Taxi2267

If a fire occurs in the left engine, the discharge tubes... permit discharge of both fire bottles into left engine. allow discharge of the left fire bottle only. transfers Halon from the right squib cartridge to the left engine.

The FIRE DETECTION / FIRE MONITOR control panel is used to test for failure of the engine sensing loops. false. True.

The three components associated with the apu fire potection system are: dual loop sensors. one smoke detector. one fire bottle. detection control unit. two fire bottles.

When the red apu fire push switchlight on the glareshield is pushed, the.. APU BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight is activated. fire bottle is discharged. APU SOV remains open. APU FIRE PUSH switchlight is no longer illuminated.

If a TRU fails, both DC utility buses are shed. Yes. No.

What power source will supply electrical power to the DC essential bus when.the essential TRUs are unavailable in flight?. adg bus. Dc service bus. Aircraft batteries. Battery charger.

Under normal conditions, the DC EMER bus is displayed on the DC synoptic page. True. False.

Oil System indications are normally presented on the status page. True. False.

Under normal operations, which switchlight will turn the APU fuel pump on or off?. PWR / FUEL switchlight. left and right 10th stage engine bleed air switchlight. left and right boost pump switchlights. APU FIRE PUSH switchlight.

Where is the primary source of fuel for APU operation?. the left wing and the right wing fuel tanks. the left wing fuel tank only. the right wing fuel tank only. the APU fuel storage tank.

Which of the following can supply an alternate fuel source to the APU?. fuel feed manifold for the right engine. fuel feed manifold for the left engine. supplementary APU fuel reserve. gravity will supply fuel if the pump quits.

While the plane is on the ground, if an internal APU fault occurs, the APU will... shutdown immediately. continue to operate. close the LCV.

If an internal APU fault occurs, while the plane is in flight, the APU will... shutdown immediately for all detected faults. close the LCV for all detected faults. shutdown the APU 60 seconds after landing for selected faults.

The engine-driven pumps 1A and 2A and the AC-motor pump 3A are the main pumps of the Hydraulic System. Yes. No.

How is hydraulic power provided for the primary flight controls and landing gear if both engines flame out?. aircraft batteries supply electrical power to ACMP 3B. air driven generator supplies electrical power to ACMP ЗА. aircraft batteries supply electrical power to ACMP 1B and 2B. air driven generator automatically deploys to provide electrical power to backup pump 3B.

The primary, status and fuel synoptic pages are used to monitor the Fuel System. True. False.

What is the total pressure refuel quantity?. 6585 kg. 9070 kg. 6307 kg. 4719 kg.

During fuel transfer, fuel is. moved from wing to wing to maintain a balance between wing tanks. moved from center tank to wing tanks when wing tank fuel levels drop. moved from collector tank to center tank on a continuous basis. moved out of the refuel truck into the wing tanks.

Crossflow occurs when there is an imbalance between wing tanks. True. False.

There are 5 possible sources of air supply that can be used to operate the ECS system on the ground: APU, left engine, right engine, ram air, external air cart. True. False.

If the pressure regulating pack valve is set to a high flow rate, are both packs in operation?. Yes. No.

In manual temperature operation, the temperature is maintained within a safe range by the system?. True. False.

The CRT displays are cooled by AC powered fans. True. False.

In flight, if fan No. 1 is supplying cooling airflow to the avionics equipment, the ARINC FAN rotary switch is set to... GND ALTN. NORM. FLT ALTN. STDBY.

During ground operations with the service door open, is exhaust air from the electronic equipment vented overboard?. Yes. No.

If the passenger or service door handle is not stowed, is the inboard valve open?. Yes. No.

The 14th Stage Bleed Air System is used for engine starting and air conditioning. True. False.

What is the failed-safe position of the 10th stage bleed air shutoff valve?. Open. Closed.

When open, the 10th stage isolation valve allows air from any of the sources to supply the left and right side of the 10th stage manifold. Yes. No.

From the list of areas with fire detection systems, identify the four areas that are equipped with Halon fire bottles. main landing gear bay. lavatory. cargo compartment. engine. Apu.

The switchlights for activating the fire bottles in the event of an engine or APU fire are located on the... CARGO FIREX control panel. right and left glareshields. LDG GEAR control panel. FIRE DETECTION/FIRE MONITOR control panel.

N1 refers to a single stage fan rotor connected to a low pressure turbine. What is N2?. A dual stage fan rotor connected to the N1 . A compressor rotor driven by a high pressure turbine. A subsection of the N1 tan. N2 does not exist.

With the Automatic Performance Reserve System (APR) armed, when is the Automatic Performance Reserve (APR) System activated?. when ENG SPEED switches are selected OFF. when engine N1 or N2 overspeed occurs. when N1 speed of an engine decreases below a preset value. during a single engine go-around.

Conditions: during takeoff / APR armed Are indications presented when the APR System is armed?. Yes. No.

Condition: in flight / engines & systems normal Are the engine N1 & N2 vibration indications continuously displayed on the primary page?. Yes. No.

Conditions: landing / Cowl & Wing Anti-ice Systems selected on / reverse thrust selected Do the Anti-ice Systems become disabled?. Yes. No.

From the list below, click on the secondary controls. (Select four). a) aileron, rudder and stabilizer trim. b) flaps. c) allerons. d) rudder. e) flight spoilers. f) inboard and outboard ground spoilers. g) elevators.

From the list below, click on the flight controls that are electrically powered. (Select two). a) aileron, rudder and stabilizer trim. b) flaps. C)ailerons. D)rudder. e) inboard and outboard ground spoilers. f) elevators.

Mach trim will automatically disengage when both stab trim channels are disconnected. a) True. b) False.

When is Mach trim available?. when the aircraft is hand flown above Mach 0.4. when the autopilot is engaged. when stab trim channels are disconnected. when movement of the horizontal stabilizer is required at the high rate of movement.

During autopilot trimming, the rate of trim... varies with rudder movement. is at the highest rate of movement. varies with flap movement. biases the aileron control cables.

How many buttons on the ECP remain available if the ECP microprocessor fails?. A) 1. B) 2. C) 4. D) 7.

From the list below, click on the five indications that may be presented on the primary page. a) digital inter turbine temperature readout. e) analogue vibration readout. b) advisory message. f) fuel quantity. c) digital oil pressure readout. g) brake temperature. d) warning message.

Are the individual system synoptic buttons on the ECP the only means to access the synoptic pages?. A) yes. B) no.

If ED 1 fails, the status page will automatically transfer to ED 2. A) yes. B) no.

When the MAINT switch is selected, the Maintenance Diagnostic Computer data is displayed on the …. MFD. PFD. primary page. all EICAS displays.

The TAT probe, which supplies air temperature information to the Air Data System, is located... on the winglets. under copilots window. on the wings leading edge. beneath the avionics bay.

From the list below, identify 3 items calculated by the air data computer. Mach number. radar. static air temperature (SAT. vertical speed. heading. attitude.

The declutter function automatically clears all extraneous information from the PFD during aircraft upset or unusual attitudes. A) true. B) false.

The standby airspeed indicator provides non-corrected, indicated airspeed. A) true. B) false.

On battery power, the minimum amount of time the. Standby Attitude System can supply information is 5 minutes. A)yes. B) no.

The local mode (LOC) of the clock runs only with aircraft weight off wheels?. A) yes. B) no.

A data link with other transponders and TCAS is an interrogation response provided by: A) mode A. B) mode S. C) mode C.

The 3-position ATC selector knob is located on the... radio tuning unit (RTU). data control panel (DCP). audio control panel. backup tuning unit.

The Automatic Flight Control System communicates with other aircraft computers and electronic components through the... flight control panel. Integrated Avionics Processing System. autopilot servo motors. Attitude and Heading Reference System.

Click on the four components of the Automatic Flight Control System. yaw dampers. radio systems. autopilot servo motors. flight control panel. EFIS. EICAS. IAPS. flight control computers.

From the flight control panel, which switch must be selected to enable the VOR to provide navigation information to the flight director?. A) FD. B) NAV. C) HDG.

With the APPR switch selected, an on side localizer capture will clear which of the following modes: heading and autopilot turbulence. transfer and heading. heading and vertical glideslope.

The TOGA switches on the thrust levers are the only way to activate the lateral go-around mode. Yes. No.

Click on the 3 EICAS pages that provide the pilots with information for the main and nose landing gear. ECS synoptic. status. AC electrical. primary. flight controls. hydraulic synoptic. DC electrical. door synoptic.

The Proximity Sensing System uses sensor data for the control of: sequencing of the landing gear and nose doors. nosewheel steerin. main landing gear uplock assemb. anti-skid braking system.

If the landing gear fails to respond to a normal extend selection, the landing gear can be extended by... selecting Hydraulic System 1. resetting the PSEU circuit breakers. disabling the PSEU and reselecting the gear handle to the extend position. pulling the manual release handle.

The nosewheel can be deflected up to 70 degrees by the... rudder. control wheel. tiller. control wheel and tiller.

Where are the audio control panels (APs) located on the CRJ 200?. A) Center pedestal. B) overhead panel. C) pilot side panel. D) copilot side panel.

Do the audio control panels provide identical communications services?. A) yes. B) no.

The function and operation of the R/T - VC switches on the control wheels are similar to the R/T - VC switches on the audio control panel. A) yes. B) no.

The cockpit voice recorder begins recording as soon as there is weight off wheels. A) yes. B) no.

Is the flight data recorder activated if the strobe lights are illuminated?. A) yes. B) no.

The Cowl Anti-Icing System uses... 10th stage bleed air to heat the nose cowl only. 14th stage bleed air to heat the nose cowl and the T2 Probe. electric heat to the nose cowl and the T2 probe. electric heat to anti ice the engine nose cowl only.

During cowl anti-icing an overpressure condition occurred and the pressure relief valve opened. What indications of an open pressure relief valve is presented?. a hissing noise from the cowl area. the T2 Probe anti-ice is automatically turned off. a red warning message appears on EICAS. a plunger sticking out from the left side of the engine nacelle.

During landing, which system has the highest 14th stage bleed air priority?. cowl anti-ice. T2 anti-ice. thrust reverser. wing anti-ice.

Unlike other pneumatic valves used on the CRJ 200, the cowl anti-ice valves on the A/ICE synoptic page... are in white and they fail to the closed position. are in cyan and they fail to the closed position. indicate the true valve position. indicate the cowl anti-ice switch position.

On the ground either probe switch on the anti-ice control panel will engage anti-icing for all probes. A) yes. B) no.

Automatic operation of probe and sensor heaters is a function of... signals from the pitot/static probes. aircraft generator operation and/or weight off wheels signal. icing condition as sensed by the anti-ice probe. engine settings in excess of 78% N1 RPM.

Which of the following probes are only powered in flight?. P1 & P2 bases & TAT. P3,TAT only. angle of attack vane, P1, P3. P1, P2 on.

Indications for the overhead escape hatch are. status and caution messages. green indicator pins on the inside of the hatch. green indicator pins on the inside of the hatch and caution messages. icons on the door synoptic page.

All emergency exits are monitored by the PSEU. Yes. No.