5604. Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided? A— Excessive induced drag will result in structural
failure. B— Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if
gusts are encountered. C— Control effectiveness is so impaired that the
aircraft becomes uncontrollable. 5601. Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated
airspeed corrected for
A— installation and instrument error. B— instrument error. C— non-standard temperature. 5602. True airspeed is best described as calibrated
airspeed corrected for A— installation or instrument error. B— non-standard temperature. C— altitude and non-standard temperature. 5605. Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum
speed at which an airplane can be operated during A— abrupt maneuvers. B— normal operations. C— flight in smooth air. 5669. A pilot is entering an area where significant clear
air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate
upon encountering the first ripple? A— Maintain altitude and airspeed. B— Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C— Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering
speed. 5670. If severe turbulence is encountered during flight,
the pilot should reduce the airspeed to A— minimum control speed. B— design-maneuvering speed. C— maximum structural cruising speed. 5741. Which is the best technique for minimizing the
wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence? A— Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain
constant airspeed B— Control airspeed with power, maintain wings
level, and accept variations of altitude. C— Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or
below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level,
and accept variations of airspeed and altitude. 5233. (Refer to Figure 5.) The vertical line from point D
to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by
the maximum speed limit of the A— green arc. B— yellow arc. C— white arc. 5013. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed
or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration? A— VS. B— VS1. .C— VS0. 5014. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed
or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane
is controllable? A— VS. B— VS1. C— VS0. 5015-1. 14 CFR Part 1 defines VF as A— design flap speed. B— flap operating speed. C— maximum flap extended speed. 5015-2. 14 CFR Part 1 defines VNO as A— maximum structural cruising speed. B— never exceed speed. C— maximum operating limit speed. 5016-2. 14 CFR Part 1 defines VNE as A— maximum nose wheel extend speed. B— never-exceed speed. C— maximum landing gear extended speed. 5016-3. 14 CFR Part 1 defines VY as A— speed for best rate of descent. B— speed for best angle of climb. C— speed for best rate of climb. 5177. Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify
by the color coding of an airspeed indicator? A— The never-exceed speed. B— The power-off stall speed. C— The maneuvering speed. 5177-1. The ratio of an airplane’s true airspeed to the
speed of sound in the same atmospheric conditions is A— equivalent airspeed. B— transonic airflow. C— mach number. 5016-1. 14 CFR Part 1 defines VLE as A— maximum landing gear extended speed. B— maximum landing gear operating speed. C— maximum leading edge flaps extended speed. 5016-4. Newer airplanes have a design maneuvering
speed that can generally be calculated as follows: A— 1.2 VS0. B— 1.7 VS0. C— half the stall speed. 5740. To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff,
the altimeter should be set to A— the current altimeter setting. B— 29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted. C— the field elevation and the pressure reading in the
altimeter setting window noted. 5114. What altimeter setting is required when operating
an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL? A— Current reported altimeter setting of a station
along the route. B— 29.92" Hg. C— Altimeter setting at the departure or destination
airport. 5408. An airplane is located at an airport with an elevation
of 5,000 feet MSL and a temperature of 90°F. The
altimeter is set to airport elevation. Later that night the
temperature plummets to 50°F. Unless the altimeter
setting is changed, it will read A— 4,800 feet. B— 5,000 feet. C— 5,200 feet. 5178. Which statement is true about magnetic deviation
of a compass? Deviation A— varies over time as the agonic line shifts. B— varies for different headings of the same aircraft. C— is the same for all aircraft in the same locality. 5268. What is an operational difference between the
turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The
turn coordinator A— is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is
always vacuum-driven. B— indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip
indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. C— indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination;
the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn
and coordination. 5269. What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator
if the airplane has a vacuum system for other
gyroscopic instruments? A— It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. B— It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven
indicators. C— It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn
indicators. 5270. If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long
would it take to turn 360°? A— 1 minute. B— 2 minutes. C— 3 minutes. 5191. Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering
an aircraft. A— Power, pitch, bank, and trim. B— Thrust, lift, turns, and glides. C— Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and
descents.
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