Aircraft is considered contaminated if one of the following conditions are present on one or more of the aircraft surfaces. Hoar frost, rime, glaze ice or rain ice. Dry snow or slush. Light freezing rain or freezing drizzle. Rain with OAT between 7ºC and 9ºC.
Operations to/from a Rwy with any of the following conditions is not allowed: Wet snow, slush or standing water with depth greater than 12.7 mm. Dry snow deeper than 4 inches (10cm). When braking action is medium to poor or lower (-0.29).
Flight in icing conditions. To select DE-ICING ON, we must always wait ti have the ¨icing¨notification coming from the AAS. True. False, according to ATR QRH De-icing systems are selected ON when ice accretion is observed/detected.
Which kind of effects regarding to the volcanic ash on the airframe or equipment we can find if we are affected by volcanic ash: Reduced visibility during the landing phase due to abrasive damage on landings lights. The abrasion of the cockpit windows reduces the pilots forward visibility. Reduced drag. Volcanic ash columns are highly charged electrically. The static charge on the aircraft creates a cocoon effect which may cause a temporary defection or even complete loss of VHF or HF.
Windshear procedure at take off: Follow FD indications. Maintain PL in the notch. Until out of wind shear conditions: Landing gear keep configuration, but retract flaps to 0. When positive rate of climb on both instruments: LDG retract and return to normal climb profile. Pitch increase to 20º. Disregard FD indications. Max power, apply as required. Retract LDG and flaps as soon as possible. Pitch increase to 10º, disregard FD indications, max power apply as required. Until out of windshear conditions: LDG and flaps keep configuration. When positive rate if climb on both instruments: LDG gear retract and return to normal climb profile. .
Severe or strong turbulence definition: May cause certain changes in attitude/altitude of the aircraft, but it remains under control all the time.It may also cause small fluctuation of speed and accelerations from 0.5 g to 1.0 g.Difficulties to walk onboard, occupants will feel the pressure of the safety belts and loose objects in cabin move. Brusque changes in aircraft altitude and attitude, the aircraft may not be under control for a short time. It usually causes great variations in speed and acceleration is higher than +-1,0 g.Passengers will intensely feel the safety belt pressure. Loose objects in cabin are disseminated. None of the above are correct.
Severe icing detection.Severe icing main indications are: Ice covering all/substantial parts of unheated side window (visual clue). Unable to maintain IAS above ICING BUG + 10Kt. Unable to maintain V/S above 100 ft/min average at icing bug + 10 kts. Abnormal vibatrion.
The use of ICAO standard phraseology at all times maximise any risk of clearance confusion: False. True.
Which of the following is the subject of the SIB 2014-17? Loose equipment on the flight compartment. Aeroplane mode awareness during final approach. Potential adverse effect of anti-icing fluids during take off. None of the above.
When will the AFTER TAKE-OFF CHECK LIST be started? Cleared to a flight level. After the altimeters are checked. Once climb procedure has been completed. All the above are correct.
It is recommended to switch fuel pumps OFF at ...% of NH to lubrication of fuel pumps. 5% 10% 0% 15%.
GPWS: when flying under daylight VMC conditions, should a warning threshold be deliberately exceeded or encountered due to known specific terrain at certain locations, the warning may be regarded as cautionary and the approach may be continued. False. True.
In case of having a traffic alert (TA),the crew will have the following, multiple choice: Acoustic warning ¨traffic, Traffic¨ Acoustic warning ¨Traffic, Traffic¨ A yellow circle on the TCAS II screen, which represents the conflict traffic.
The TA ( Traffic advisory or Traffic Alert) ACAS II / TCAS II alert: Alert warning the pilot of the presence of another aircraft that may become a threat. Alert providing information to pilots on how to modify or regulate their vertical speed to avoid a potencial mid-air collision. Sense (direction) of RAs is coordinated between ACAS equipped aircraft.
The resolution advisory (RA) ACAS II/ TCAS II alert: Multiple choice. Alert warning the pilots of the presence of another aircraft that may become a threat. Alert providing information to pilots on how to modify or regulate their vertical speed to avoid a potential mid-air collision. Sense (direction) of RAs is coordinated between ACAS equipped aircraft.
What navigation specification require other than normal approval? All RNP navigation specifications. All RNAV navigations specifications. RNP 0.3 and RNP AR APCH. RNAV 1, RNP 1 and advanced RNP.
The creation of new waypoints manual entry into the RNAV systems by flight crew is not permitted as it invalidate the affected RNAV I procedure. True. False.
Regardless of a RNP APP procedure (multiple choice) During the approach ¨Direct to¨ instructions could be accepted to any point up toIF.The track change after reaching the point should be less than 90º ( less than 45º for IF). ¨Direct to¨clearances to the FAF not allowed. ¨Direct to¨ clearances to a waypoint not belonging to the procedure load in the GNSS must not be accepted. Guidance by means of radar vectors to intercept the extended final approach segment could be accepted provided the aircraft be established on final approach course at least 2 NM before the FAP.
Is it possible to perform any change in the vertical path of the final app segment of an RNP apch procedure? Yes. No. Only to modify the DA at the MAPt for higher (e.x. adding 50 ft). Only to change the FAP, If it is expected to be crossed higher. .
ATR CAT II Approach. At Outer marker or equivalent position but not lower than 1000 AGL, the PM announces: 1000, altitude checked, stabilised. Outer, altitude checked,stabilised. Outer, dual coupling, no star, stabilised. There is no Call-out at 1000 AGL.
For RNAV APCH following horizontal accuracy applies: Route until Arrival phase (up to 30 NM of destination). 2NM. From 30 NM of destination to FAF: 1NM. From FAF to MAP: 0,3 NM (only for LNAV and LNAV/VNAV) Missed approach: 1 NM.
While following ATC vectors, can we modify active route in RNAV equipment? Yes, at pilot discretion. No, until ATC give instruction to re-join original route or proceed via a new route.
What is the most widely used GNSS? Galileo. Glonass. Navstar GPS. Compass.
Should during a direct NPA with CDFA we arrive at our DA before our MAPt and we did not have the required visual reference to continue in visual conditions, the crew shall: Immediately perform a Go-around manoeuvre. Keep the DA(H) until reaching the MAPt and then we will begin the Go-around. The turning of the lateral part of the missed approach will not be performed before the MAPT.
Is it required navigation equipment other than RNP system to perform an RNP APCH? No, because RNP APCH procedures are only for GNSS. Yes, if other navaids are required( e.g. the missed approach).
We are not authorised to take off with LVTO with a RVR lower than: 300m. 150m. 200m. 400m.
RNAV 1 procedures will be applicable to operations including departures, arrivals and approaches until the FAP/FAF. True, until 2 NM before the FAF. False. True but only above the MSA or MVRA. False, RNAV 1 is only applicable to SID and STAR.
The Crew EHSI configuration during NPA APP with CDFA technique is: PF-VOR and PF-FMS. Both pilots VOR Both pilots FMS. PF-FMS and PM- VOR.
What changes are allowed on SID/STAR procedures? ´Direct to´ a later waypoint in the procedure. ´Direct to´ a Lat/Long waypoint. Change a fly-by waypoint to fly-over or vice versa. Changes manually on some constraints for example if you need to be stablished at an altitude 500, you can force the system to be stablised at 5000" (delete the above).
What is the meaning of PBN/B2D2? RNAV5 GNSS. RNAV5 DME/DME. RNAV1 DME/DME. RNAV1 GNSS.
Which of the following codes must be inserted in box 18 of the FPL to inform ATC about RNP APCH capabilities? PBN/A1 PBN/C3 PBN/S1 PBN/B2B3D2D3.
Which of the following augmentation systems provides integrity and enhanced accuracy? GBAS (Ground Based Augmentation System) RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) ABAS (Airborne Based Augmentation System) SBAS (Satellite Based Augmentation System).
What is the main difference between RNAV and RNP systems? RNP systems provides more accuracy that RNAV systems. RNP systems are intended to be used in radar surveillance environment. A RNAV system with onboard NSE monitoring and alerting function is an RNP system. There are no differences between RNP and RNAV systems, both designations are equivalent.
Any failure that is not completely treated before 800 ft AGL, or that occurs bellow 800 ft, shall always lead to a missed approach. True. False.
The creation of new waypoints by manual entry into RNAV system by the flight crew is not permitted as it would invalidate the affected RNAV 1 procedure. True. False.
When RNP APP procedure is expected to be used, it is required to perform a destination RAIM prediction before the flight? Yes. No, the system performs it automatically at 50 NM to destination. Only if there are available 23 satellites or less. Only if there are available 23 satellites or less and for stand-alone GPS systems (not connected to any other navigation systems).
If an aircraft is approved for RNAV 1, can Flynn RNAV 10 routes? No. Yes, because accuracy required for RNAV1 is greater than RNAV 10.
Which ones are the minimum DH and RVR values for CATII app? DH 50ft and RVR 200m. DH 200ft and RVR 550m. DH 100ft and RVR 300m. DH 100ft and RVR 200m.
Regulations requires perform a RAIM prediction just before start the approach. No. ground staff take care to maintain databases up to date. Yes, crew must check manually the RAIM for all the different specifications of the flight. Yes, even if database is current, cross-checks must be performed on each route or procedure intended to be used. It is not necessary to do it manually because the HT1000 performs some checks itself automatically.
During terminal operations or in routes exclusively notified for RNAV1 equipped aircrafts, the lateral track-keeping precision of the system must be equal to higher than +/- 1NM for 95% of the flight time. True. False.
What navigation specification require other than normal operational approval? All RNP navigation specifications. All RNAV navigation specifications. RNP 0.3 and RNP AR APCH. RNAV1, RNP1 and advanced RNP.
ATR 72 CATII limitations Maximum demonstrated wind: Headwind 30 kts. Tailwind 10 kts. crosswind 15Kts. Headwind 20 kts. Tailwind 10 kts. crosswind 10Kts. Headwind 30 kts. Tailwind 10 kts. crosswind 25Kts. Headwind 20 kts. Tailwind 50 kts. crosswind 15Kts.
C schedules category B aerodrome operations: Assuming the pilots will comply with their obligation of reading the Airport briefing. Once the pilots have read the Airport Briefing and have sent the appropriate form. After calling the pilots asking them if they are able to fly category B aerodromes.
What is considered a PED? Any electronic device equipped with a Lithium battery. Any electronic device able to emit radiofrequency transmissions. Any electronic system. All the above is correct.
Where can you find information about the EFB system? OM A 8.3 OM B OM A 8.1.
Airport briefing provides training for aerodromes category C: Correct. No additional training is needed for any of them. Correct, nevertheless category C aerodromes also require ground training. Wrong. Only Cat B aerodromes training is provided by airport briefing. Wrong. Only category C aerodromes training is provided by airport briefing.
How much the published minimum shall be increased in a NPA with Non-CDFA technique? 0ft. 30ft. 50ft. 100m.
When is required to disconnect a PED device? During a CATII operation. During a De-Icing operation. During Take-off, App and taxi for not hand-held devices. Any time the commander considers this action is required.
Is it pilot responsability to be properly trained before operating any airport of categories B and C? True. False.
Should a discrepancy exist related to technical questions about a given aircraft, what prevails? OM. Pilot airmanship and judgment. Pilots Reference Manual. (PRM) Manufacturer publication. (FCOM, AFM, ETC,).
How much is the published minimum shall be increased in a NPA with CDFA? 0ft. 30ft. 50ft. 100ft.
In case of having a warning triggered by the EGPWS: The terrain/obstacle that has generated the warning will turn to red solid. We will have an acoustic warning of "TERRAIN AHEAD" "PULL UP" or "OBSTACLE AHEAD, PULL UP" If we have the WX radar mode selected on the EHSI, automatically the presentation changes to TERRAIN mode with a rank of 10NM.
A threat aircraft is represented on the TCAS TRAFFIC DISPLAY: Yellow circle. Red square. Red circle Yellow square.
Which of the following are PBN approach procedures? RNP (AR) APCH. RNP 0.3 GBAS ( or GLS) RNP APCH.
Should during a direct NPA with CDFA flight technique we arrived at our DA before our MAPt and we did not have the required visual reference to continue in visual conditions, the crew shall? Inmmediatlly perform a Go-around manouver. Keep the DA (H) until reaching the MAPt and then we will begin the Go-around. The turning point of the lateral part of the missed approach will not be performed before the MAPT.
About the Direct NPA with NON-CDFA flight technique it can be said that: They can be identified because they are non.precision approaches and they include a Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) and a Minimum Descent Height (MDH). On these approaches, once we reach the MDA, the altitude could be maintained until the MAPt, therefore, it does not correspond to the CDFA technique and for such reason they required special training and approval of the authority. Initially all jeppesen approach charts which include the MDA (H) minimums, are not approved to be flown.
In case of dispatch with any equipment inoperative, what is the correct procedure regarding PBN? MEL must be checked to know implication in PBN operations, independently of the inoperative equipment. MEL must be checked if the inoperative equipment is the RNAV system.
C is not authorised to take off with low visibility (LVTO) with a RVR lower than: 300m. 150m. 200m. 400m.
What kind of waypoints we are talking about RNAV? Fly-in. Fly-by. Fly-over. Fly-by-wire.
Is it required navigation equipment other than RNP systems to perform an RNP APCH? No, because RNP APCH procedures are only for GNSS. Ye, if other naiads are required (e.g. for the missed approach).
C has specific approvals for the following operations: LVO. RNAV APCH. RNAV 1. RVSM.
Crew control has made a last minute change in your schedule.You are not sure if you meet the requirements about your rest period time. What do you do? Check the OM Part D. Check the OM Part A, Section 7. Check the OM Part A Section 8. Nothing. Crew control never fails, so I accept it.
When is required to set the Airplane mode on a PED device? On ground with all the aircraft doors closed. During take-off, cruise, landing and taxi phases. All the above is correct.
When can crew deviate from the compliance with the OM? In the event of an emergency or when the commander considers it necessary in order to comply with punctuality. Only when the commander considers it in order to comply with punctuality. Only in the event of an emergency. Never.
Types of fatigue: Long a short. Long, cumulative and medical. Accute, cumulative and chronicle. Chronicle, cumulative and medical.
Complex routes for C are: All of them. Frequent. Few of them. Non-existent, as C is not approved for ETOPS neither operates in montaineous areas of high altitude.
Where can we found all the information and procedures related to the PEDS? FCOM. OM A. OM B. B and C are correct.
Regarding a take-off alternate: It is only needed when the appropriate weather report/forecast +/- 1 jour ETOT are worse than applicable landing minima. The ceiling must be taken into account when the only approaches available are NPA and/or circling. The ceiling must be taken into account when there are precision approaches available. N-1 operations limitations will be taken into account.
When are Low Visibility Take-Off (LVTO) performed? When RVR is less than 600m. When RVR is less than 500m. When RVR is less than 400m. When RVR is less than 300m.
Which requirements are needed to consider the EFB system operative? Battery over 50%. Jeppesen and Digital Box data base updated. Operative system updated to the last authorised version. Ipad support operative.
Types of incapacitation: Obvious and Subtle. Obvious only affected us. Subtle.
Are the same requirements for the flight operations, required for the simulator training sessions? Yes. No, the only requirement is to have the data based updated.
Where can you find all the information about the EFB system? OM A 8.9 OM B OM A 8.1.
Within Non-complex routes, ¨Areas of special Attention¨ ( such as A) may exist. In this cases: No special training is needed. The crew will be trained as if it were category B aerodrome. The crew will be trained as if it were category C aerodrome.
How can I report fatigue? There is no procedure. C has on the private area a specific form to report fatigue. Mediante un Pilot Report a dirección de operaciones. None of them are correct.
Non precision direct approaches designed with profile non-CDFA and option CDFA can be flown as CDFA provided that: It is a straight-in approach with path information (DME vs Altitude). The final descent segment is at least 3 NM. In addition, in case of timing only, the distance from the descent point to the THR is less than 8NM. The offset is equal or lower than 15º ( Cat A and B) / 5º (Cat C and D) The distance to the THR is available by means of FMS/GNSS or DME.
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