Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight are non-safety
related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.
(Refer to Figure 161.) To receive the DME information
from the facility labeled 'DME Chan 22'
at La Guardia requires that. N711JB be quipped with a UHF NAV radio, which
is tuned to channel 22. a military TACAN tuned to channel 22. The VHF NAV radio be tuned to the ILS (108.5)
frequency.
Pilots should state their postition on the airport
when calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection.
from a runway intersection. only a night from a runway intersection. only during
instrument conditions.
GBAS approaches are flown using the same techniques as an ILS once
selected and identified. flown the same as an LDA with glide slope
tuning and identified. automatically tuned and displayed after
selection of the ytree character procedure
identifier.
(Refer to Figure 106 and 107.) At what point does
the flight enter the final approach phase of the ILS
RNY 25L at LAX? FUELR INT. HUNDA INT. Intercept of glide slope.
(Refer to Figure 112.) When is the earlies time the
pilot may initiate a descent from 460 feet MSL to
land at IAH? ANytime after GALES INT the runway
environment is visible. Only after the IAH 1.3 DME if the runway
environment is visible. Only after the IAH DME if the runway
environment is visible.
What action should a pilot take if within minutes
of clearance limit and further clearance has not
been received? Assume lost communications and continue as
planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further
clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in
preparation for holding.
(Refer to Figure 112.) At what point must the missed
approach be initiated on the VOR/DME RWY 32R
approach at IAH, if still IMC.? Anytime after the FAF. IAH 1.3 DME. IAH 1 DME.
(Refer to Figure 182A.) EAB 90 is a 'CAT B' aircraft and received
a clearance to fly the LOC RWY 09R, to
land RWY 09R. The Baldn fix was received. What are
the minimums? 520/24 600/24 680/24.
How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on
the IFR flight plan? Define route waypoints using degree-distance
fixes based on appropriate navigational aids
for the route and altitude. List the initial and final fix with at least
one waipoint each 200 NM. Begin and end over the appropriate arrival and
departure transition fixes or navigation aids
for the altitude being flown, define the random
route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes
based on navigation aids appropriate for the.
The Instrument approach Procedure Chart top margin
identification is VOR or GPS RWY 25, AL-5672 (FAA)
LUKACHUKAI, ARIZONA. In what phase of the approach
overlay program is this GPS approach? Phase I Phase III Phase II.
When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT? No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later
than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier
than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later
than 15 minutes after the EDCT.
What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are
required for operating in Class C airspace? No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-
way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way
radio, and a TSO-C74b transponder.
Under what conditions may an carrier pilot
continue an instrument approach to the DH, after
receiving a weather report indicating that less than
minimum published landing conditions exist at the
airport? If the instrument approach is conducted in as
radar environment. When the weather report is received as the
pilot passed the FAP. When the weather report is received after the
pilot has begun the final approach segment of
the instrument approach.
(Refer to Figure 104.) What are the takeoff minimums
for RWY 11R at Tucson Intl that apply to N91JB? 1 SM. 800/1. 4,000/3.
What is the required flight visibility and distance
for clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace
at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during
daylight hours? 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1000 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
At what minimumaltitude is a turbine-engine-
powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class
D airspace? 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.
(Refer to Figure 97.) Which of the following will
define the position of the RNAV MAP for Greater
Buffalo Intl? 116.4 BUF 286.9°, -3.5 NM. 42° 56.44'N - 78° 38.48' W.
42° 56.26'N - 78° 43.57' W.
(Refer to Figure 205 and 206.) What is the maximum
weight that PTL 55 may weight for landing at San
Francisco Intl (SFO)? 710,000 pounds. 715,000 pounds. 720,000 pounds.
(Refer to Figure 112.) The Cugar Four Arrival ends at BANTY INT. at IAH VORTAC. when cleared to land.
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain
separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a
turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000
feet? 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which
minimums apply. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of
the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour
after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for
the airport.
Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight
plan containing a special or privately owned IAP? Upon approval of ATC. Upon approval of the owner. Upon signing a waiver of ersponsability.
A landing weight increase of 10% will result in 7% increase in kinetic energy. 21% increase in kinetic energy. 33% increase in kinetic energy.
(Refer to Figures 103 and 104.) If communicatiosn are
lost soon after takeoff Rwy 11R at Tucson
Intl, what altitude restrictions apply, in IMC
conditions? Fly assigned heading for vector to intercept
apropriate transition, maintain 17,000 feet to
GBN, then clim to assigned altitude. Fly assigned heading for vector to intercept
the Gila Bend transition; climb 17,000 feet
or lower assigned altitude; vlimb to FL 220, 10
minutes after departure. Fly assigned heading for vectors to intercept
the Gila Bend transition; climb to 17,000 feet;
10 minutes after departure, climb to FL 220 .
When may a pilot execute a missed approach during as
ASR approach? Anytime at the pilot's discretion. Only at the MAP. Only when advised by the controller.
(Refer to Figure 118A.) Identify the final approach
fix on the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky
Harbor Intl. Upon intercepting the glide slope beyong I PHX
5 DME. When crossing I-PHX 5 DME at 3,000 feet. When crossing the SRP VORTAC on the glide
slope.
(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the radius from the
airport of the outer circle ( now called shelf area ),
A? 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.
When cleared to execute a published side-step
maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the
parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected
to commence this maneuver? At the published altitude for a
circling approach. As soon as possible after the wunway or runway
envionment is in sight. At the localixer MDA minimums and when the
runway is in sight.
What is the maximum holding speed for a civil
turbojet at civil airport at 15,000 feet
MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to
turbulence or icing and ATC is notified? 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.
During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you
receive a master caution light after V(R). what
action should you take? Reject the takeoff. Hold the nose down to takeoff speed. Continue the takeoff.
(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate
for circle 2 (top of Class C airspace)? 3,000 feet AGL. 4,000 feet AGL. 3,500 feet AGL.
A what maximum indicated airspeed may a
reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated
within Class D airspace? 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.
(Refer to Figures 195, 195A, 196, and 196A.) All of
the runways at Denver Intl have type of Visual
Gllideslope Indicators? PVASI PAPI APAP.
(Refer to Figure 279 and Legend 9.) What is the
approximate rate of descent required (for planning
purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at
120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15
knots? 635 ft/min. 650 ft/min. 555 ft/min.
As toy rolled out on Runway 30 after landing at
Long Beach (LGB) ( Figures 241 and 242.) you slowed
and turned left on very wide pavement and now and
hold short of Runway 30. you now know you. exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. exited onto Taxiway G. exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.
(Refer to Figure 134.) What is the MINIMUM airbone
equipment required to execute the CONVERGING ILS RWY
9R approach procedure? Localizer and DME. Localizer and glide slope. Localizer only.
Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight
plan comply with authorization to maintain 'VFR on
Top'? Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual
flight rules while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, clouds clearances, and
comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearance,
and comply with applicable instrument flight
rules.
(Refer to Figure 118C.) What instrument approach
light system or RWY lighting system is available for
the LOC BC RWY 26 approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor
Intl? HIRL and REIL. MALS and REIL. SALS and ODALS.
(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoof
run can be expected on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl? Takeoff lenght shortened to 6,986 feet bye
displaced threslhold. Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway
slope to the SE. Takeoff run will be lenghened by the 0.7
percent upslope of the runway.
(Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum in-flight
visibility and distance clouds required for an
airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under
special VFR during daylight hours in the circle 5
area? 1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500
feet. 3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of
cluds; (L) 500 feet. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of
clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
What action should the pilot when 'gate hold'
procedures are in effect? Contact ground control prior to starting
engines for sequencing. Taxi ointo position and hold prior to requesting
clearance. Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and
request clearence prior to leaving the parking
area.
(Refer to Figure 124.) You receive tis ATC clearance:
....CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL....
what is the recommender procedure to enter the holding pattern? Parallel or teardrop. Parallel only. Direct only.
How should an off-arway direct flight be defined on
an IFR flight plan? The initial fix, the true course, and the final
fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will
pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes the
pilot wished to be compulsory reporting points,
and the final fix.
(Refer to Figure 110 and 112.) In addition to VOR
and DME, what other avionics equipment is required
to be operational, at takeoff, to fly the VOR/DME
RWY 32R approach at IAH? Altitude alerting system. standby VOR and DME receivers. VHF communications and transponder equipment.
(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the usual radius from
the airport of the inner circle (now called surface
area), C? 5 miles. 7 miles. 10 miles.
(Refer to Figure 97A.) Greater BUffalo Intl was
closed upon N60JB's arrival and was not expected to
be open for 4 hours, the aircraft must have the
following navigation equipment: Radar and VOR/DME. VOR/DME and ADF. Radar and VOR/ILS/DME.
What is the maximum distance that a departure
alternate airport may be from the departure airport
for atwo-engine airplanes? 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with
both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with
one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with
one engine operating.
Which reports are required when operating IFR in
radar environment? Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable
to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude
reaching a holding fix or point to which
cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable
to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching
a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a
change in average true airspeed exceeding 5
Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/
min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix
or point to which cleared, a change in average
true airspeed exceding 5 percent or 10 knots
and leavibg any assigned holding fix or point.
Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight,m
are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight
crewmembers prohibited.? 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.
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