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PP 2023 EPG Meteorology

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del test:
PP 2023 EPG Meteorology

Descripción:
Meteorology

Autor:
AVATAR

Fecha de Creación:
31/10/2022

Categoría:
Arte

Número preguntas: 100
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Temario:
1) If the outside air temperature and the dew point temperature are close together then (Ref: 2.1.5) a) The chance of cloud formation is high b) Thunderstorm clouds will form c) The chance of cloud formation is low d) The air is unstable.
2) During which stage of a thunderstorm does thunder and lightning appear: (Ref: 2.1.12) a) Developing stage b) Mature stage c) Dissipating stage d) All three stages.
3) When flying visually around thunderstorm clouds you should avoid them by: (Ref: 2.1.12) a) At least 5 miles b) At least 10 miles c) At least 2 miles d) At least 500 feet.
4) When the temperatures are colder than normal you can expect an altimeter to:(Ref: 2.1.13) a) Read correctly as the altimeter depends on air pressure and not air temperature for its operation b) Over read as the rate of drop of pressure with altitude will be higher than normal c) Over read as the rate of drop of pressure with altitude will be lower than normal d) Under read.
5) Climbing from sea level the atmospheric pressure can be expected to drop off at approximately: (Ref: 2.1.13) a) 2 in Hq per 1,000' b) 1.98 in Ha per 1,000' c) 1 hPa per 1,000' d) 1 in Hg per 1,000'.
6) With the passage of a cold front, the wind can be expected to: (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Veer and increase b) Veer and decrease c) Back and increase d) Back and decrease.
7) When descending to land at night, strong winds which were evident en route can be expected to: (Ref; 2.1.6) a) Decrease in strength and back b) Increase in strength and back c) Decrease in strength and veer d) Increase in strength and veer.
8) When returning to your home airport at 2,000 feet, you notice that smoke from a bullding near to the airport is rising up and then spreading out at about 1,000 feet. This phenomenon indicates: (Ref: 2.1.3) a) There is a temperature inversion and that a lot of convective turbulence can be expected b) There is a temperature inversion and that wind shear can be expected c) There is a steep temperature gradient and that a lot of thermal turbulence can be expected d) a) and b).
9) Which of the following correctly reflects the relationship between the environmental lapse rate and stability of an air mass: (Ref: 2.1.3) a) The steeper the environmental lapse rate, the more stable the air mass b) The shallower the environmental lapse rate, the more stable the air mass c) Stability of an air mass is only dependent on the moisture content and has nothing to do with the lapse rate d) An air mass will be unstable only if the environmental lapse rate is zero.
10) In a weather report the cloud cover is reported as 7000' broken. This means: (Ref: 2.1.7) a) The cloud is classified as low level cloud and covers 5/8 to 7/8 of the sky b) The cloud is classified as middle level cloud and covers 2/8 to 4/8 of the sky c) The cloud is classified as low level cloud and covers 2/8 to 4/8 of the sky d) The cloud is classified as middle level cloud and covers 5/8 to 7/8 of the sky.
11)The amount of water which a given volume of air at a certain pressure can hold is determined by its: (Ref: 2.1.5) a) Dewpoint b) Temperature c) Relative humidity d) Stability.
12) While flying in icing conditions, ice will probably first accumulate on: (Ref: 2.1.15) a) Wings b) Stabilizer surfaces c) Windshield d) Antennae.
13) The SAL is lower than the DALR because: (Ref: 2.1.3) a) The air is warmed by the heat released as a result of the evaporation of water droplets b) The air is cooled by the heat absorbed as a result of the evaporation of water droplers c) The air is warmed by the heat released as a result of the condensation of water vapour d) The air is cooled by the heat absorbed as a result of the condensation of water droplets.
14) On a surface pressure chart, areas in which the isobars are closely spaced are likely to experience: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) High wind speeds b) Small pressure changes c) Light and variable winds d) Perfect conditions for a temperature inversion.
15) When flying through a cold front, in order to maintain track (Ref: 2.1.11) a) A heading correction to the left is required b) A heading correction to the right is required c) No heading correction is required d) A heading correction either to the left or right is required depending whether one is flying from the cold side of the front or the warm side of the front.
16)The altimeter reads 2,300 feet with the local altimeter setting being 30.17. The outside air temperature is 27°C. The pressure altitude is feet (Ref: 2.1.13) a) 2,050 b) 2.550 c) 3,900 d) 4,500.
17) AWOS stations are: (Ref: 2.1.14.2) a) Located within 5 m of aerodromes b) All located on aerodromes c) Located within 10 nm of aerodromes d) Located in remote areas only.
18) The maximum visibility for weather reports based on AWOS observations is: (Ref:2.1.14.2) a) 6sm b) 9 sm c) 12 sm d) 15 sm.
19) Which of the following types of clouds are classified as being clouds of great vertica development? (Ref: 2.1.7) a) Stratus b) Nimbostratus c) Cirrus d) Cumulonimbus.
20) Given that the temperature at your destination is 23°C and the dewpoint is 15°C, a reasonable estimate for the base of convective clouds which may form is: (Ref: 2.1.7) a) 5.200 feet AGL b) 2,600 feet AGL c) 4.000 feet AGL d) 8,000 feet AGL.
21) At night, as a result of _____ cooling of the surface of the earth, a _____ type of wind will blow (Ref: 2.1.8) a) Convective, anabatic b) Adiabatic, katabatic c) Radiation, katabatic d) Radiation, anabatic.
22) Aircraft performance will be most adversely affected by: (Ref: 2.1.13) a) High temperatures and high pressures b) High temperatures and low pressures c) Low temperatures and low pressures d) Low temperatures and high pressures.
23)A terminal area forecast deals with weather within _____ miles of an aerodrome (Ref:2.1.14.6) a) 5 b) 10 c) 20 d) 25.
24) A surface low is associated with: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) Calm conditions b) High temperatures c) Descending air d) Ascending air.
25) The abbreviation BR on a METAR or TAF would indicate: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) a) There is cloud at ground level and visibility is less than 5/8 SM b) There is a breeze blowing (<5 knots) c) There is cloud at ground level and visibility is greater than 5/8 SM d) The cloud layer to which the abbreviation refers is "broken".
26) Flying from Vancouver to Port Hardy (ie flying west) you experience a strong headwind. This indicates: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) There is a low pressure area to the north b) There is a low pressure area to the south c) There is a low pressure area to the east d) There is a low pressure area to the west.
27) The abbreviation VRB as used in a TAF means: (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) The wind is 3 knots or less b) The wind is variable in direction c) The wind speed is variable d) a) and/or b).
28) In a TAF, a forecast visibility of 18SM is shown as: (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) 18SM b) P15SM c) P5SM d) P6SM.
29) Convert 25°C to : (Ref: 2.1.5) a) 77 °F b) 57 °F c) 87 °F d) 46 °F.
30) Which of the following cloud types will be associated with steady rain and poor visibility? (Ref: 2.1.7) a) Cumulonimbus b) Nimbostratus c) Stratocumulus d) Altocumulus.
31) Which of the following clouds is normally associated with a cold front in which the warm air mass is moist and unstable? (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus b) Cirrostratus c) Nimbostratus d) None of the above.
32) On a TAF, the gust speed is reported: (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) If the gust strength is forecast to exceed the mean wind speed by more than 10 knots b) If the gust strength is forecast to exceed the mean wind speed by more than 5 knots c) If the gust strength is forecast to exceed the mean wind speed by more than 2 knots d) If the direction of the wind changes by more than 30°.
33) Frontolysis is: (Ref: 2.1.11) a) The process of front formation b) The slope of the frontal surface above the surface of the earth c) The process of dissipation of a front d) The study of fronts and their development.
34) Advection fog forms when: (Ref: 2.1.9) a) Moist air which is sinking is cooled adiabatically and condensation therefore occurs close to the ground b) Cold moist air moves over a warm land mass c) Warm moist air moves over a cool surface and condensation occurs d) Rain falls from a warm air mass into cold air below saturating the cold air so that fog forms .
35) Under which of the following conditions is radiation fog is most likely to form? (Ref: 2.1.9) a) Light wind (< 5 knots), clear night sky, small temperature and dew point spread b) Light wind (10-15 knots), clear skies, high relative humidity c) Moderate wind, cloudy night skies, low relative humidity d) Calm conditions, clear night skies, high relative humidity.
36) When flying towards a warm winter front at low level, you encounter snow. You will most likely encounter ______, _____, _____ in sequence as you pass through the front. (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Rain, freezing rain, ice pellets b) Freezing rain, ice pellets, snow c) Ice pellets, freezing rain, rain d) Rain, ice pellets, freezing rain.
37) The bases of low level cloud (strato type clouds) are _____ the bases of middle clouds (alto type clouds) are _____ while the bases of high level clouds (cirro type clouds) are ____ (Ref: 2.1.7) a) MSL; 10,000 feet ASL and above; 25,000 feet ASL and above b) Surface to 10,000 feet; 10,000 feet AGL and above; 25,000 feet AGL and above c) MSL; 6,500 feet ASL and above; 20,000 feet ASL and above d) Surface to 6,500 feet; 6,500 feet AGL and above; 20,000 feet AGL and above.
38) With the passage of a cold front, the wind will ____ and with the passage of a warm front, the wind will ______ (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Veer, back b) Back, veer c) Back, back d) Veer, veer.
39) stratiform cloud at a warm tront indicates that; (Ref: 2,1.11) a) The air in the cold sector is moist and stable b) The air in the warm sector is moist and stable c) The air in the warm sector is moist and unstable d) The air in the cold sector is dry and stable.
40) Which of the following conditions are necessary for thunderstorm formation? (Ref: 2.1.12) a) A source of lifting, an unstable, moist airmass b) A source of lifting, a stable, moist airmass c) A cold front with moist unstable air in the cold airmass d) A warm front with moist stable air in the warm airmass.
41) The direction of rotation of air around a depression is due to: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) Buys Ballots law b) Fennels law c) Coriolis forces d) The direction of rotation of the moon.
42) The term CAVOK as used in ATIS messages means: (Ref: AIM RAC 1.4) a) No cloud below 3,000', no precipitation, Cb's or thunderstorm activity, no fog or drifting snow and a visibility of 15 miles or more b) No cloud below 5,000', no precipitation, Cb's or thunderstorm activity, no fog or drifting snow and a visibility of 5 miles or more c) No cloud below 5,000', no precipitation, Cb's or thunderstorm activity, no fog or drifting snow and a visibility of 6 miles or more d) None of the above.
43) A special METAR was issued at 1514Z to be followed by another at 1548Z. The reason for issuing the special report at 1548Z was: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) The visibility increased from 1 ½ miles to 2 ½ miles b) The ceiling increased from 500 to 8,000 feet c) The scattered cloud base rose from 200 feet to 600 feet d) a) and b) above.
44) The TAF is valid: (Ref: 2.1.14.6) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) From 1700z on the 23rd day of the month to 1800Z on the 23rd day of the month b) From 1700z on the 23rd day of the month to 1300Z on the 24th day of the mont c) From 1700z on the 23rd day of the month to 1800Z on the 24th day of the month d) From 2300Z on the 17th day of the month to 1700Z on the 18th day of the month.
45) The dewpoint temperature at 1700Z is: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) 18°C b) 19°C c) 21°C d) 84°F.
46) The forecast visibility at 1730Z on the 23rd is: (Ref: 2.1.14.6) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) P6SM b) 3 SM c) 4 SM d) 1 ½ SM.
47) The local altimeter setting is: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) Cannot tell anything about the altimeter setting trends from the attached reports b) Increasing c) Decreasing d) Staying constant.
48) A SIGMET is issued when: (Ref: 2.1.14.8) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) The reported weather at a station changes in between the times when METAs are issued b) To warn pilots of potentially hazardous meteorological conditions such as thunderstorms c) Every 6 hours d) None of the above.
49) Which types of cloud are reported during the period shown: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) METAR CYKF 231700Z 22010KT 4SM BR HZ FEW006 BKN040 BKN100 OVC120 21/19 A2977 RMK SF1SC4ACIAS2 INTMT -RA ACC ASOCTD SLP084 SPECI CYKF 231626Z 23012KT 4SM -RA BR FEW0O6 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 SPECI CYKF 231622Z 23012KT 4SM BR FEW006 SCT040 BKN080 OVC100 RMK SF1SC3AC1AS2 METAR CYKF 231600Z 20007KT 2 1/25M BR SCT006 SCT080 OVC100 19/18 A2978 RMK SF3AC1AS3 SLP087 SPECI CYKF 231548Z 22007KT 2 1/2SM BR SCTO06 BKNO80 BKN100 OVC250 RMK SF4AC1AS2CI1 SPECI CYKF 231514Z 20005KT 1 1/2SM BR SCT002 BKN005 OVCO8O RMK SF3SC4AC1 VSBY SW-NW2-2½ SM TAF AMD CYKF 231713Z 2317/2318 23012KT P6SM FEW006 BKNO8O TEMPO 2317/2318 35M -RA BR OVC010 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 241145Z= a) Stratocumulus b) Stratofractus c) Altocumulus, altostratus d) All of the above.
50) Calculate the base of the clouds and the freezing level within the clouds given that the outside air temperature is 10°C and the dewpoint temperature is 7°C. (Ref: 2.1.7) a) 1,500 feet, 5,600 feet b) 2,000 feet, 6,600 feet c) 1,500 feet, 4,600 feet d) 1,000 feet, 5,600 feet.
51) Frontogenesis is: (Ref: 2.1.11) a) The formation of a front b) The dissipation of a front c) The change of wind direction as one flies through a front d) None of the above.
52) What sort of wind shift and pressure changes are expected with the passage of a cold front? (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Wind veer, pressure drop followed by a pressure rise b) Wind back, pressure drop followed by a pressure rise c) Wind veer, pressure drop d) Wind back, pressure rise.
53) What sort of wind shift and pressure changes are expected with the passage of a warm front? (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Wind veer, pressure drop followed by a pressure rise b) Wind back, pressure drop followed by a pressure rise c) Wind veer, pressure drop d) Wind veer, pressure rise.
54) Wind direction forecast in a TAF: (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) Is referenced to magnetic north b) Is referenced to true north c) Is based on a measurement at 1,000' AGL d) Both b) and c).
55) GFAs are issued: (Ref: 2.1.14.4) a) Every 24 hours b) Every 12 hours c) Every 6 hours d) Every hour.
56) GFAs forecast weather below: (Ref: 2.1.14.4) a) 10,000 feet b) 18,000 feet c) 24.000 feet d) 30,000 feet.
57) A GFA consists of: (Ref: 2.1.14.4) a) A prognosis (short term forecast) as well as a outlook (mid term forecast) b) Three charts - a near term forecast, a 6 hour forecast and a 12 hour forécast for clouds and weather c) Sin charts - a near term forecast, a 6 hour forecast and a 12 hour forecast firstly for clouds and weather and secondly for icing, turbulence and freezing level d) An analysis for the latest reported weather, a prognosis (short term forecast) and an outlook (mid term forecast).
For the next 3 questions (58, 59, 60) refer to the GFA supplied in appendix B1 58) What type of weather is expected over portions of Hudson Bay? (Ref: 2.1.14.4) a) Rain showers with mist b) Continuous rain and snow with mist c) Light rain and snow showers with mist d) Thunderstorms.
For the next 3 questions (58, 59, 60) refer to the GFA supplied in appendix B1 59) What is the ceiling over Toronto? (Ref: 2.1.14.4) a) 12,000 feet b) 3,000 feet c) 6.000 feet d) 24,000 feet.
For the next 3 questions (58, 59, 60) refer to the GFA supplied in appendix B1 60) What is the surface pressure in the Toronto area? (Ref: 2.1.14.4) a) 1004 hPa b) 1008 hPa c) 1014 hPa d) 1020 hPa.
Refer to the weather information in appendix B2 for the following 6 questions (61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66) 61) What weather is reported for Vancouver International at 0600Z? (Ref: 2.1.14.3) a) Mist b) Mist and light rain c) Shallow fog d) Mist changing to fog.
Refer to the weather information in appendix B2 for the following 6 questions (61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66) 62) What conditions in the Vancouver TAF are most likely leading to the improved visibility from 1000Z? (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) Increasing temperature b) Widening temperature dewpoint spread c) Increased wind strength d) None of the above.
Refer to the weather information in appendix B2 for the following 6 questions (61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66) 63) what are the forecast. winds at Port Hardy at 3,000 feet at1300Z ? (Ref. 21.29.5) a) 99 knots from 3600 b) 19 knots from 2300 c) 23 knots from 1900 d) Light and variable.
Refer to the weather information in appendix B2 for the following 6 questions (61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66) 64) What change Will occur at Victoria International between 1000Z and 1200Z ? (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) There will be a sudden increase in visibility b) There is a 30% chance that there will be a marked increase in the ceiling c) There will be a sudden change in the ceiling d) There will be a gradual dissipation of the clouds over the two hour period.
Refer to the weather information in appendix B2 for the following 6 questions (61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66) 65) What is the most probable reason for the issue of the special report for Victoria at 0709z? (Ref: 2.1.14.3) a) Wind shift of 30° or more b) Increased surface temperature c) Improved ceiling d) Reduction in the total cloud coverage.
Refer to the weather information in appendix B2 for the following 6 questions (61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66) 66) What change is forecast at Tofino during the forecast period? (Ref: 2.1.14.6) a) Temporary decrease in visibility and drop in ceiling from 0001Z b) Temporary decrease in visibility and drop in ceiling between 0000Z and 0100Z c) Decrease in wind strength to light and variable between 0000Z and 0100Z d) None of the above.
67) What type of weather is associated with a warm front in which the warm air sector is made up of moist, stable air? (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Cumulonimbus b) Thunderstorms c) Nimbostratus and widespread rain d) Showery weather.
68) Which of the following charts are NOT forecasts? (Ref: 2.1.14) a) Upper air analysis charts b) Significant weather charts c) GFA's d) None of the above.
69)A squall line is: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) A long trough of low pressure b) A line along which there is a rapid change of wind speed or direction c) A series of cold fronts which generate thunderstorm activity d) A long line of thunderstorms and squalls.
70) The process by which water changes from ice to the gaseous state is known as: (Ref: 2.1.5) a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Sublimation d) Deposition.
71) METARs are issued: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) a) Every hour b) Every 3 hours c) Every 6 hours d) Every 12 hours.
72) On low level wind forecasts (FDs): (Ref: 2.1.14.5) a) The wind direction is given in degrees from true north b) The wind direction is given in degrees from magnetic north c) The temperature is given for all levels d) The numbers 9900 indicate that the wind direction has not been measured.
73) The abbreviation RETS on a METAR indicates: (Ref: 2.1.14.3) a) Recent thunderstorms b) Recent turbulence c) Ridge of excessively turbulent shear d) None of the above - it is a misprint.
74) You arrive at the airport to find that the aircraft is ice covered and decide to have it towed into a warm hanger to allow the ice to thaw and to be removed. In doing this there is the potential danger of: (Ref: 2.1.15) a) Cracking the windshield b) Any water which collects in the hinges and other places refreezing when the aircraft is removed from the hanger c) Water entering the fuel d) Condensation on the cold instruments causing corrosion of the internals of the instruments.
75) The principle air masses which together with their associated fronts affect Canada's weather (in order from North to South) are: (Ref: 2.1.10) a) mT, mP, cA, CP b) cP, mP, cA, mA c) cA, mA, mP, cP d) cA, mA, mP, mT.
76) The name of a front is derived from: (Ref: 2.1.11) a) The name of the invading air mass irrespective of whether it is hot or cold b) The name of the unstable air mass c) The name of the warm air mass d) The name of the cold air mass.
77) Precipitation falling from a warm air mass into a cold air mass can lead to the formation of: (Ref: 2.1.9) a) Advection fog b) Radiation fog c) Precipitative fog d) Frontal fog.
78) Clouds are formed by the lifting of air leading to adiabatic cooling. Orographic lifting of the air is produced by: (Ref: 2.1.7 & 2.1.12) a) Convergence of airmasses causing the air from the two airmasses to rise as it has nowhere else to go b) Air mass moving over rising terrain c) Differential heating of terrain features leading to convective lifting of air masses d) Coriolis forces associated with the rotation of the earth.
79)The key difference between a gust and a squall is: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) A gust involves a change of direction of an air current whereas a squall is simply a change in the strength of an air current b) A squall is associated with a squall line whereas a gust need not be associated with this phenomenon c) A gust is a rapid fluctuation of wind strength and/or direction whereas a squall is a change of a longer duration d) A squall is a rapid fluctuation of wind strength and/or direction whereas a gust is a change of a longer duration.
80) The severity of the weather associated with a cold front depends on the stability of the warm air mass and: (Ref: 2.1.11) a) The speed at which the cold air is advancing and the moisture content of the warm air mass b) The speed at which the warm air is advancing and the moisture content of the cold air mass c) The speed at which the cold air is advancing and the moisture content of the cold air mass d) The speed at which the warm air is advancing and the moisture content of the warm air mass.
81) Which of the following is correct? (Ref: 2.1.12) a) A microburst is a downburst with a duration of less than 5 minutes and a diameter of less than 2 nautical miles b) A macroburst is a downburst with a duration of between 5 and 20 minutes and a diameter of more than 2 nautical miles c) Both microbursts and macrobursts are downbursts from thunderstorms characterised by a downward rush of air and an spreading out of potentially damaging winds on the ground d) All of the above.
82) Increased performance windshear on final approach requires a (Ref: 2.1.12) a) Power increase b) Power decrease c) Power decrease followed by a power increase d) Power increase followed by a power decrease.
83)The dewpoint is: (Ref: 2.1.5) a) The temperature at which air will become saturated if it is cooled to that temperature at constant pressure b) The temperature at which condensation will begin if air is cooled to that temperature at constant pressure c) The temperature at which the relative humidity of the air will reach 100% d) All of the above.
84) With the passage of a warm front, the dew point can be expected to: (Ref: 2.1.11) a) Increase b) Decrease c) The change depends on the relative moisture contents of the air masses involved in the frontal activity d) None of the above.
85) A decreased performance windshear is associated with: (Ref: 2.1.12) a) Increasing tailwind b) Decreasing headwind c) A decreasing tailwind d) Both a) and b) above.
86) An elongated area of high pressure is known as: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) A trough b) A ridge c) A col d) A saddle.
87) Which of the following is correct with respect to the heating of the lower levels of the atmosphere? (Ref: 2.1.2) a) The earth absorbs short wave radiation from the sun b) The atmosphere absorbs long wave radiation from the earth c) The atmosphere absorbs very little short wave radiation d) All of the above.
88) Aircraft performance is adversely affected by: (Ref: 2.1.13) a) Increased temperature, increased altitude and increased pressure b) Decreased temperature, increased altitude and decreased pressure c) Increased temperature, increased altitude and decreased pressure d) Decreased temperature, decreased altitude and decreased pressure.
89) Ceiling is defined as the height of the base of the lowest cloud covering: (Ref: 2.1.7) a) 3/8 or more of the sky b) 4/8 or more of the sky c) 5/8 or more of the sky d) 8/8 of the sky.
90) Which of the following hazards can be expected on the lee side of a mountain range: (Ref: 2.1.8) a) Altimeter will over read in mountain waves b) Strong downdrafts c) Severe turbulence d) All of the above.
91) At high altitude, the winds blow parallel to the isobars while at lower altitudes over land, they cross the isobars. This is because of: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) Coriolis forces b) Surface friction c) Both a) and b) above d) Temperature gradient in the lower atmosphere.
92) What percentage of the earth's atmosphere lies below 18,000 feet: (Ref: 2.1.1) a) 10% b) 25% c) 33% d) 50%.
93) Moist air moving onto the west coast of Canada from the Pacific Ocean is most likely to form ____ fog: (Ref: 2.1.9) a) Advection b) Upslope c) Steam d) Ground.
94) Increased performance windshear is associated with: (Ref: 2.1.12) a) Increasing headwind b) Decreasing tailwind c) Increasing tailwind d) a) and b) above.
95) If a surface high is present then the air above the surface will be: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) Subsiding b) Ascending c) Advecting d) Converging.
96) Wind direction information provided in a ______ is measured relative to magnetic north: (Ref: 2.1.14) a) METAR b) AWOS broadcast c) ATIS broadcast d) Both b) and c).
97) The environmental, dry adiabatic (DALR) and saturated adiabatic (SALR) lapse rates are: (Ref: 2.1.3) a) 1°/1000', 1½°/1000', 1.98°/1000' b) 1½°/1000', 1.98°/1000', 1.98°/1000' c) 3°/1000', 1½°/1000', 1.98°/1000' d) 1.98°/1000', 3°/1000', 1½°/1000'.
98) Landing at an aerodrome when there are thunderstorms in the vicinity of (but not overhead) the aerodrome can be hazardous because of: (Ref: 2.1.12) a) Strong vertical and horizontal wind shear associated with the convective activity and the downdrafts b) Lightning which may strike the aircraft c) Icing could easily occur drastically reducing the performance of the aircraft and raising the stalling speed d) Potential hail damage.
99) When severe turbulence is reported, ATS will broadcast a: (Ref: 2.1.14.7 & 2.1.14.8) a) SIGMET b) AIRMET c) LWIS d) SPECI.
100) The clockwise rotation of the air around a high pressure system and anti-clockwise rotation of the air around a low pressure system in the northern hemisphere is as a result of: (Ref: 2.1.6) a) The Buys Ballot effect b) Gyroscopic precession c) Coriolis force d) Gravitational variations.
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