maintain 100 knots for slower traffic ahead of you. What should you do?. Accept the clearance but advise ATC that you would like to maintain a higher speed if possible. Conduct a holding procedure until the other aircraft lands. Refuse the instruction and let ATC know what speed you are able to maintain. Maintain 102. ATC does not have to be notified.

When ATC requests that you maintain a certain airspeed, what are the tolerances they are expecting you to keep the aircraft within?. +/- 5 knots IAS. +/- 10 knots IAS. +/- 15 knots IAS. +/- 2 knots IAS.

If you are given an instruction to maintain a specific airspeed and shortly after cleared for an approach, what airspeed should be maintained if the controller did not specify a speed in the clearance?. The speed specified in the first instruction. It is at the pilots discretion to maintain safe airspeed. The current speed when you receive the clearance. 200 Knots or less.

Straight in minima are only published for straight in approaches when what two conditions are met?. A normal rate of descent can be made from the FAF to the runway and the final approach track intercepts the extended runway center line by 30° degrees or less. The aerodrome is controlled and is covered by radar. The approach being used is either a VOR or ILS approach. All of the above.

If straight in minima is not published than what minima will apply?. The minima for the full procedure approach. The highest minima published. Circling minima. The DH published.

You are flying an ILS approach down to minimums and you reach the DH without getting the required visual reference. You can see some lights so you decide to continue at the DH for 10 seconds. After 10 seconds you conduct a missed approach. What have you done wrong?. You did not conduct the missed approach at the proper MAP. You have done nothing wrong. You conducted the missed approach 5 seconds too late. You did not conduct the missed approach at the correct MAP and you are no longer assured of obstacle clearance.

Which of the following would be acceptable for the required visual reference when conducting an approach?. The runway or runway markings. The touchdown zone light. The approach lights. All of the above.

Where are PAR approaches available in Canada?. At most major aerodromes. At military aerodromes only. At all aerodromes with a control tower. Only at Toronto L.B. Pearson Airport.

When you reach the MDA on a non-precision approach what should be done if you do not have the required visual reference?. Level off and conduct a missed approach at the MAP. Drop below the MDA by no more than 50' and if you don't see the required visual reference conduct a missed approach. Conduct a missed approach. Continue to descend at no more than 500'/min until the aprroach timing runs out.

What is the minimum visibility required in order to conduct a Contact Approach?. 1 mile. 2 mile. 3 mile. 5 mile.

What does a contact approach allow the pilot to do?. Continue the approach below the MDA. Continue the approach below the published minimums but no lower than the CAR's will allow. Deviate from the approach and proceed to the airport by visual reference to the ground. Complete the approach without have to do a procedure turn.

When conducting a contact approach, the minimum height above all obstacles within ____ is _____?. 10 miles, 2,000'. 5 miles, 1,000'. 5 miles, 2,000'. 10 miles, 1,000'.

What is one very important thing that the pilot or flight crew must have in order to conduct a successful contact approach?. Contact approach training. Several hundred hours of IMC flight time. A contact approach rating. Familiarity with the aerodrome environment in when they are entering.

In order for a visual approach to be approved, the minimum ceiling must be _____ above the minimum IFR altitude and the reported ground visibility must be at least ______?. 1,000' and 3 SM. 1,000' and 3 NM. 500' and 3 NM. 500' and 3 SM.

When conducting a visual approach, which of the following is the pilot NOT responsible for?. Separation from other aircraft on a visual approach. Adherence to noise abatement procedures. Navigation to the aerodrome. The pilot is responsible for all of the above.

Is a visual approach considered an Instrument approach procedure?. Yes, but the is no missed approach procedure for it. No, and there is no missed approach procedure. Yes, and tower will issue a missed approach procedure. Yes, and the missed approach procedure to be used will be the one for the runway used.

True or False? A circling approach is considered to be an IFR procedure until you have the runway visual. At this point it is no longer an Instrument approach?. True. False.

The MDA for a circling approach gives a minimum of ______ above all obstacles within the maneuvering area for each category?. 500'. 300'. 200'. 100'.

While conducting a circling procedure, should a pilot lose sight of the runway, it is recommended that unless the pilot is familiar with the terrain?. A climb be initiated. The aircraft be turned towards the center of the aerodrome. The aircraft be established, as closely as possible, in the missed approach procedure for the approach just completed. All of the above.

If ATC gives you the following missed approach instruction, what is important to keep in mind?"On missed approach fly directly to the XD NDB before proceeding on course.". you do not have to follow these instructions. ATC is not responsible for obstacle and terrain clearance in this instruction. ATC is expecting you to hold at the fix until you receive further clearance. All of the above.

While en route to a destination airport that does not have an instrument approach procedure that underlies controlled low-level airspace, which of the following is correct?. ATC can not clear the aircraft from controlled airspace into un-controlled. If the pilot requests, ATC can clear the aircraft to the MOCA, for a maximum of 60 mins, if the pilot obtains visual conditions he may proceed to the destination airport. If ATC clears the aircraft to the MOCA, the MEA can be protected for 30 mins. None of the above.

With respect to contact/visual approaches which of the following is true?. A contact approach may be suggested by ATC. A visual approach is not a deviation from the published instrument approach procedure. A contact approach requires a minimum of 3 sm visibility. While conducting a visual approach specific missed approach instructions will not be issued.

If while conducting an ILS approach in IMC, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is?. Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure. Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway. Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA. Immediately execute the approach procedure for the opposite end of the runway in reverse. Feedback.

A cold temperature correction should be applied to which of the following values?. Procedure turn altitude, MSA, MDA, and DH. DH. MDA, and DH. Procedure turn altitude, MSA, MDA, DH, and MVA.

A pilot 20 NM north of the Cumberland House NDB wishes to begin a descent from 8000' ASL for the NDB RWY 10 instrument approach. How low could they descend prior to commencing the procedure turn if the nearest reporting station indicated a surface temperature of -20°C?Cumberland House Altitude Correction Chart. 2550' ASL. 2500' ASL. 2600' ASL. 2450' ASL.

ATC is providing you vectors for the ILS on runway 02 in Edmonton. Your last assigned altitude is 5000' and you are told to fly heading 030° for the intercept straight in ILS 02. How much cold temperature correction should you apply to the assigned altitude if the surface temperatures are -20°C? CYEG Altitude Correction Chart. Add 300'. Add 400'. Add 350'. Add 0 feet.

Determine the corrected MDA for landing NDB RWY 10 at CJT4 with a surface temperature of -15° C? CJT4 Altitude Correction Chart. 1700' ASL. 1690' ASL. 800' AGL. 1690' AGL.

What is the cold temperature corrected DH for the LPV approach into Edmonton Josephburg Airport RWY 08 if the surface temperatures are reported to be 0°C? CFB6 Altitude Correction Chart. 2400' ASL. 2340' ASL. 362' AGL. 342' AGL.

What should the cold temperature corrected IFR minimum altitude be for the leg between VIDLU and PUROT from the RNAV (GNSS) RWY 08 approach into Edmonton Joesphberg Airport? The surface temperature shows -30°C. CFB6 Altitude Correction Chart. 6300' ASL. 5700' ASL. 4200' ASL. 6365' ASL.

Which of the following temperatures would result in the lowest true altitude for a pilot joining the circuit at 1000' AGL with an altimeter setting of 29.92"Hg?. 0° C. 15° C. 30° C. -10° C.

You are planning the full procedure ILS approach onto runway 02 in Edmonton. At 8000' your OAT gauge shows -30°C. The surface temperatures are -10°C. What is the decision height for this approach after doing cold temperature corrections? CYEG Altitude Correction Chart. 2545' ASL. 2550' ASL. 2600' ASL. 2525' ASL.

An aircraft cruising at 15,000' ASL in the altimeter setting region passes by a station enroute reporting 31.22" Hg. This aircraft is capable of setting this value in the altimeter subscale window. The aircraft is 30 minutes away from commencing an instrument approach. What should the pilot do?. Set the altimeter to 31.22" Hg. Set the altimeter to 31.0" Hg until on the final approach segment. Set the altimeter to 31.22" Hg until on the final approach segment. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg until beginning a descent for the approach.

An instrument approach is to be flown to an MDA of 500' AGL in atmospheric conditions of 31.40" Hg. The aircraft flown cannot correct the altimeter setting higher than 31.00" Hg. The airport elevation is 300' ASL. At what indicated height should the aircraft descend to for the MDA assuming the surface temperature was -20°C? Altitude Correction Chart. 900' ASL. 870' ASL. 1300' ASL. 1270' ASL.

Suppose the atmospheric pressure rose to 31.2" Hg. We are planning an IFR flight with an alternate airport that has 1 precision approach down to 200' AGL with 1/2 SM advisory visibility. What would the ceiling and visibility requirement be to plan to go on this trip assuming that the alternate airport weather forecast was based on a TAF? Our aircraft cannot set the altimeter higher than 31.0 "Hg. 320' AGL and 1 1/2 SM. 320' AGL and 1/2 SM. 800' AGL and 2 1/2 SM. 500' AGL and 1 1/2 SM.

Straight-in minima are not published when the descent gradient between the published minimum crossing altitude at the Final Approach Fix and the runway threshold exceeds: 400 ft/nm or 2.76°. 500 ft/nm or 3.76°. 300 ft/nm or 3.76°. 400 ft/nm or 3.76°.

The descent gradient in the Intermediate Approach Segment is established at a maximum?. 200 ft/nm. 300 ft/nm. 400 ft/nm. 500 ft/nm.

If there is not a published approach procedure for an airport that is located along an airway: ATC cannot clear you out of controlled airspace, unless there is a published instrument approach. ATC can clear an aircraft out of controlled airspace, and advise the minimum IFR altitude. ATC can clear you to the MEA, and protect the area for 30 mins. None of the above.

On an airway, altitudes below the MEA, but not below the MOCA: Cannot be approved by ATC. May be approved by ATC when the pilot specifically requests it. May not be approved by a controller if the temperature is below standard. May not be approved by a controller if the altimeter setting is less than 29.92 inches of mercury.

A pilot, while conducting an instrument approach, establishes the required visual reference to land before reaching the DH/MDA should: Complete the approach by visual reference to the ground. Complete the approach by visual reference to the ground, but should advise the tower of his/her intentions. Continue with the instrument approach procedure, unless further clearance is received. None of the above.

If a pilot begins a missed approach procedure, while conducting a circling procedure, the pilot: Shall conduct the published missed approach procedure for the approach flown. Shall conduct the published missed approach procedure closest to the current heading of the aircraft. Is not allowed a missed approach. Must ascertain what climb gradient, and maneuvering is required to ensure clearance of terrain/obstacles.

A pilot, on an IFR flight plan, may accept a visual approach clearance provided: The ground visibility is at least 3 sm. The ground visibility is at least 1 sm. The ground visibility is at least 5 sm. The ground visibility is at least 5 nm.

A pilot, on an IFR flight plan, may accept a visual approach clearance provided: The pilot reports sighting the ground or any traffic from which he/she may be maintaining visual separation. The pilot reports sighting the airport, and ATC will provide separation from other traffic. The pilot reports sighting the ground, and ATC will provide separation from IFR traffic. The pilot reports sighting the airport or any traffic from which he or she may be maintaining separation.

A pilot, on an IFR flight plan, may accept a contact approach clearance provided: The reported ground visibility is at least 5 sm. The reported ground visibility is at least 1 sm. The reported ground visibility is at least 3 sm. The reported flight visiblity is at least 1 nm.

ATC will not issue an IFR approach clearance which includes clearance for a contact approach: Unless an instrument approach procedure is available. Unless the aircraft has the airport in sight. Unless the flight visibility is at least 1 sm. Unless the aircraft has the traffic ahead in sight.

During a Circling procedure, and While maneuvering in the Visual Manoeuvring Area, pilots are assured of?. 400' obstacle clearance. 500' obstacle clearance. 300' obstacle clearance. 200' obstacle clearance.

An aircraft, that is maneuvering at an indicated airspeed of 155 kts., would use?. 1.3 NM arc radius. 1.5 NM arc radius. 1.7 NM arc radius. 2.3 NM arc radius.

Pilots complying with speed adjustment requests are expected to do so: Within +/- 10 kts. for propeller driven aircraft. Within +/- 20 kts. for turbo-jet aircraft. Within +/- 5 kts. for propeller driven aircraft. Within +/- 10 kts.

ATC may not clear an aircraft to operate below the MEA of an airway, nor below the minimum IFR altitude in other controlled low level airspace. The pilot, however, may operate at the MOCA, and ATC will approve flight at the MOCA at the pilot's request. If unable to cancel IFR at the MEA, the pilot may advise that he/she intends to descend to the MOCA. By prior arrangement with ATC, the MEA will be protected in the event that the pilot does not encounter visual conditions at the MOCA. Under this arrangement, the MEA will be protected: Until the pilot files an arrival report. For 30 min; to allow descent to the MOCA and return to the MEA when communication is restored with ATC. Until the pilot calls on final. None of the above.

If ATIS is available, all pilots should obtain the basic departure or arrival, and aerodrome information?. Immediately. When you have time. As soon as possible. As soon as it is practicable.

In the approach phase, radar vectoring is carried out to establish the aircraft on an approach aid. The initial instruction is normally a heading for radar vectors to the final approach to the runway in use. Should a communications failure occur after this point: The pilot should commence the missed approach instructions as close as possible, and there-after conduct the full procedure approach for the runway to which radar vectoring had begun. The pilot shall continue and carry out a straight in approach if able. The pilot shall continue and carry out a procedure turn to intercept the final approach course. The pilot should continue and carry out a straight in approach if able, or carry out a procedure turn and land as soon as possible.

Which of the following represents the Category C aircraft maneuvering speed range?. 91-120 kts. 121-140 kts. 141-165 kts. 166-180 kts.

Which of the following represents the Category D aircraft maneuvering speed range?. 91-120 kts. 121-140 kts. 141-165 kts. 166-180 kts.

The abbreviation "NO PT" is used to denote: That no procedure turn is necessary from the point indicated and will normally be shown adjacent to the IF. No part time pilots are allowed. That no procedure turn is necessary from the point indicated and is shown in relation to a mandatory reporting point. No point of turn is indicated.