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TEST PREP AVA 2016

INFORMACIÓN ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
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Título del test:
TEST PREP AVA 2016

Descripción:
Modulo 3

Autor:
Johan Salazar
(Otros tests del mismo autor)

Fecha de Creación:
05/09/2016

Categoría:
Test de conducir

Número preguntas: 201
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Temario:
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°? 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°? 30 seconds. 40 seconds. 50 seconds.
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°? 1 minute. 1 minute 20 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by Decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank. Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank. Increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will Indicate the angle of bank. Remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed. Increase as angle of bank increases.
(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn? Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn. Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn. Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn? 3 1 2.
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn? 2 1 3.
(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn? Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn. Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn. Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn? 1 3 2.
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns. After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft. Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should Swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north. Exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude. Swing freely and indicate known headings.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°? 135° through 225°. 90° and 270°. 180° and 0°.
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass? Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes. Centrifugal force acting on the compass card. The magnetic dip characteristic.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft. The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to th e magnetic heading of the aircraft. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine? Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments. Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power. Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing? 100 feet MSL. 474 feet MSL. 206 feet below MSL.
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected? No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions? The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing. The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero. No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked? The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over? The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb). The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM. The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect? The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative. The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative. The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected? The airspeed indicator only. The airspeed indicator and the altimeter. The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect? The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent. The altimeter to read higher than normal. The vertical speed to show a climb.
(Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight. Static/pitot system is blocked, lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude indicator. Vacuum system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed. Electrical system has failed, reduce power,roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.
(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned. Climbing turn to the right. Climbing turn to the left. Descending turn to the right.
(Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned. Level turn to the right. Level turn to the left. Straight-and-level flight.
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying? Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation. Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying? Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control. Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying? Instrument cross-check. Power control. Aircraft control.
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying? Aircraft control. Instrument cross-check. Instrument interpretation.
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed? When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase. When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase. Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.
The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope Must be increased if the ground speed is decreased. Will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant. Must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased.
To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be Decreased if the airspeed is increased. Decreased if the ground speed is increased. Increased if the ground speed is increased.
The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon True airspeed. Calibrated airspeed. Ground speed.
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially? Pitch and power. Power only. Pitch only.
During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will Remain the same regardless of ground speed. Increase as the ground speed increases. Decrease as the ground speed increases.
The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight? Magnetic compass. Attitude indicator. Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.
What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a constant rate? Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. Heading indicator and attitude indicator. Heading indicator and turn coordinator.
What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight? Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank airspeed indicator for power. Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established? Attitude indicator. Turn coordinator. Heading indicator.
As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively? Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed? Attitude indicator. VSI. Airspeed indicator.
What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn? Altimeter. VSI. Airspeed indicator.
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using Two bar widths on the attitude indicator. Less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator. Less than half bar width on the attitude indicator.
What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn? Turn coordinator. Heading indicator. Attitude indicator.
What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight? Heading indicator. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a standard rate turn to the left? Attitude indicator. Heading indicator. Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively? Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight? Turn-and-slip indicator. Attitude indicator. Heading indicator.
Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn? Turn coordinator and attitude indicator. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments? Altimeter and airspeed only. Altimeter and VSI only. Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight? Attitude indicator. Airspeed indicator. Altimeter.
Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a level turn? Airspeed indicator and VSI. Altimeter and attitude indicator. Attitude indicator and VSI.
Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the desired value during change of airspeed in a level turn? Airspeed indicator. Attitude indicator. Altimeter.
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude? Altimeter and VSI. Manifold pressure gauge and VSI. Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are Airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack. Flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack. Relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude? 10 percent. 20 percent. 25 percent.
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately 10 percent of the vertical speed. 30 percent of the vertical speed. 50 percent of the vertical speed.
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change? Altimeter. VSI. Attitude indicator.
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should First adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed. First reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI. Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude. 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude. 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately 20 feet. 50 feet. 60 feet.
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend. Airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement. Altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant The horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane. A zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI. The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
(Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings. Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight. Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.
(Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading. Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading. Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading.
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery? Turn indicator and VSI. Airspeed and altimeter. VSI and airspeed to detect approaching V(S1) or V(MO).
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude? Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings. Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude. Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being Decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure. Increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. Increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.
Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM.
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder. Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.
To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.
To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a Large angle of attack and low RPM. Small angle of attack and high RPM. Large angle of attack and high RPM.
For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a Small angle of attack and high RPM. Large angle of attack and low RPM. Large angle of attack and high RPM.
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it Permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. Prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight. Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of Altitude and RPM. Airspeed and RPM. Airspeed and altitude.
Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel Decreases while the volume of air decreases. Remains constant while the volume of air decreases. Remains constant while the density of air decreases.
A flux value is found in: Most hydraulic systems Fuel control units and is an internal component not governed from the flight deck Directional Gyro systems and has no moving parts.
The intake section of a jet engine is often considered part of the fuselage. The other four parts which are considered part of the engine are The turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust and reversers The compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and exhaust The Engine struts, compressor, combustion chamber and exhaust.
Hydraulic systems in modern aircraft are usually employed to Aid in moving heavy control surfaces or accessories. Aid in lowering the landing gear, moving the nose wheel steering and activating the passenger stairs. Help the pilot lower the landing gear in emergency, activate the Power Transfer Unit (Sby.electrical power) and engage the thrust reversers.
Large transport category jet airplanes employ: Constantly heated leading edges for ground deicing Silver colored deicing boots Heated leading edges for de-icing / anti-icing.
The most fuel efficient type engine for commercial passenger transport is Turbofan with afterburners Turboprop Jet/scramjet (used on the Concorde).
What type measurement is used to rate power on Jet or Fanjet engines Pounds of thrust Brake horse power Shaft horsepower (SHP).
Modern aircraft electrical systems normally consist of Standard 350v 600 Hz AC with step-up transformers Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz and 24v DC systems 12v AC lead-acid batteries and 24v DC static generators.
Aircraft hydraulic systems use: Aviation grade engine oil as standard fluid Hydraulic fluid Aircraft grade DOT 4 brake fluid.
Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses Do not even look, call maintenance In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar In the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant subsection).
If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should: Consult with a maintenance technician Consult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM. Look it up in the Maintenance section of the company’s Operations Specifications.
If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you: Top it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a 50% ratio Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels Not use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B.
Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using: Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine Auxiliary Power Units which are installed for this purpose primarily Pressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from the last stage turbine section of the engine.
At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach.
How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft? Immediatly after ground contact. Immediatly prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking.
What characterizes a transient compressor stall? Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine. Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when: The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45º C The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed limitations The ITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is obtained.
Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by. Bringing the engine from forward thrust into a momentary stop (stationary) then spooled up into reverse thrust. It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward Starting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust.
What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”: Propjet Fanjet TPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine).
Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine exhaust: 100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust 75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust 20% propeller - 80% turbine exhaust.
High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to A turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades A regular jet engine with afterburner A simple scramjet engine.
A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by: Ambient pressure and humidity Ambient temperature and pressure Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions.
If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in: Lbs of thrust ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power) Also SHP.
What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type: A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing. A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing.
Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do, this ratio on turbine type engines is: Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage.
Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines True False Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons.
Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most turboprop engines because they both Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight.
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? Past the point where the jet touched down. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the Amount of trim required to relieve control pressures. Heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline. Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL? Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport. 29.92 Inches Hg.
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs. 30.50 31.00 32.00.
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency. Is operating VFR on top. Requests an amended clearance.
When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing. Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible. Landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area. Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road. Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).
Light beacons producing red flashes indicate A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling. Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation. End of runway warning at departure end.
(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft? Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.
(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control. At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. Near the approach end of ILS runways.
(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure. Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol. Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude? It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. Not so fast. Think first. Follow the rules. They are usually right.
The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by A total disregard for any alternative course of action. Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a mishap. Imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.' Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. Early recognition of hazardous thoughts. Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process? Dealing with improper judgment. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.
What does good cockpit stress management begin with? Knowing what causes stress. Good life stress management. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction? Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction? It's too late to fix it now. He can handle a little problem like this. What is the worst that could happen.
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to Assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. Promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? He is not too concerned, everything will be alright. He flies a little closer, just to show him. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. Be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. Avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.
A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction? He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.
Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? Estimate. Eliminate. Evaluate.
Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? Identify. Detect. Evaluate.
The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are: Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate. Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate. Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a Mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. Decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. Developing the 'right stuff' attitude. Making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
The 'taxiway ending' marker Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. Indicates taxiway does not continue. Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located: At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ Depends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway 500 Ft from the beginning of the runway.
The area before a displaced threshold may be used: Only in emergencies For taxiing and landing rollout only For taxiing, take off and landing rollout.
A red background sign with white lettering denotes: Warning positions for Non commercial or VFR aircraft Instructions for military aircraft only An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft.
A runway incursion is: Not possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers A serious offence punishable to non licensed ground vehicle drivers Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway.
On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if: You see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the R side of the runway You stay within the standard 3º glide path You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway.
Runway center line lights are: White and green White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway.
Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace: True, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so.
If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at the VOR: You must slow down to 200 Kts You are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC.
On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should: Not obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds Obey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC.
Intersection take offs are: Not allowed for passenger flights Not allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft Allowed under dry pavement conditions only.
When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage. All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer.
If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the Centerline of the main wheels. Nose, or out in front of the airplane. Centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane.
The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods? Dividing total arms by total moments. Multiplying total arms by total weight Dividing total moments by total weight.
Automated flight decks or cockpits Enhance basic pilot flight skills. Decrease the work load in terminal areas. Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.
You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line.
(Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots? 260° at 20 knots. 275° at 25 knots. 315° at 35 knots.
(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing? 7 knots. 15 knots. 17 knots.
(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing? 19 knots. 21 knots. 23 knots.
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? -5°C. -15°C. +5°C.
What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? -15°C. -20°C. -25°C.
W hat are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? 15°C and 29.92" Hg. 59°F and 1013.2" Hg. 15°C and 29.92 Mb.
The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on Pressure/density altitude. Cabin altitude. True altitude.
What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance? As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nosewheel-type airplanes. Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes. Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.
When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason? Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.
A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is Maintaining a safe airspeed. Landing directly into the wind. Turning back to the takeoff field.
Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions? A power-on approach and power-on landing. A power-off approach and power-on landing. A power-on approach and power-off landing.
A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway. Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway. Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? Increases takeoff speed. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff distance.
At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged. Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease? Sudden decrease in the headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed? Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"? Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min Any change of airspeed greater than 20 Knot swhich is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.
Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind? Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT) Extend flaps to decrease wind loading. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended? Mantain a constant altitude. Mantain a constant attitude. Mantain constant airspeed and altitude.
Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence? Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is Developing lift. Operating at high airspeeds. Using high power settings.
Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has just taken off? The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? Direct tailwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight path. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
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