A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane chould climb
as rapidly as practivable after talking off whet
altitude? 1,000 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL. 5,000 feet AGL.
The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may
hold at is 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.
What is the suggested time interval for filing and
requesting an IFR flight plan. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and
request the clearance not more than 10 minutes
prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and
request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior
to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and
request the clearance at least 10 minutes
prior to taxi.
When the approach procedure involves a procedure
turn the maximum speed that should be observed from
first overheading the course reversal IAF throgh
the procedure turn is 180 knots IAS. 200 knots TAS. 200 knots IAS.
Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person shall correctly annote yhe flight plan. must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan. should file for odd altitudes only.
When must the pilot initiate a missed approach
procedure from an ILS approach? At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly
visible. When the time has expired after reaching the
DA/DH and runway enviroment is not clearly
visible. At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the
intended runway are not distincly visible or
anytime thereafter that reference is
lost.
If begin radar vectored to the final approach cpurse
of a published instrument approach that specifies
'NO PT', the pilot should advice ATC that a procedure turn will not be
executed. not execute the procedure turn unless
specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.
When does ATC issue a STAR? Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.
Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft
at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000
and 14,000 feet is 265 knots. 230 knots. 200 knots.
If ATC requested a speed adjustment that is not
within the operating limits of the aircraft, what
action must the pilot take? Maintain an airspeed within the operating
limitations as clse to the request speed as
possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as
possible, then request a reasonable airspeed
from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
When the forecast weather conditions for a
destination and alternate airport are considered
marginal for a domestic air carrier's operation,
what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot
in coman take? List an airport where the forecast weather is
not maginal as the alternate. Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise
power setting for the airplane is use. List at least one additional alternate airport.
What is the normal procedure for IFR departure at
locations with pretaxi clearance programs? Pilot request IFR clearance when ready to
taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction
with clearance. Pilot request IFR clearance when ready to
taxi. Pilot will receive taxi clearance, then
receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on
runup. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less
prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from
ground control.
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance
from cluds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E
airspace, with a VFR-on-Top clearance during
daylight hours? 3 status miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet
below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 status miles, 1,000 feet above, 1000 feet
below, and 1 mile horizontal. 5 status miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet
below, and 1 mile horizontal.
(Refer to Figure 127.) What is the base the Class
A airspace? 12,000 feet AGL. 14,500 feet AGL FL 180.
An alternate airport for departure is required If weather conditions are below authorized
landing minimums at the departure airport. When the weather forecast at the ETD is for
landing minimums only at the departure airport. When destination weather is marginal VFR
(ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility
less than 5 SM).
(Refer to Figure 128.) What in-flight visibility and
distance from clouds os required for a flight at
8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in VFR
conditions during daylight for the circle 4
area? 1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500
feet. 3 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H)
500 feet. 5 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1,000 feet; (H) 1,000
feet.
(Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) what type of
weather information would normally be expected to be
available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-
Hinckley? Clouds height, weather, obstructions to vision,
temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface
winds, and any pertinent remarks. Clouds bases/tops, obstructions to vision,
altimeter, winds precipitations, and the
intensity of the precipitation. Cloud height, obstructions to vision,
temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, wind dat,
and density altitude.
The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the
runway of intended operation is not reported. what
minimum ground visibility may used instead of the
RVR value? 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM.
(Refer to Figure 107.) How should the IFR flight
plan be closed upon landing at LAX? Contact Hawthorne FSS on 123.6 MHz. Phone Hawthorne FSS on 644-1020. LAX tower will close it automatically.
(Refer to Figure 121 upper panel.) On the airway
J220 (BUF R-155) SE of Buffalo, the MAA is 39,000
feet. What is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM
(lower panel)? 60,000 feet. 43,000 feet. 45,000 feet.
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain
separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a
turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport? 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.
(Refer to Figure 100 or 101.) What is the magnetic
variation at both DFW Intl and IAH? 08 E. 0 08 W.
(Refer to Figure Commercial 58.) You have requested
taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The
Controller issues the following taxi instructions:
''N123, Taxi to runway 16.'' Where are you required to
controller's instructions. 5 (Five) 6 (Six) 9 (Nine).
(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes
below minimums abd New York Approach Control issues
a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT
Intersection RWY 13L/13R approach. What is the distance from
ASALT Interception to Rwy 13L? 11.2 NM. 12.2 NM. 8.6 NM.
(Refer to Figure 205 and 206A.) At San Francisco
Intl (SFO), the runway hold position sign are
all on the left-hand side of the taxiways. all on the right-hand side of the taxiways. on either side of the taxiways.
(Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY
10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope
indication with a groundspeed of 100 knots, what was
the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70? 475 feet per minute. 585 feet per minute. 690 feet per minute.
At what maximum indicated airspeed can a
reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the
airspace underlying Class B airspace? 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.
(Refer to Figure 207 and 207A.) Due to weather PTL
55 was unable to land at SFO. PTL 55 was given radar
vectors to COMMO intersection and clearance to fly
the ILS RWY 1L approach at Oakland Intl. 118.3 and 121.75. 127.2 and 121.75 127.2 and 121.9.
When cleared to execute a published side-step
maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to
commence this maneuver? At the published DH. At the MDA published or a circling approach. As soon as posible after the runway
enviroment is in sight.
(Refer to Figure 172A.) The airport diagram of
Greater Buffalo Intl Airport has a symbol (appears
to be a triangle balanced on top of another
triangle) located close to the end of RWYs 14 and
32. What do these symbols indicate? Helicopter landing areas. That special takeoff and landing minimums apply
to RWYs 14 and 32. RWY Radar Reflectors.
(Refer to Figure 177A.) An air carrier is going to
depart LWS from 29. There are no special company
procedures for this airport. You as pilot in command
know that at at 180 knots ground speed, you must be
able to climb at. 900 fpm with one engine inoperative. 300 fpm with one engine inoperative. 750 fpm with one engine inoperative.
An ATC ' Instructions' is the same as an ATC 'clearance' is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of
requiring a pilot to take a specific action. must be 'read back' in full to the controller
and confirmed before becoming effective.
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training
Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet? IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart. IFR High Altitude En Route Chart. IFR Planning Chart.
An airport way not be qualified for alternate use if the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting. the airport is located next to a restricted or
prohibited area. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are
unmonitored.
What are FDC NOTAMs? Conditions or facilities en route than may
cause delays. Time critical aeronautical information of a
temporary nature from distant centers Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and
charts not yet available in normally published
charts.
(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes
below minimums and New York approach control issues
a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT
Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that
Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT
intersection? 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet.
You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25
certified jet and you see engine oil pressure
caution light as you approach V1. You should continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the
ilumination as an inflight emergency. promply abort the takeoff and plan on only
having asymetrical reserve thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum
reserve thrust for deceleration.
Piltos are not authorised to fly a published RNAV or
RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the
procedure name from the aircraft navigation database, or manually
loaded with each indivisual waypoint in the
correct sequence. the aircraft navigation database, or manually
loaded with each individual waypoint and
verified by the pilot(s). the aircraft navigation database.
(Refer to Figure 168, 353, and 354.) What action
should be taken by the pilot if communications are
lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC? Continue the flight VMC and land as soon
as practicable. Climb to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn
direct to PMM and climb to FL 190. Star right turn within 1 mile of the departure
end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME R-345,
and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after
departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL
190.
When an alternate airport outside the United States
has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed
in a Flag Air Carrier's Operations Specifcations
the minimums weather conditions what will meet the
requirements for takeoff is 800-1-1/2. 600-2 900-1-1/2.
Under what condition does a pilot receive a 'void
time' specified in the clearance? On an uncontrolled airport. When 'gate hold' procedures are in effect. If the clearance is received prior to starting
engines.
What is the maximum indicated airspeed a
reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be
operated within Class B airspace? 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.
(Refer to Figures 100 and 102.) How should the pilot
identify the position to leave V369 for the Cugar
Four Arrival.? Intercept R-305 of IAH. 21 DME miles from TNV. 141 DME miles from DFW.
(Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum in-flight
visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR
conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above
1,200 feeet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle
2 area? 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet, (C) 2,000 feet, (D)
500 feet. 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet, (C) 1 mile, (D) 1000
feet. 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet, (C) 1 mile, (D) 1000
feet.
(Refer to Figure 122.) What would be the DME reading
at lowest altitude at which the glide slope may
be intercepted when authorized bt ATC? 12.4 miles. 9.4 miles. 7.7 miles.
(Refer to Figure 203 and 203A.) PTL 55 will be
unable to cross the Oasis Intersection at 9,500
feet. What should the crew do? Enter holding on R-211 LAS at 15 DME, right-
hand turns, advise Departure Control, climb to
9,500 prior to Oasis. Advise LAs Vegas Departure Control and request
radar vectors. Continue the climb on LAS R-211 to 9,500 feet,
then turn right to 260°.
In what altitude structure is a transponder required
when operating in controlled airspace? Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluiding the airspace
at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 10,500 feet MSL, excluiding the airspace
at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluiding the airspace
at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
(Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 1) is
applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and
outer circles (now called surface and shelf areas)? 3,000 feet AGL. 3,000 feet above airport. 4,000 feet above airport.
A pilot is operating in Class G aispace. If
existing weather conditions are below those for VFR
flight, and IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC
clearance received prior to. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR
minimums. entering controlled airspace. entering IFR weather conditions.
(Refer to Figure 128.) What is the minimum in-flight
visibility and distance from clouds required for a
VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200
feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 3
area? 2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H)
500 feet. 5 milest; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H)
500 feet. 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H)
500 feet.
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