1) A result of___or higher is considered a pass for the Private Pilot Written Examination (Ref: 1.1.1) a) 50 % b) 60 % c) 70 % d) 80 %.
2) In order to be issued a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) you will need to have_____hours of solo cross-country time (Ref: 1.1.1) a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 8.
3) In order for the holder of a landplane rating to acquire a seaplane rating on an aircraft which requires one crewmember, you will require ____ hours of training including _____ hours of dual flight instruction and
solo takeoffs and landings (Ref: 1.1.5) a) 7, 5, 5 b) 5, 5, 5 c) 5, 3, 10 d) 7, 5, 10.
4) In order for the holder of a seaplane rating to acquire a landplane rating on an aircraft which requires one crewmember, you will require ____ hours of training including _____ hours of dual flight instruction and ____ solo takeoffs and landings(Ref:1.1.5) a) 7, 5, 5 b) 3, 2, 5 c) 5, 3, 10 d) 7, 5, 10.
5) A blanket type rating (Ref: 1.1.6) a) Can be issued to cover high performance aircraft b) Can be issued to cover all aeroplanes with a minimum flight crew of one pilot c) Can be issued to cover two crew aeroplanes d) Can be issued to cover all aeroplanes with a minimum flight crew of one pilot, excluding high performance aeroplanes.
6) In order to obtain a private pilot licence, at least a category _____ medical is required (Ref: 1.1.1)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4.
7) The minimum age required to hold a private pilot licence is: (Ref: 1.1.1) a) 14 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18.
8) In order to meet the experience requirements; the applicant for a private pilot licence shall have a minimum of ____ hours of dual flight instruction and ____ hours of solo flight time which must include a solo cross country of at least ___ nm with at least 2 full stop landings (Ref: 1.1.1) a) 17, 12, 150 b) 18, 27, 300 c) 12, 18, 150 d) 23, 12, 150.
9) A Private Pilot Licence without additional ratings enables a pilot to: (Ref: 1.1.2) a) Fly as pilot in command VFR OTT and at night b) Fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any single engine aircraft which is not a high performance aircraft c) Fly as pilot in command or as co-pilot of an aeroplane of a class and type in respect of
which the pilots licence is endorsed with the appropriate ratings d) Fly as pilot in command or co-pilot on an aircraft engaged in providing an air taxi service.
10) When flying VFR by day in a control zone (CTR), the minimum allowable visibility is ____ while the minimum horizontal distance from cloud is ____ and the minimum vertical distance from cloud is ____ (Ref: 1.1.9) a) 1 mile, 1 mile, 500 feet b) 3 miles, 2 miles, 1,000 feet c) 3 miles, 2 miles, 500 feet d) 3 miles, 1 mile, 500 feet.
11) When under CVFR Within controlled low level airspace above 12,500 feet, you should set the transponder to mode A, code ___ plus mode C (Ref: 1.1.12) a) 1000 b) 1200 c) 1400 d) 2000.
12) The correct content and sequence of a VFR position report are: (Ref; 1.1.14) a) Identification, time, position, altitude, VFR, next reporting point and ETA, destination b) Identification, position, time, VFR, next reporting point and ETA, name only of next succeeding reporting point, remarks c) Identification, time, position, altitude, VFR, next reporting point and ETA d) Identification, position, time, altitude, VFR, destination.
13) You are back tracking on the active runway at an aerodrome for take off and see a red flashing light from the tower. This means: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Stop b) Return to the starting point on the aerodrome c) Aerodrome unsafe for take off d) Taxi clear of the runway.
14) Night as defined in the Canadian Aviation Regulations is: (Ref: 1.1.3) a) The period during which the sun's disc is more than 6° below the horizon b) The period during which the sun's disc is more than 3° below the horizon c) The period from one hour after sunset to one hour prior to sun rise d) The period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes prior to sun rise.
15) Following an emergency landing, the ELT: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Should not be activated manually as it is automatically activated by a G-switch b) Should be switched on after the search and rescue time on the flight plan c) Should be switched on as soon as posible and left on d) Should be switched on for the first 5 minutes of every hour.
16) Who can demand that a licence, certificate or permit issued in terms of the Canadian Aviation Regulations is produced? (Ref: 1.1.8) a) Any flight instructor or holder of a more senior pilot licence b) An aerodrome operator c) An immigration officer, peace officer or the minister d) Any class one flight instructor, DFTE or Transport Canada Inspector.
17) When operating at and in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome for which an ATF has not been published the correct frequency to use is: (Ref: 1.1.16) a) 122.7 MHZ b) 122.8 MHZ c) 123.2 MHZ d) 123.3 MHZ.
18) When there is a forest fire, your flight path is restricted as follows (Ref: 1.1.12) a) You may not operate below 1,000 feet within 10 nautical miles of the forest fire area b) You may not operate below 3,000 feet within 5 nautical miles of the forest fire area c) You may not operate below 5,000 feet within 5 nautical miles of the forest fire area d) You may not operate below 3,000 feet within 10 nautical miles of the forest fire area.
19) You are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and see flashing red lights from the tower. This means: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Airport unsafe, do not land for the time being b) Continue circling c) Route to an alternate airport d) Stop.
20) If intercepted by a military aircraft, your actions should be to: (Ref: 1.1.13) a) Follow instructions, respond to signals, if posible notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU), attempt to establish radio comunication with the intercepting aircraft on 121.5 MHz and squawk Mode A 7700 on the transponder (if so equipped) b) Follow instructions, respond to signals and attempt to contact the aircraft on 121.5 MHz c) Squawk Mode A 7700, attempt to establish radio comunications with the intercepting aircraft and only if this is unsuccessful then respond to the signals d) Signal to the intercepting aircraft that you are contacting the appropriate ATSU and having informed the ATSU of the situation, respond to the intercepting aircraft's signals and instructions.
21) Choose the most correct statement regarding alcohol consumption and acting as a crew member on board an aircraft: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) You should not act as a crew member of an aircraft within 12 hours of consuming any alcohol b) You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft within 24 hours of consuming any alcohol c) You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft within 48 hours of consuming any alcohol d) You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol nor within 12 hours of consuming alcohol.
22) In the Southern domestic airspace, altitude selection above an altitude of ______ feet AGL for VFR flights is based on magnetic track (Ref: 1.1.14) a) 2,000 feet b) 2,500 feet c) 3,000 feet d) 3,500 feet.
23) If you change your address, you are required to notify Transport Canada within: (Ref: 1.1.8) a) 7 days b) 14 days c) 30 days d) 60 days.
24) choose the correct statement relating to the dropping of an object from an aircraft: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) You may never drop any object from an aircraft b) An object may only be dropped from an aircraft if it is done in a manner so as not to create a hazard to persons or property c) An object may only be dropped if permission is obtained from "the minister" d) Both b) and c) above.
25) The primary difference between an aerodrome and an airport is: (Ref: 1.1.18) a) Instrument approaches are permitted at airports but not at aerodromes b) Airports have control towers and ATC whereas aerodromes do not c) An airport is simply an aerodrome for which a Canadian Aviation Document is in force d) None of the above.
26) You are on the apron at an airport.You see a green flashing signal light directed at you.This means: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Cleared to taxi b) Cleared for take off c) Taxi to the customs inspection area d) Stop.
27) When taking off from an aerodrome located in the Standard Pressure Region and climbing to cruising altitude/level within the Standard Pressure Region, the altimeter should be: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Set to the standard value of 29.92 b) Set to the airport altimeter setting c) Set to the airport altimeter setting and reset to the standard value of 29.92 when safely clear of all obstacles as identified by the appropriate chart d) Set to the airport altimeter setting and left at this value until just prior to leveling off at the target altitude.
28) When flying in cruise flight from Altimeter Setting Region to the Standard Pressure Region: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) The altimeter should be set to 29.92 just prior to entering the Standard Pressure Region b) The altimeter should be set to current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route c) The altimeter should be set to 29.92 when leveling off for cruise in the Altimeter Setting Region d) The altimeter should be set to 29.92 just after entering the Standard Pressure Region.
29) Flights operating within or into the ADIZ require: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Prior permission b) Require a Defense Flight Plan or Itinerary to be filed c) The pilot to monitor 121.5 MHz while within the ADIZ d) All of the above.
30) A pilot is planning a VFR flight in the Southern Domestic Alrspace and the following information is relevant to the flight
TAS: 160 knots
Planned track: 1970(T)
Variation: 220 E
Wind: 100/40
An appropriate cruising altitude would be: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) 6,000 feet b) 6,500 feet c) 7,000 feet d) 7,500 feet.
31) Which of the following actions is NOT required if you are intercepted in the air? (Ref: 1.1.13) a) Squawk 7500 mode A b) Follow instructions given by the intercepting aircraft c) Attempt to contact the intercepting aircraft on 121.5 MHZ d) Attempt to contact the appropriate ATSU.
32) A low level airway is____ airspace and extends from ____ AGL to up to____. (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Controlled, ground level, 18,000 feet b) Uncontrolled, 2,200 feet, 18,000 feet c) Controlled, 2,200 feet, but not including 18,000 feet d) Controlled, 2,200 feet, 18,000 feet.
33) A control zone normally extends upwards from the surface of the earth to ____(Ref:1.1.12) a) 1,000 feet b) 2,000 feet c) 3,000 feet d) 5,000 feet.
34) A low level air-route is _____ airspace and extends from_____ upwards to_____.(Ref: 1.1.12) a) Controlled, the surface of the earth, but not including 18,000 feet b) Uncontrolled, 2,200 feet AGL, 18,000 feet c) Uncontrolled, the surface of the earth, but not including 18,000 feet d) Controlled, 2,200 feet AGL, 18,000 feet.
35) The maximum allowable speed within 10 nm of a controlled airport is ____ when below 3,000 feet (Ref: 1.1.12) a) 200 KTAS b) 250 KTAS c) 250 KIAS d) 200 KIAS.
36) The maximum allowable speed below 10,000 feet AL within controlled airspace is: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) 200 KTAS b) 250 KTAS c) 200 KIAS d) 250 KIAS.
37) Following an accident, you may move the aircraft or components thereof in order to: (Ref: 1.1.19) a) Recover passenger luggage b) To extricate a person and prevent damage by fire c) To take photographs of the damage
d) To recover your flight planning documentation.
38) A reportable accident is an accident resulting directly from the operation of an aircraft where _____ (Ref: 1.1.19) a) A person is killed or sustains injury as a result of being on board b) An aircraft sustains damage which adversely affects the structural strength of the aircraft c) An aircraft is missing or inaccessible d) Any of the above.
39) When inbound to an aerodrome where an airport control service is NOT provided: (Ref: 1.1.16) a) IFR aircraft have priority b) The aerodrome should be approached from the upwind side or may join directly on downwind if no conflict exists c) When joining the circuit from the upwind side, you should plan to cross the runway at no less than 2,000 feet above aerodrome elevation d) Final descent to circuit altitude should be made on the downwind leg.
40) If you fall to attalin a passing grade on your first attempt at the Private Pilot written examination, then you must wait for a period of ___ days before you are permitted to
rewrite the examination (Ref: 1.1.1) a) 7 b) 14 c) 30 d) 60.
41) Which of the following is true with respect to ECG requirements for the issue of a category III medical which is the minimum requirement for a private pilot licence? (Ref: 1.1.1) a) It is required at the first examination after the applicant has attained the age of 40 years and within 4 years of every medical thereafter b) For applicants between the age of 30 and 40, an ECG is required every 5 years c) For applicants over 40, an ECG is required every 2 months d) An ECG is required at every initial application and every second renewal application thereafter.
42) Consider the following NOTAM extract: NOTAMN CYVR VANCOUVER INTL CYVR ILS 08R/26L U/S TIL APRX 0011251400. This NOTAM: (Ref: AIM MAP 3.0) a) Requires a cancelling NOTAM to be cancelled b) Is cancelled automatically at 1400 local time on 25 November 2000 c) The APRX terminology means the NOTAM is cancelled no later than 6 hours after the lapse of the approximate time d) Is valid for the period from time of issue to 1400Z on 25 November 2000.
43) If an airspace is used for training then it may be designated: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Class G airspace b) Class T airspace c) Class A airspace d) Class F airspace.
44) When does an arrival report need to be filed? (Ref: 1.1.15) a) Not later than 1 hour after the filed search and rescue time if a flight plan was filed b) Not later than 1 hour after the last reported ETA if a flight plan was filed c) Not later than 10 minutes after landing d) Not later than 24 hours of the last reported ETA if a flight plan was filed.
45) The "Apron" of an aerodrome (Ref: 1.1.18) a) Includes the maneuvering area of an aerodrome (b) is an area used for unloading, loading, servicing, maintenance and fuelling c) Must be kept free of vehicles d) None of the above.
46) What is the lowest altitude at which you may overfly an uncontrolled airport while enroute to another aerodrome? (Ref: 1.1.14) a) 500 feet above circuit altitude b) 1,000 feet above circuit altitude c) 2,000 feet above aerodrome elevation d) 1,500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
47) When operating a single engine land aeroplane over water, individual floatation devices, personal floatation devices or life preservers must be carried: (Ref: 1.1.10) a) When the aeroplane will be beyond gliding distance of the shore b) Only if the aeroplane will be at a distance greater than or equal to 50 m from the shore c) Only if the aeroplane will be at a distance of 25 nm or greater from the shore d) At all times.
48) You have to start the engine of your land aircraft by hand-swinging the propeller. This is permitted by the CARs only if: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) There is a competent person seated at the controls b) There is a pilot who is licenced on the particular type of aircraft seated at the controls c) Precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving d) The aircraft is in a location from which any movement of the aircraft will not endanger
persons or property.
49) A runway which has been closed is marked with: (Ref: 1.1.18) a) Red cones or flags with a large red flag near the centre of the runway b) Large white or yellow X's c) Yellow chevrons d) Large white no-entry signs.
50) When flying at altitudes above 3,000 feet AGL in the Southern Domestic Airspace, it is the pilot in command's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is operated at an appropriate altitude. This altitude is dependant on ___ as well as airspace restrictions, terrain clearance, etc (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Magnetic track b) Magnetic heading c) True track d) True heading.
51) You are planning to conduct a day VFR flight in an unpressurised aircraft. How long will you be able to fly between 10,000 and 13,000 feet if you are not carrying any
suplemental oxygen onboard? (Ref: 1.1.10) a) You are not allowed to fly above 10,000 feet without oxygen b) You are not restricted in terms of flight time when operating between 10,000 feet and
13,000 feet c) A maximum of 1 hour d) A maximum of 30 minutes.
52) When approaching an airport wihere an MF is in Use, radio contact must be established: (Ref: 1.1.16) a) prior to entry into the MF and where possible, at least S minutes prior to entering the b) Prior to entry into the MF and where possible, at least 10 miles from the airport c) Prior to entry into the MF and where posible, at least 5 miles from the airport d) prior to entry into the MF and where possible, at least 10 minutes prior to entering the
MF area.
53) When flying in the Northern Domestic Airspace above 3,000 feet, your altitude is determined by: (Ref 1.1.14) a) Magnetic heading b) Compass heading c) Magnetic track d) True track.
54) What is the minimum visibility for flying SVFR (Special VFR) in a control zone? (Ref: 1.1.9) a) 1 mile b) 2 miles c) 3 miles d) 5 miles.
55) For a flight of 50 minutes at 11,500 feet in a 4 seat, unpressurised aircraft, sufficient suplemental oxygen must be carried for: (Ref: 1.1.10) a) 20 minutes for the crew b) 50 minutes for the crew and 20 minutes for all the passengers c) 50 minutes for the crew and 50 minutes for all the passengers d) 20 minutes for the crew and 20 minutes for 1 passenger.
56) When operating in night VFR conditions at an altitude greater than or equal to 1,000 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace, the following minima apply: (Ref: 1.1.9) a) Visibility not less than 2 miles, clear of cloud b) Visibility not less than 3 miles, clear of cloud c) Visibility not less than 2 miles, horizontal distance from cloud 2,000 feet, vertical distance from cloud not less than 500 feet d) Visibility not less than 3 miles, horizontal distance from cloud 2;000 feet, vertical distance from cloud not less than 500 feet.
57) You wish to land at an airport which is usually within a class C control zone. However, the tower is closed and the control zone is now classified as class E. Conditions are such that you need to request SVFR. You would request permission from: (Ref: 1.1.9) a) You cannot fly SVFR under these circumstances b) You do not need to request authorization in this situation. Simply announce your intentions on 126.7 MHz c) You do not need to request authorization in this situation. Simply announce your
intentions on the appropriate airport frequency d) You would communicate with the appropriate FISE to request authorization from ATC
.
58) If you experience an in-flight engine failure, besides completing the other requiredactions, you would set the transponder to _____ (Ref: 1.1.12) a) 7700 b) 7600 c) 7500 d) 1200.
59) After conducting your walk-around, you start the engine on your aeroplane. You notice that the rpm needle does not move despite the engine running and sounding normal.
You have the aeroplane inspected by a mechanic who informs you that the tachometer is unserviceable but that the aeroplane is otherwise "fine". Under these conditions: (Ref: 1.1.10) a) You may fly and get the tachometer replaced at the next service interval b) You may fly provided the tachometer is labeled as unserviceable by the mechanic c) You may fly provided the mechanic makes an appropriate logbook entry d) You may not fly until you have a serviceable tachometer on board.
60) The dimensions and boundaries of the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ) will be found in: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) AIM b) Designated Airspace Handbook c) CARS d) They are classified information and therefore not available.
61) When flying to, from or within the ADIZ, a ____ must be filed (Ref: 1.1.12) a) A flight plan b) A flight itinerary c) A defence flight plan or defence flight itinerary d) None of the above as flight within the ADIZ is not permitted.
62) When an aircraft is on defence flight plan, the pilot in command shall revise the estimated time and point of entry into the ADiZ should the time and point of entry change by: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) ‡ 5 minutes, 10 miles b) ‡ 10 minutes, 20 miles c) ‡ 5 minutes, 5 miles d) ‡ 5 minutes, 20 miles.
63) In order to qualify for an individual type rating on a high performance aeroplane an applicant shall have a minimum of
_____ pilot flight time on aeroplanes (Ref: 1.1.7) a) 100 hours b) 150 hours c) 200 hours d) 250 hours.
64) No person may operate an aeroplane less than _____ feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of ____ from the aeroplane when operating over a
built up area or open air assembly of persons. (Ref: 1.1.14) a) 2,000, 1 mile b) 2,000, ½ mile c) 500, 500 feet d) 1,000, 2,000 feet.
65) When not operating over a built up area or open air assembly of persons, an aeroplane may be flown at a minimum distance of ____ feet from any person, vessel or structure (Ref: 1.1.14) a) 100 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500.
66) Above an altitude of ____ it is necessary to select cruising altitudes corresponding to the magnetic track in the Southern Domestic Airspace (Ref: 1.1.14) a) 3,000' ASL b) 3,000' AGL c) 5,000' ASL d) 5,000' AGL.
67) Which of the following changes in a VFR flight plan require notification of change to an ATCU, FSS or CARS? (Ref: 1.1.15) a) Change of route, duration or destination b) Change of route, destination, cruising altitude or duration c) Change of TAS by 5% or more d) Both a) and c) above.
68) When arriving at an uncontrolled aerodrome which lies within an MF area, the pilot in command of a VFR aircraft shall report: (Ref: 1.1.16) a) Prior to entering the MF area and where posible at least 5 minutes prior to entering the MF area, when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit, when on the downwind leg if applicable, when on base leg if not executing a straight in approach, when on final
approach and when clear of the surface on which the aircraft has landed b) At least 10 minutes prior to entering the MF area, when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit, when on the downwind leg if applicable, when on final approach and when clear of the surface on which the aircraft has landed c) Prior to entering the MF area and where posible at least 5 minutes prior to entering the MF area, when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit, when on the downwind leg if applicable, when on final approach and when clear of the surface on which the aircraft
has landed d) At least 5 miles prior to entering the MF area, when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit, when on the downwind leg if applicable, when on base leg if not executing a straight in approach, when on final approach and when clear of the surface on which
the aircraft has landed.
69) When flying through an MF area, an aircraft which is flying in accordance with VFR shall report: (Ref: 1.1.16) a) At least 5 miles prior to entering the MF area b) Prior to entering the MF area and where posible at least 5 minutes prior to entering the MF area and when clear of the MF area c) At least 10 minutes prior to entering the MF area and when clear of the MF area d) At least 5 minutes prior to entering the MF area and when clear of the MF area.
70) Which of the following are NOT controlled airspace? (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Low level airways b) Low level air routes c) Advisory airspace d) Control area extensions.
71) Transponder airspace is: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Class A, class B and class C airspace b) Class A, class B, class C, class D and class E airspace c) Any class D or E airspace specified as transponder airspace in the Designated Airspace
Handbook. d) a) and c) above.
72) With respect to safety belts, which of the following is FALSE? (Ref; 1.1.10) a) Flight crew members on an aircraft shall be seated at their stations with their safety belts fastened during take-off and landing b) At least one pilot shall be seated at the flight controls with the safety belt fastened
during flight time c) Passengers are not required to have their safety belts fastened during taxi d) Infants are not required to be restrained with safety belts.
7) Which of the following documents should be carried on board during your cross country training flights? (Ref: 1.1.10) a) Certificate of airworthiness: POH; Crew licence, medical and radio station licence; proof of
insurance; certificate of registration, aircraft radio station licence; aircraft jouney logbook; current aircraft weight and balance certificate. b) Certificate of airworthiness; POH; Crew licence, medical and radio licence; proof of insurance; aircraft radio station licence; aircraft journey logbook; current aircraft weight and balance certificate. c) Certificate of airworthiness; POH; Crew licence, medical and radio licence; proof of insurance; certificate of registration; aircraft radio station licence; current aircraft weight and balance certificate d) Certificate of airworthiness; POH; Crew licence, medical and radio licence; proof of insurance; certificate of registration; aircraft journey logbook; current aircraft weight and balance certificate.
74) You are ready to depart from a runway intersection at a controlled aerodrome which does not have radar facilities. A medium wake turbulence category aircraft (12,500 Ibs <
MTOW < 300,000 Ibs) departs before you using the full runway length. How much separation will the controller apply between you and the previously departed aircraft? (Ref: 1.1.17) a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) None - you will simply be warned of the wake turbulence d) 1 minute.
75) A LARGE aircraft is classified as an aircraft with a MCTOW of: (Ref: 1.1.18) a) Equal to or greater than 5,770 Ibs b) Equal to or greater than 300,000 Ibs c) Equal to or greater than 19,000 Ibs d) Equal to or greater than 12,566 Ibs.
76) A high performance aircraft is one which has ____ and a _____. (Ref: 1.1.7) a) Stall speed greater than 80 KIAS, VNE greater than 250 KIAS b) Maneuvering speed greater than 110 KIAS, stall speed greater than 61 KIAS c) Stall speed greater than 61 KIAS, VNE greater than 210 KIAS d) Stall speed greater than 80 KIAS, VNE greater than 200 KIAS.
77) Which of the folgwing facilities are required in order for an aerodrome to be used at night? (Ref: 1.1.3) a) The runway must be equipped with centre line lighting b) The windsock must be illuminated c) Fixed red light at each end of the runway d) The aerodrome must be equipped with a rotating beacon.
78) A low level air-route is _____ airspace and extends from_____ upwards to _____. (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Controlled, the surface of the earth, but not including 18,000 feet b) Uncontrolled, 2,200 feet AGL, 18,000 feet c) Uncontrolled, the surface of the earth, but not including 18,000 feet d) Controlled, 2,200 feet AGL, 18,000 feet.
79) What is the lowest altitude at which you may overfly an uncontrolled airport for the purposes of obtaining landing information? (Ref; 1.1.16) a) 500 feet above circuit altitude b) 1,000 feet above circuit altitude c) 2,000 feet above aerodrome elevation d) 1,500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
80) Class E airspace: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) Requires an ATC clearance to enter b) Requires the aircraft to be equipped with two way radio equipment c) Requires the aircraft to be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment d) Is airspace in which aircraft operating under VFR are not provided with separation.
81) You are flying a single engined aeroplane (such as a Cessna 172) from Boundary Bay airport (CZBB) to Nanaimo (CYCD) on Vancouver Island and the total over water distance is 25 m. If you will be beyond gliding distance from the shore at any point during the flight then (Ref: 1.1.10) a) You are not required to carry any life preservers or floatation devices as you will be within 50 nm of the shore b) You will be required to carry life preservers for all people on board only if the duration of the flight beyond gliding distance is greater than 15 minutes c) You are required to carry life preservers or personal floatation devices or individual floatation devices for all people on board which shall be stowed in a position that is easily accessible to the person for whose use it is provided, when that person is seated. d) You are required to carry a life raft with capacity for all people on board.
82) The minimum altitude requirements for operations over a built up area or open area assembly of persons are: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) The aircraft must be operated at an altitude from which, in the event of an engine failure or any other emergency necessitating an immediate landing, it would be posible to land the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface b) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 2,000 feet from the aeroplane c) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 2,000 feet from the aeroplane d) a) and b) above.
83) If a runway is permanently displaced as shown below then: (Ref; 1.1.18) a) You may land on the section before the displaced threshold but you should be aware that landing here might compromise your obstacle clearance on approach b) You may not conduct any operations on the portion of the runway before the displaces c)You may use the portion of the runway before the displaced threshold for taxi, takeof and completion of your landing roll d) Both answers a) and c) are correct.
84) The following is required for VFR flight in class C airspace: (Ref: 1.1.12) a) An ATC clearance is required prior to entry, fly in accordance with controlled VFR, 2-way radio communication equipment or authorization prior to entry, Mode C transponder b) 2-way radio communication equipment or authorization prior to entry, ATC clearance prior to entry, mode C transponder, maintain a continuous listening watch on the frequency assigned by ATC c) Mode C transponder, maintain a continuous listening watch on the frequency assigned by ATC, ATC clearance prior to entry, fly in accordance with controlled VFR d) Maintain a continuous listening watch on the frequency assigned by ATC, fly in accordance with controlled VFR, Mode C transponder.
85) If two aircraft are on approximately the same heading and are converging, then _____ (Ref: 1.1.11) a) The one which has the other on its left shall give way b) The one which has the other on its right will have right of way c) Both aircraft are required to alter heading to the right d) The one which has the other on its right shall give way.
86) What happens to a class C control zone after hours? (Ref: 1.1.12) a) It stays class C but the MF becomes an ATF b) It becomes class D airspace c) It becomes class E airspace d) It cannot be classed as class C airspace unless the airspace can be controlled 24 hours a day.
87) Can an aircraft which is not equipped with 2 way radio enter a mandatory frequency area? (Ref; 1.1.16) a) Never b) Only by prior arrangement and if a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome c) In an emergency (d) Either b) or c) above.
88) If a glider and an aeroplane are converging head on, then _____ (Ref: 1.1.11) a) Both aircraft shall alter heading to the right b) The aeroplane shall give way to the glider c) The aircraft which has the other on its left shall give way d) The glider is required to climb and the aeroplane is required to descend.
89) Under which of the following conditions is the carrying of basic survival equipment required? (Ref: 1.1.10) a) When an aircraft is operated in a geographical area and at a time of year when the survival of the persons on board is not jeopardized b) When an aircraft is operated 50 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure and has the capability of radio communication with a surface-based radio station for the duration of the flight c) When a multi-engined aircraft is operated south of 66° 30' north latitude along a designated air-route on an IFR flight plan d) When an aircraft is operated within 25 nautical miles of the aerodrome of departure, has the capability of rádio communication with a surface-based radio station for the duration of the flight.
90) Which of the following instruments are NOT required on board for day VFR flight in a single engine aircraft in controlled airspace? (Ref: 1.1.10)
1. Airspeed indicator
2. Magnetic compass or magnetic direction indicator which operates independently of the aircraft electrical system
3. A tachometer
4. Fuel quantity gauge for each main tank
5. A radio communication system adequate to permit two-way communication on the appropriate frequency (unless prior permission is obtained to operate without a
radio in class C or D airspace)
6. A gyroscopic direction indicator
7. A landing light
8. A sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure
9. An attitude indicator a) 1, 5, 6, 7, 9 b) 6,7& 9 c) 3 d) 6,7,8 & 9.
91) Which of the following statements is true with respect to intersection departures? (Ref: AIM RAC 4.2.8) a) If an intersection departure is suggested by a controller then it is the controller`s responsibility to ensure that there is adequate runway available for departure b) Irrespective of whether the controller suggests or the pilot requests an intersection departure, it is the pilot's responsibilty to determine whether or not such a departure allows adequate runway c) An intersection departure will not be susggested by the controller as the controller has no means of determining whether or not there is adequate runway for the type of aircraft d) An intersection departure should never be accepted by a pilot as the pilot should always use the maximum runway available.
92) What entries are required on the first page of a new journey logbook? (Ref: CAR 605,93) a) 5 entries from the last page of the previous journey logbook b) 3 entries from the last page of the previous journey logbook c) As many entries as are necessary to ensure that an unbroken chronological record is maintained d) The totals from the bottom of the last page of the previous journey logbook must be entered at the top of the first page of the new journey logbook.
93) When does an arrival report have to be filed in respect of a flight for which a flight itinerary has been filed? (Ref: 1.1.15) a) An arrival report needs to be filed as soon as posible after landing b) No later than the stipulated search and rescue time c) If no search and rescue time has been stipulated then no later than 24 hours after the ETA based on the ETD and the ETE filed in the flight plan or the last reported ETA d) All of the above.
94) When does an arrival report have to be filed in respect of a flight for which a flight plan has been filed? (Ref: 1.1.15) a) An arrival report needs to be filed as soon as posible after landing b) No later than the stipulated search and rescue time c) If no search and rescue time has been stipulated then no later than 1 hour after the ETA based on the ETD and the ETE filed in the flight blan or the last reported ETA d) All of the above.
95) When may an ELT be switched on for the purposes of testing? (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Never - it should be tested by a certified maintenance engineer using the appropiate test equipment b) For a maximum of 5 minutes c) For a maximum of 5 seconds d) For a maximum of 5 seconds in the first 5 minutes of every UTC hour.
96) You are flying in the circuit traffic pattern at an aerodrome which lies within a class C control zone. You experience a communications failure. You should take the following
steps: (Ref: 1.1.14) a) Leave the airspace by the shortest route and if equipped with a transponder, set the transponder to code 7600 & inform ATC as soon as possible of the actions taken b) Land and if equipped with a transponder, set the transponder to code 7600 & inform ATC as soon as posible of the actions taken c) Continue in the circuit, conduct a low approach to advise the tower of your predicament with the transponder set to code 7600 d) Leave the control zone and land at an aerodrome which allows for the operation of NORDO aircraft, set the transponder to code 7600 & inform ATC as soon as posible of the actions taken.
97) When departing from an aerodrome for which an MF has been established: (Ref: 1.1.14 & 1.1.16) a) The pilot should remain on the MF while in radio reception range b) The pilot should remain on the MF until 10 nm from the departure aerodrome c) The pilot should remain on the MF while within the MF area and monitor frequency 126.7 MHz when well clear of the MF area d) The pilot should remain on the MF while within 10 nm of the departure aerodrome and monitor frequency 126.7 MHz when beyond 10 nm.
98) While en-route, within the altimeter setting region, the altimeter should be set to ______ and if the stations are more than ____ apart, then the altimeter should be set to ______ (Ref: 1.1.12) a) The nearest station along the route, 100 nm, the nearest station b) The nearest station, 100 nm, the departure aerodrome altimeter setting c) The nearest station along the route, 150 nm, the destination aerodrome d) The nearest station along the route, 150 nm, the nearest station to the route.
99) For a day VFR flight, sufficient fuel is required to be carried on board to enable the aircraft to fly to the destination and then ______ (Ref: 1.1.14) a) For a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed b) For a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c) Fly to the alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed d) Fly to the alternate and then for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
100) For a night VFR flight, sufficient fuel is required to be carried on board to enable the aircraft to fly to the destination and then _____ (Ref: 1.1.14) a) For a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed b) For a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c) Fly to the alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed d) Fly to the alternate and then for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
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