What is the purpose of the wing main spar To withstand bending and torsional loads To withstand compressive and torsional loads To withstand compressive and shear loads
. What is the purpose of wing ribs To withstand the fatigue stresses To shape the wing and support the skin To house the fuel and landing gear. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor The design limit load plus the design ultimate load The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety. 4 How can wing bending moments be reduced in
flight?
By using aileron "up-float"
and keeping the centre
section fuel tanks full for
as long as possible
By using aileron "up-float"
and using the fuel in the
wings last
By having tail-mounted
engines and using aileron
"down-float"
. 5. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to: Support the wings House the crew and payload Keep out adverse weather. 6. The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of: the hydraulic fluid in the system the air and hydraulic fluid in the system the proportional pressure in the system. 7. A shuttle valve: is used to replace NRVs. allows two supply sources to operate one unit allows one source to operate two units. 8. A relief valve: relieves below system
pressure.
maintains pressure to a
priority circuit.
relieves at its designed
pressure. 9, The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is to compensate for leaks,
displacement and
expansion.
to allow a space into which
spare fluid may be stored.
to indicate system
contents.
. 10. With air in the hydraulic system you would: ignore it because normal operation would remove it. bleed the air out of the system. allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself. Pascal's law states that pressure is inversely proportional to load liquid is compressible applied force acts equally in all directions. The purpose of an accumulator is to: relieve excess pressure. store fluid under pressure. store compressed gas for tyre inflation. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the: decision height minimum descent altitude decision altitude. What is a star? Standard arrival Estándar instrument arrival Special terminal arrival
. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: final approach segment initial approach segment intermediate approach segment
. What is the meaning of OCA? C Oceanic control area Obstacle clearance altitude Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude Oceanic control area Obstacle clearance altitude Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude. What is the meaning of MEHT? Mean height over threshold. Minimum eye height. Minimum elevation height. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straightin approach, is: contact approach visual approach. visual manouvering (circling). A racetrack is: a right hand circuit pattern.
a procedure used for descent; resembling a holding-pattern (including the entry).
traffic landing and takingoff
again within 1 hour and
returning to the same
airport of the original
departure. "Operational control" of a flight refer to Exercising authority over
initiating, conducting, or
erminating a flight.
Exercising the privileges of
pilot-in-command of an
aircraft.
the specific duties of any
required crewmember. A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats A turbojet airplane A large airplane
. A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within 8 seconds 5 seconds 10 seconds. A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time
2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption
2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitate One pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties
At least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties
One crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs At least a current third- class medical certificate. A first-class medical certificate. A second-class medical certificate. At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes 15,000 feet
14,000 feet
16,000 feet
. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregulrities of facilities and services? Air route traffic control center The aircraft dispatcher Director of operations or flight follower. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month
logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121 made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100- foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar
months. Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight crewmember
Not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30 day period not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period OPCION B: not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30 day period OPCION C: be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days Not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30 day period
. Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each aircraft occupant seat on the aircraft passenger seat, plus 10 percen. Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes above FL 250 of FL 260 of FL 250. For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for all of the passengers, plus 10 percent all aircraft occupants all passenger seats
. How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet? Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude
Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes
A minimum of 2 hours supply. If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight
altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? FL 200 FL 300 FL 250. If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency the aircraft dispatcher should comply wiht the company's lost aircraft plan take any action considered necessary under the ircumstances phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight. If the weather forecast do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed
make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45 minute reserve at normal cruising speed
fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished
required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures
required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished. In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and pitch indicator is required, that instrument must continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes after the output of the airplane's electrical generating system falls
below an optimun level.
be operable by a selector switch which may be actuated from either pilot station. If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen
shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen
must have a quickdonning type oxygen mask available. Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored within easy reach of each passenger under each occupant seat within easy reach of each seated occupant. Regulations require that interior emergency lights must: operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment
be armed or turned on during taxiling and all flight operations
. The crew interphone system on a large turbojetpowered airplane provides a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on theground. The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system,from that station May avoid visible detection from within the airplane
Are always visible, from within the airplane
Are able to avold the intake areas of the engines
. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the Certificate holder's operations specifications
Application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant
Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew A without a rest period is 10 hours 12 hours
8 hours
. The persons jointly responsable for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the Pilot in command and director of operations Pilot in command and chief pilot Pilot in command and the flight follower. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the Pilot in command Certificate holder Air carrier's chief pilot. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is 45 minutes at normal fuelconsumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and at the most distant alternate airport. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is Difference training Upgrade training Transition training. The two pilots stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved quick- donning masks. What is the maximun altitude authorized if one pilot is not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen? 35,000 feet MSL 41,000 feet MSL 25,000 feet MSL
. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations? If required by the airplane's type certificate If the airplane is being flown on proving flight, with revenue cargo aboard If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit
Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time
Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. What aircraft operating under FAR Part 135 are required to have a third gyroscopic bank-andpitch indicator installed? All airplanes that are turbojet powered
All turbine powered aircraft
having a passenger
seating capacity of 30
seats or more
All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot flightcrew. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply
Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number
Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? Minimum fuel supply and trip number
Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation
Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft
. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
All of the time the secondin-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. What is the flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station? Above FL 250 FL 240 FL 250. What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons? Four Two Three. What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command? 15 seats 10 seats 20 seats. What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for 30 percent of the passengers
each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude
10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes
. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment
The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft? One for each passenger seat One for each passenger, plus 10 percent
One for each occupant of the aircraft
. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums have been completed in the past 6 months 120 days after issue or renewal. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within 72 hours after returning to home base 24 hours after returning to home base 12 hours after returning to home base. Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest NOTAMs? Notices To Airmen publication Any company dispatch facility Airport/Facility Directory. Which is a ddisadvantage of thr one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane? It is more complicated the holding time is increased
more fluid is used whith
the one-step method when
large deposits of ice and
snowmust be fluseh off
airplane surfaces. Which document includes descriptions of the
required crewmember functions to be performed
in the event of an emergency? Airplane Flight Manual
Pilot's Emergency Procedures Certificate holder's manual
. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan Dispatch release and weight and balance release Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? Only a pilot, flight
engineer, or flight
navigator assigned to duty
in an aircraft during flight
time. Any person assigned to
duty in an aircraft during
flight except a pilot or flight
engineer. A person assigned to
perform duty in an aircraft
during flight time. Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxygen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane? At altitudes above FL 250,
one of the two pilots at the
controls shall use an
oxygen mask continuosly Both pilots at the controls
shall use oxygen masks
above FL 350
At altitudes above 25,000
feet MSL, if one pilot
leaves the pilot duty
station, the remaining pilot
at the controls shall use an
oxygen mask. Which is one of the requirements that must be
met by a required pilot flight crewmember in reestablishing
recency of experience? At least one ILS approach
to the lowest ILS
minimums authorized for
the certificate holder and a
landing from that approach
At least one landing must
be made with a simulated
failure of the most critical
engine At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. Which requirement applies to emergency
equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones,
first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air
carrier airplane? Which requirement applies to emergency
equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones,
first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air
carrier airplane? Emergency equipment
must be clearly identified
and clearly marked to
indicate its method of
operation All emergency equipment,
must be readily accessible
to the passengers. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? Person who declares the emergency Pilot in command Dispatcher. Who is responsible for obtaining information on
all current airport conditions, weather, and
irregularities of
navigation facilities for a supplemental air
carrier flight? Pilot in command Aircraft dispatcher Director of operations or flight follower. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a
domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on
all available B weather information? Director of operations Company meteorologist Aircraft dispatcher. Which document specifically authorizes a
person to operate an aircraft in a particular
geographic area? Operating Certificate Operations Specifications Dispatch Release. Cada cuanto tiempo deberá efectuar un
entrenamiento recurrente en esa posición, El
Piloto de Transporte de Línea Aérea (PTL) que
haya de actuar como Piloto de relevo en
crucero,en las maniobras descritas ? El Piloto de Transporte de
Línea Aérea (PTL)
certificado para
desempeñarse como
Piloto de Relevo en
Crucero en vuelos de
largo alcance, deberá
efectuar un
entrenamiento recurrente
en esa posición, en las
maniobras descritas dos veces al año y de conformidad con el
Manual de entrenamiento aprobado. El Piloto de Transporte de
Línea Aérea (PTL)
certificado para
desempeñarse como
Piloto de Relevo en
Crucero en vuelos de
largo alcance, deberá
efectuar un
entrenamiento recurrente
en esa posición, en las
maniobras descritas cada
dos años de conformidad
con el Manual de
entrenamiento aprobado. El Piloto de Transporte de
Línea Aérea (PTL)
certificado para
desempeñarse como
Piloto de Relevo en
Crucero en vuelos de
largo alcance, deberá
efectuar un entrenamiento
recurrente en esa
posición, en las maniobras
descritas una vez al año y
de conformidad con el
Manual de entrenamiento
aprobado. Como debera cumplirse el entrenamiento para
el Piloto de Transporte de Línea Aérea (PTL)
que haya de actuar como Piloto de Relevo en
crucero, en vuelos de largo alcance ? Este programa deberá
cumplirse en un simulador
de vuelo con un mínimo
de dos (2) periodos de dos
(2) horas cada uno y un
chequeo ante Inspector de
la UAEAC ó ante
Examinador Designado Este programa deberá
cumplirse en un simulador
de vuelo con un mínimo
de dos (2) periodos de dos
(2) horas cada uno y un
chequeo ante Examinador
Designado. Este programa deberá
cumplirse en un simulador
de vuelo con un mínimo
de un (1) periodo de dos
(2) horas cada uno y un
chequeo ante Inspector de
la UAEAC ó ante
Examinador Designado. Como se realiza el Recobro de autonomía de
un PTL despues de un receso de mas de
sesenta meses de inactividad de vuelo?. Si el receso es mayor a 60
meses, deberá cumplir
con el entrenamiento
inicial de vuelo
y de tierra, en el equipo en
que se desea recobrar la
autonomía y presentar un
chequeo de
proeficiencia ante
Inspector de la UAEAC ó
Examinador Designado en
el equipo en que
desea recobrar la
autonomía. Si el receso es mayor a 60
meses y es menor de 120
meses, deberá cumplir
con un reentrenamiento,
en el equipo en que se
desea recobrar la
autonomía Si el receso excede60
meses y es menor de 65
meses, deberá efectuar un
repaso del curso de tierra
y un periodo de dos horas
de avión o simulador, ante
un Inspector de la
UAEAC, examinador
Designado o Piloto
Chequeador en el equipo
en que desea recobrar la
autonomía. Cual es la definicion de tiempo de servicio para un Piloto de transporte de Linea aérea? Tiempo de servicio es
todo período de tiempo
durante el cual el
tripulante se halle a
disposición de la empresa.
El tiempo de servicio de
los tripulantes asignados a
un vuelo empieza a
contarse una hora y media
antes de la iniciación
programada de los vuelos
internacionales y una hora
antes de los vuelos
domésticos y se termina
de contar al finalizar el
vuelo Tiempo de servicio es
todo período de tiempo
durante el cual el
tripulante se halle a
disposición de la empresa.
El tiempo de servicio de
los tripulantes asignados a
un vuelo empieza a
contarse una hora antes
de la iniciación
programada de los vuelos
internacionales y una hora
antes de los vuelos
domésticos y se termina
de contar al finalizar el
vuelo. Tiempo de servicio es
todo período de tiempo
durante el cual el
tripulante se halle a
disposición de la empresa.
El tiempo de servicio de
los tripulantes asignados a
un vuelo empieza a
contarse dos horas antes
de la iniciación
programada de los vuelos
internacionales y una hora
antes de los vuelos
domésticos y se termina
de contar al finalizar el
vuelo. Cuales son las condiciones para poder ejercer
las atribuciones de la licencia de Piloto de
Transporte de Linea Aérea? Para mantener vigentes
las atribuciones de la
licencia y poder ejercerlas,
todos los pilotos y
copilotos de transporte de
línea aérea comercial
regular deben cumplir con
lo indicado en
el numeral 2.4.1.1.4 Para mantener vigentes
las atribuciones de la
licencia y poder ejercerlas,
todos los pilotos y
copilotos de transporte de
línea aérea comercial
regular deben cumplir con
lo indicado en
el numeral 2.2.1.1.4 Para mantener vigentes
las atribuciones de la
licencia y poder ejercerlas,
todos los pilotos y
copilotos de transporte de
línea aérea comercial
regular deben cumplir con
lo indicado en el numeral
2.7.1.1.4. Cuando la UAEAC convalide una licencia
extranjera otorgada por un Estado contratante
de
la OACI Esta autorización será
expedida con restricciones
y/o limitaciones,
incluyendo fecha de
vencimiento (que no podrá
exceder el vencimiento de
la licencia original), tipo de
aeronave y el explotador
colombiano para el cual se
prestará el servicio. Esta autorización será
expedida sin restricciones
y/o limitaciones, sin incluir
fecha de vencimiento (que
podrá exceder el
vencimiento de la licencia
original), tipo de aeronave
y el explotador colombiano
para el cual se prestará el
servicio. Esta autorización será
expedida con restricciones
y/o limitaciones,
incluyendo fecha de
vencimiento ( podrá
exceder el vencimiento de
la licencia original), tipo de
aeronave y el explotador
colombiano para el cual se
prestará el servicio. El Piloto de Transporte de Línea Aérea (PTL)
que haya de actuar como Piloto de relevo en
crucero, en vuelos de largo alcance, deberá
cumplir con el entrenamiento
previsto en el numeral 2.2.7. de los RAC y con
el programa de entrenamiento aprobado por la
UAEAC a la empresa de transporte aéreo Si la empresa lo considera
se adicionará, como
mínimo, las siguientes
maniobras en la silla
izquierda:
a. Pérdida de motor
durante crucero;
b. Descenso de
emergencia;
c. Actitudes inusuales de
la aeronave;
d. Fallas eléctricas, fallas
de navegación; y
e. Aterrizajes en silla
derecha como piloto no
volando. No es mandatorio sin
embargo se podran
efectuar a criterio las
siguientes maniobras en la
silla derecha:
a. Pérdida de motor
durante crucero;
b. Descenso de
emergencia;
c. Actitudes inusuales de
la aeronave;
d. Fallas eléctricas, fallas
de navegación. Correcto y se adicionará,
como
mínimo, las siguientes
maniobras en la silla
derecha:
a. Pérdida de motor
durante crucero;
b. Descenso de
emergencia;
c. Actitudes inusuales de
la aeronave;
d. Fallas eléctricas, fallas
de navegación; y
e. Aterrizajes en silla
derecha como piloto no
volando. Cuando el Examinador Designado actúe como instructor de vuelo podrá desempeñarse como examinador. se entenderá que este actúa como examinador no podrá desempeñarse como examinador. En la cabina de mando cual es la posición de los Tripulantes?
Serán definidas de
acuerdo con las
autorizacion de la
compañía operadora de la
aeronave y el piloto al
mando podrá ocupar el
asiento del copiloto y
viceversa. estarán definidas y serán
ocupadas de acuerdo con
las prescripciones del
fabricante de la aeronave,
sin embargo el piloto al
mando podrá ocupar el
asiento del copiloto y
viceversa previa
autorizacion. estarán definidas y serán
ocupadas de acuerdo con
las prescripciones del
fabricante de la aeronave,
de modo que el piloto al
mando no podrá ocupar el
asiento del copiloto, ni
viceversa. En que consiste la habilitación de competencia lingüística en el idioma inglés ?
Los requisitos en materia
de competencia lingüística
aplicables en USA a
pilotos comprenden los
descriptores integrales y el
nivel lingüístico para la
aviación civil de la escala
de calificación de
competencia lingüística de
la UAEAC Comunicarse eficazmente
en situaciones de trato
oral, (teléfonoradiotelefono)
y en
situaciones de contacto
directo, Comunicarse con
precisión y claridad sobre
temas comunes,
concretos y
relacionados con el
trabajo y utilizar
estrategias de
comunicación apropiadas
para intercambiar
mensajes Los requisitos en materia
de competencia lingüística
aplicables en Colombia a
pilotos comprenden los
descriptores integrales y el
nivel lingüístico para la
aviación civil de la escala
de calificación de
competencia lingüística de
la UAEAC
. Es posible que las horas voladas como copiloto
sean aceptadas como horas de vuelo como
piloto de una aeronave ? En caso de horas de vuelo
cumplidas de acuerdo con
el Numeral 2.2.1.4.2., se
computarán cuatro (4)
horas de copiloto por una
(1) hora de piloto al
mando. En caso de horas de vuelo
cumplidas de acuerdo con
el Numeral 2.2.1.4.2., se
computarán tres (3) horas
de copiloto por una (1)
hora de piloto al mando. En caso de horas de vuelo
cumplidas de acuerdo con
el Numeral 2.2.1.4.2., se
computarán dos (2) horas
de copiloto por una (1)
hora de piloto al mando. La instrucción recibida por el piloto en un
dispositivo de instrucción para simulación de
vuelo será aceptable como parte de las 1500
horas, limitando el crédito por dicha
experiencia a un máximo de 100 horas Es cierto pero de las
cuales, no más de 50 se
habrán adquirido
en un entrenador de vuelo
aprobado por la UAEAC al
correspondiente centro de
instrucción aeronáutica Es cierto pero de las
cuales, no más de 25 se
habrán adquirido
en un entrenador de vuelo
aprobado por la UAEAC al
correspondiente centro de
instrucción aeronáutica. Es cierto pero de las
cuales, no más de 100 se
habrán adquirido
en un entrenador de vuelo
aprobado por la UAEAC al
correspondiente centro de
instrucción aeronáutica. La licencia de Piloto de Transporte de Línea
Aérea - Avión, se expedirá a quien haya de
actuar como piloto al mando (Comandante) en
aviones de servicios aéreos comerciales de
transporte público regular y no regular
(pasajeros, correo o carga), en aviones con un
peso
superior a 5.700 Kg. (12.500 lb.) 5.500 Kg.(12.300 Lb) 5.000 Kg.(12.000 Lb). La UAEAC, contempla tres métodos de convalidación de licencias Personal extranjero que
viene con carácter
transitorio a capacitar
personal colombiano Personal extranjero que
desea trabajar permanen -
temente en Colombia Personal extranjero que
viene con carácter
transitorio a volar en
Colombia. Los exámenes de vuelo para pilotos de
transporte de línea (PTL-PTH) seran
presentados ante
Inspectores de la UAEAC
o ante Examinadores
Designados autorizados. Inspectores de la UAEAC
solamente. Piloto o Ingeniero
Chequeador ó ante
Examinador Designado. Que conocimientos apropiados a las
atribuciones
que la licencia de piloto de transporte de línea
aérea - AVIÓN confiere a su titular, debe tener? Las disposiciones y
reglamentos pertinentes,
normas aplicables al
transporte aéreo; el
reglamento
del aire; los métodos y
proedimientos de los
servicios de tránsito aéreo
y el RAC Haber realizado cuarenta
(40) horas de vuelo por
instrumentos , un máximo
de veinte horas de vuelo
en dispositivo de
entrenamiento de vuelo
y/o en simulador de vuelo Los procedimientos
previos al vuelo, que
incluirán la utilización
de un documento
equivalente, y de los
documentos
correspondientes de los
servicios de tránsito
aéreo. Que experiencia de vuelo debe tener un piloto aspirante a obtener la licencia PTL? será titular de licencia de
Piloto Comercial (PCA) y
habrá realizado como
mínimo tresmil (3.000)
horas totales de vuelo
como piloto de aviones
(piloto al
mando o copiloto) será titular de licencia de
Piloto Comercial (PCA) y
habrá realizado como
mínimo mil quinientas
(1.500) horas totales de
vuelo como piloto de
aviones (piloto al
mando o copiloto) será titular de licencia de
Piloto Comercial (PCA) y
habrá realizado como
mínimo dos mil quinientas
(2.500) horas totales de
vuelo como piloto de
aviones (piloto al mando o
copiloto). Que otras actividades se consideran también como tiempo de servicio para un PTL ? a. El transcurrido en
calidad de reserva.
b. El necesario para
transportarse, por
cualquier medio, hacia un
lugar diferente a la base
de residencia del
tripulante y el regreso por
cualquier medio a la
misma; o el que de
cualquier modo implique
su traslado en condición
de tripulante adicional
(tripadi). Es el que aparece
publicado en los itinerarios
oficiales de las respectivas
empresa, Es el lapso durante el cual
los tripulantes son
asignados para
actividades de vuelo y
disponibilidad para
cualquier entrenamiento y
cursos de tierra. Que otros conocimientos debe tener el
poseedor de la licencia de piloto de transporte
de línea aérea - AVIÓN ? Los procedimientos
previos al vuelo, que
incluirán la utilización
de un documento
equivalente, y de los
documentos
correspondientes de los
servicios de tránsito
aéreo. Principios del Derecho
aéreo,conocimiento
general de los sistemas de
la
aeronave,rendimiento,fact
ores
humanos,meteorología y
navegacion entre otros. Haber realizado cuarenta
(40) horas de vuelo por
instrumentos , un máximo
de veinte horas de vuelo
en dispositivo de
entrenamiento de vuelo
y/o en simulador de vuelo. Que se entiende por tiempo programado ? Es el que aparece en los
itinerarios adicionales de
las respectivas empresa,
En los casos de los vuelos
no publicados en los
itinerarios oficiales, se
considera como tiempo
programado el previsto en
el respectivo plan de
vuelo.
El tiempo programado no
debe exceder los limites
establecidos para tiempo
de vuelo y tiempo de
servicio. Es el que aparece
publicado en los itinerarios
de las respectivas
empresa, previamente
aprobado por la direccion
de operaciones. En los
casos de los vuelos no
publicados en los
itinerarios, se considera
como tiempo programado
el previsto en el respectivo
plan de vuelo.
El tiempo programado no
debe exceder los limites
establecidos para tiempo
de vuelo y tiempo de
servicio. Es el que aparece
publicado en los itinerarios
oficiales de las respectivas
empresa, previamente
aprobado por la UAEAC.
En los casos de los vuelos
no publicados en los
itinerarios oficiales, se
considera como tiempo
programado el previsto en
el respectivo plan de
vuelo.
El tiempo programado no
debe exceder los limites
establecidos para tiempo
de vuelo y tiempo de
servicio. How far from other parking areas or installations
is the parking area designated for aircraft
subjected to unlawful interference to be not less
than? 50 m 100 m 200 m. An airport security program shall be established by each State for: any airport identified as having a poor safety record. each airport serving international civil aviation. airports that are perceived as being under increased threat of acts of unlawful interference. The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent
lands and buildings or the parts of them with
controlled access is called: Terminal Airside manoeuvring area. If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful
seizure has landed on its territory, each
Contracting State shall: let the aircraft depart if it is
necessary to protect
human life A and C detain the aircraft on ground. An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war: unless the commander agrees. unless they are unloaded and made safe. unless the written
permission of the Authority
and the operator is
obtained. Each State, according ICAO Annex 17, shall
ensure the establishment of a security
programme: that is common for all airports within State. at each airport for every airline operating in the State. Who is responsible to establish security measures? The State of the Operator Each ICAO contracting State ICAO. The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by each contracting state ICAO ICAO and other
organications including the
contracting state
concerned. Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex: 17 15 12. During taxi to the runway for takeoff, tha aircraft
is accidentally taxied onto the grass and the
undercarriage is seriously damaged. Nobody on
board or on the ground is hurt. What type of
occurrence is this? Incident Serious incident
Accident
. Which of the following defines transition altitude? The altitude at which
1.013 mb is set and
vertical position then
reported as a flight leve The flight level below
which the vertical position
of an aircraft is determined
by reference to 1.013 mb The altitude below which
the vertical position of an
aircraft is determined by
reference to QFE. You are flying in a mountainous region and you
see the letter "X" on the ground. What does this
mean? Medical assistance required. Mechanical assistance required. All have survived. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after
having experienced two-way radio
communications failure. When should that pilot
begin descent for the instrument approach? At the EFC time, if this is
within plus or minus 3
minutes of the flight plan
ETA as amended by ATC At flight plan ETA as
amended by ATC. At the EFC time as
amended by ATC.
. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. eyes are moved often in the process of cross- checking the flight instruments. body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. After experiencing two-way radio
communications failure en route, when should a
pilot begin the descent for the instrument
approach? Upon arrival at any initial
approach fix for the
instrument approach
procedure but not before
the flight plan ETA as
amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding
fix depicted on the
instrument approach
procedure at the corrected
ETA, plus or minus 3
minutes At the primary initial
approach fix for the
instrument approach
procedure at the ETA
shown on the flight plan or
the EFC time, whichever
is later. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is developing lift. operating at high airspeeds.
using high power settings.
. Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is closer to the runway than it actually is. farther from the runway than it actually is. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.
. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off prior to the point where the jet touched down beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet
touched down and on the
upwind edge of the
runway. In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as somatogravic illusion. ground lighting illusion. autokinesis. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least 50 feet or less to another aircraft. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.
the percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased. oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
. Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of pitching up. pitching down. leveling off. The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as inversion illusion autokinesis. somatogravic illusion. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make
flight path adjustments to avoid make
turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft
should fly below the established
glidepath and slightly to
either side of the oncourse
centerline. on the established
glidepath and on the
approach course
centerline or runway
centerline extended. above the established
glidepath and slightly
downwind of the oncourse
centerline. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. climb above and stay upwind of the flightpath remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? When collision with another aircraft is imminent. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage. What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? Continue on the route
specified in the clearance
and fly the highest of the
following: the last
assigned altitude, altitude
ATC has informed the pilot
to expect, or to the MEA Descend to MEA and, if
clear of clouds, procceed
to the nearest appropriate
airport. If not clear of
clouds, maintain the
highest of the MEAs along
the clearance route. Fly the most direct route to
the destination,
maintaining the last
assigned altitude or MEA,
whichever is higher. What causes hypoxia? Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicates an emergency situaion is possible should an undue delay occur. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? Does not cause illusions. Lower than actual. Higher than actual.
. What is a sympton of carbon monoxide poisoning? Rapid, shallow breathing. Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. Dizziness. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? Alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abbilities. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. What is the hijack code? 7200. 7500. 7777. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? Look only at far away, dim lights. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? Anytime the pilot is
doubtful of a condition that
could adversely affect
flight safety. When fuel endurance or
weather will require an en
route or landing priority When distress conditions
such as fire, mechanical
failure, or structural
damage occurs. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? Direct tailwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind. When making a landing over darkened or
featureless terrain such as water or snow, a
pilot should be aware of the possibility of
illusion. The approach may appear to be too high. low shallow. When making an approach to a narrower-than- usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach When making an approach to a narrower-than- usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach altitude may be lower than it appears. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. above the horizon and increasing in size. on the horizon with little relative movement. on the horizon and increasing in size. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane
create the most severe flight hazard by
generating wingtip vortices of the greatest
strength? Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
. Which is the purpose may flight spoilers be used? Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.
Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.
. Which is a common sympton of hyperventilation? Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. Increased vision keenness. Decreased breathing rate. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance? One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A stressful situation causing anxiety. The excessive consumption of alcohol. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences twoway
radio communications failure. Which route
should be flown in the absence of an ATC
assigned route or a route ATC has advised to
expect in a further clearance? The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. An off-airway route to the point of departure. The route filed in the flight plan. While making prolonged constant rate turns
under IFR conditions, an abrupt head
movement can create the illusion of rotation on
an entirely different axis. This is known as
autokinesis. Coriolis illusion the leans. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. accumulate and remain for
a period of time at the
point where the takeoff roll
began. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status
when your fuel supply has reached a state
where, upon reaching your destination, you
cannot accept any undue delay.
This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing,
declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? Does not cause illusions Lower than actual. Higher than actual. A calm wind that is forecast, in the International
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is
encoded as VRB00KT. 00000KT. 00003KT. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates the absence of clouds in the area. an area of no convective turbulence an area where precipitation drops are not detected. Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point proctetion to menos 20° F ambient F315
32° F out side temperature or below
A freezing point no greater
than 20° F below the
ambient or airplane
surface temperature. A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an
International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
(TAF) indicates the probability of thunderstorms or other precipitation. precipitation or low visibility. thunderstorms or high wind. A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is 50 knots greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 55 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter. A squall line is a sudden increase of at least 15
knots in average wind speed to a sustained
speed of 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 2 minutes. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute. A strong wind shear can be expected on the low pressure side
of a 100 knots jetstream
core.
where the horizontal wind
shear is 15 knots, in a
distance equal to 2.5°
longitude.
if the 5° C isotherms are
spaced 100 NM or closer
together. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40
knots, within a microburst, may expect a total
shear across the microburst of 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45
knots, within a microburst, may expect a total
shear across the microburst of 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction
causes the wind to flow across isobars into a
low because the friction decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. decreases pressure gradient force. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? At the poles. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°). At the Equator. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value during the downdraft and heavy rain showers. when the thunderstorm is approaching.
immediately after the rain showers have stopped.
. Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain. Constant pressure analysis charts contain
contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs.
The contours depict ridges,lows,troughs and hights aloft. highs,lows,troughs, and ridges on the surface. highs,lows,troughs,and ridges corrected to MSL. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus
layer can produce which threat to instrument
flight? Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms. Doppler wind measurements indicate tha the
windspeed change a piloto may expect when
flying through the peak intensity of a microburst
is approximately 15 Knots 25 Knots
45 Knots
. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which
stage is characterized predominately by
downdrafts?
cumulus dissipating mature. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids residue one engine fan or c0mpressor blades can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. could cause FDP vapors
to enter the aircraft but
would have no affect on
engine thrust or power.
can reduce engine
performance and cause
surging and/or compressor
stalls. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing provide ice protection during flight. . are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing B provide ice protection during flight. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff. Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that a climb can be made to a
higher altitude without
encountering more than
light icing.
a layer of warmer air
exists above.
ice pellets at higher
altitudes have changed to
rain in the warmer air
below. How are haze layers cleared or dispersed? By convective mixing in cool night air. By wind or the movement of air. . By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? Ambient temperature lapse rate. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere? Causes clockwise rotation around a low. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. In comparison to an approach in a moderate
headwind, which is an indication of a possible
wind shear due to a decreasing headwindwhen
descending on the glide slope?
Less power is required.
Higher pitch attitude is required. Lower descent rate is required.
. In the International Terminal Aerodrome
Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is
noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction
usually appears. A calm wind appears in the
TAF as 00003KT. VRB00KT. 00000KT. In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form? Warm fronts or occluded fronts. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts. Cold front occlusions. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure at the surface reduced to sea level at a given atmospheric pressure altitude. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as 1,500 ft/min. 4,500 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min. METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM
FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001. SPECI KHRO
131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020
BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS
TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.What
change has taken place between 1753 and
1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)? The ceiling lowered and
cumulonimbus clouds
developed.
Thundershowers began at
12 minutes past the hour.
Visibility reduced to IFR
conditions. METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM
BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44.
Which weather condition is indicated by this
METAR report at Midland (KMAF)? Rain of unknown intensity
ended 16 minutes before
the hour.
The ceiling was at 25,000
feet MSL.
Wind was 020° magnetic
at 20 knots.
Wind was 020° magnetic
at 20 knots.
. METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA
SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS
131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015
22/21 A3000. Which change took place at
Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820
UTC? The rain became lighter. Atmospheric pressure increased. A funnel cloud was observed. On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft
and satellite observations are used in the
analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft
observation is plotted using a station circle at the aircraft location. a square at the aircraft location. a star at the aircraft location. On the constant pressure analysis chart,
satellite and aircraft observations are used in
the analysis over areas of sparse data. A
satellite observation is plotted using a station circle at the cloud top location. a square at the cloud top location. a star at the cloud top location. Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
must be considered as
adhering to the aircraft,
but a safe takeoff can be
made as it will blow off. SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140
2SM+SHRA SCT005BKN035 OVC050CB24/23
A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT
58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston
(KGLS) indicates which condition? Wind steady at 100°
magnetic at 12 knots,
gusts to 21.
Precipitation started at 57
after the hour.
5,000 feet overcast with
towering cumulus. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having
a thickness and roughness similar to medium or
coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and
upper surface of a wing can reduce lift by as much as
40 percent and increase
drag by 30 percent.
increase drag and reduce
lift by as much as 40
percent.
.
reduce lift by as much as
30 percent and increase
drag by 40 percent. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having
a thickness and roughness similar to medium or
coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and
upper surface of a wing can reduce lift by as much as
40 percent and increase
drag by 30 percent.
.
reduce lift by as much as
30 percent and increase
drag by 40 percent.
increase drag and reduce
lift by as much as 40
percent. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on
aircraft performance and flight characteristics
include decreased lift and increased thrust. a decreased stall speed.
an increased stall speed.
. The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is 18 knots or less. greater than 18 knots. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor. The prevailing visibility in the following METAR
is METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT
M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004
06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $ less than 1/4 statute mile. measured 1/4 statute mile. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile. The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing
fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is
to raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point.
increase the minimum
freezing point (onset of
crystallization). The VV001 in the following METAR indicates
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT
M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001
A2989 RMK AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO
RWY19 $ an observer reported the
vertical visibility as 100
feet.
a 100 foot indefinite
ceiling.
the variability value is 100
feet. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired
indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being
flown. Which characteristics should be
observed when a tailwind shears to a constant
headwind? PITCH ATTITUDE:
Increases. VERTICAL
SPEED: Increases.
INDICATED AIRSPEED:
Decreases, then increases
to approach speed.
PITCH ATTITUDE:
Increases. VERTICAL
SPEED: Decreases.
INDICATED AIRSPEED:
Increases, then
decreases.
PITCH ATTITUDE:
Increases. VERTICAL
SPEED: Increases.
INDICATED AIRSPEED:
Decreases, then increases
to approach speed. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet
AGL, not associated with cloud formations,
should be reported as
convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? When constant pressure
charts show 20-knot
isotachs less than 60 NM
apart.
When constant pressure
charts show 60-knot
isotachs less than 20 NM
apart
When a sharp trough is
moving at a speed less
than 20 knots.
. Vertical wind shear can be determined by
comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant
pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is
critical for probability of turbulence is 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 6 knots or more pre 1,000 feet greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet. Weather conditions expected to occur in the
vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are
denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears
in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a
geographical area of a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport. a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
. What action is recommended when
encountering turbulence due to a wind shift
associated with a sharp pressure trough? Establish a course across the trough. Climb or descend to a smoother level. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? Convection currents at the surface. Cold temperatures. Poor visibility. What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight? Thunderstorms at higher levels. Freezing rain at higher levels. Snow at higher levels. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? Supercooled water drops. Water vapor.
Visible water.
. What condition produces the most frequent type
of ground- or surface-based temperature
inversion? The movement of colder
air under warm air or the
movement of warm air
over cold air.
Widespread sinking of air
within a thick layer aloft
resulting in heating by
compression.
Terrestrial radiation on a
clear, relatively calm night.
. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A stable layer of air. An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft. What information from the control tower is
indicated by the following transmission?
"SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO
AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND
TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE". A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.
. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
There is an overall
decrease of temperature
with an increase of
altitude.
The average altitude of
the top of the troposphere
is about 6 miles. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm? Air mass thunderstorms
produce precipitation
which falls outside of the
updraft.
Air mass thunderstorm
downdrafts and
precipitation retard and
reverse the updrafts.
Steady-state
thunderstorms are
associated with local
surface heating. What is a feature of a stationary front? The warm fron surface
moves about half the
speed of the cold front
surface.
Weather conditions are a
combination of strong cold
front and strong warm
front weather.
Surface winds tend to flow
parallel to the frontal zone. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? Ascending from the
surface high to lower
pressure at higher
altitudes.
Descending to the surface
and then outward.
Moving outward from the
high at high altitudes and
into the high at the
surface. What is a feature of supercooled water? The water drop sublimates
to an ice particle upon
impact.
The unstable water drop
freezes upon striking an
exposed object.
The temperature of the
water drop remains at 0 °C
until it impacts a part of
the airframe, then clear ice
accumulates. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
It is primarily associated
with the lateral vortices
generated by
thunderstorms.
It usually exists only in the
vicinity of thunderstorms,
but may be found near a
strong temperature
inversion.
It may be associated with
either a wind shift or a
wind speed gradient at
any level in the
atmosphere. What is indicated about an air mass if the
temperature remains unchanged or decreases
slightly as altitude is increased? The air is unstable. A temperature inversion exists. The air is stable. What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"? Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds. What is likely location of clear air turbulence? In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? 3° per 1,000 feet. 2° per 1,000 feet. 4° per 1,000 feet. What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant
(FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or
compressor blades? to enter the aircraft but
would have no affect on
engine thrust or power.
It can increase
performance and cause
stalls or surges.
It can reduce engine
performance and cause
surging and/or compressor
stalls. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? Five minutes with
maximum winds lasting
approximately 2 to 4
minutes.
One microburst may
continue for as long as an
hour.
Seldom longer than 15
minutes from the time the
burst strikes the ground
until dissipation. What is the general direction of movement of a
hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of
Mexico?
Nortwesterly curving to northeasterly. Westerly, until encountering land ,then easterly. Counterclockwise over oper water, then dissipating outward over land. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? In a upper trough on the polar side a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? Two minutes with
maximum winds lasting
approximately 1 minute.
One microburst may
continue for as long as 2
to 4 hours.
Seldom longer than 15
minutes from the time the
burst strikes the ground
until dissipation. What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? Rotor cloud. Standing lenticular. Low stratus. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?
Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry
areas. What is the recommended technique to counter
the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind
shear? Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
Avoid overstressing the
aircraft, "pitch to
airspeed," and apply
maximum power.
Maintain, or increase,
pitch attitude and accept
the lower-than-normal
airspeed indications. What is the result when water vapor changes to
the liquid state while being lifted in a
thunderstorm? Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet. What is the single source reference that
contains information regarding volcanic
eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a
specific region? Weather Depiction Chart In flight weather advisories
Area forecast
. What minimum thickness of cloud layer is
indicated if precipitation is reported as light or
greater intensity? 4,000 feet thick. 2,000 feet thick.
A thickness which allows
the cloud tops to be higher
than the freezing level. What temperature condition is indicated if
precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs
during flight? The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes.
There is an inversion with colder air below.
. What term describes an elongated area of low pressure? Trough. Ridge. Hurricane or Typhon. What type turbulence should be reported when
it causes in altitude and/or attitude more than
two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining
in positive control at all times? Continuous severe chop. Continuous moderate turbulence. Intermittent moderate turbulence. What type turbulence should be reported when
it momentarily causes slight, erratic chnages in
altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of
the time? Occasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulence. What type weather change is to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported? The frontal weather is becoming stronger. The front is dissipating. The front is moving at a faster speed. What weather condition occurs at the altitude
where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry
adiabatic lapse rate converge? Cloud bases form. Precipitation starts.
Stable air changes to unstable air.
. What weather difference is found on each side of a "dry line"? Extreme temperature difference. Dewpoint difference . Stratus versus cumulus clouds. What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause? Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause. T Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level. What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity. Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station. Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex. When advection fog has developed, what may
tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus
clouds? Temperature inversion. Wind stronger than 15 knots. Surface radiation. When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period? After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight. When flying over the top of a severe
thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by
at least 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed. 2,500 feet. 500 feet above any moderate to a severe turbulence layer. When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases at a faster than dry air because of the release of latent heat.
On clear nights at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.
at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.
. When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces? On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation.
.
On clear nights with
convective action and a
small
temperature/dewpoint
spread. Where are jetstreams normally located? In areas of strong low
pressure systems in the
stratosphere.
At the tropopause where
intensified temperature
gradients are located.
In a single continuous
band, encircling the Earth,
where there is a break
. Where can the maximum hazard zone caused
by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm
be found? In front of the
thunderstorm cell (anvil
side) and on the
southwest side of the cell Ahead of the roll cloud or
gust front and directly
under the anvil cloud.
On all sides and directly
under the thunderstorm
cell. Where do squall lines most often develop? In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front. Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur? In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jestream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds. Where is a common location for an inversion? At the tropopause. In the stratosphere.
At the base of cumulus clouds.
. Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts? The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front. Where is the usual location of a thermal low? Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region. Which action is recommended if jetstream
turbulence is encountered with a direct
headwind or tailwind? Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change occurs to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated area. Which action is recommended regarding an
altitude change to get out of jetstream
turbulence? Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing. Which airplane performance characteristics
should be recognized during takeoff when
encountering a tailwind shear that increases in
intensity? Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. LDecreased takeoff distance. increase climb perfomance inmediatelyafter takeoff
. Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus. Which area or areas of the Northern
Hemisphere experience a generally east to west
movement of weather systems? Arctic only Arctic and subtropical Subtropical only. Which arttic flying hazard is cause when a
cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow
or ice covered surface? Ice fog Whiteout
Blowing snow.
. Which atmospheric factor cause rapid movement of surface fronts? Upper winds blowing across the front.
Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.
. Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable? The parcel of air resists convection. . The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill.
As the parcel of air moves
upward, its temperature
becomes warmer than the
surrounding air. Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake? Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog. Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the
indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the
sink rate to decrease? Sudden decrease in a headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity Sudden increase in a headwind component.
. Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog? Moist, stable air behind moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity. Moist, st Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25- knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope. Which conditions result in the formation of frost? The temperature of the
collecting surface is at or
below freezing and small
droplets of moisture are
falling.
.
Dew collects on the
surface and then freezes
because the surface
temperature is lower than
the air temperature.
Temperature of the
collecting surface is below
the dewpoint and the
dewpoint is also below
freezing. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a fron into the colder air? Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases. Which feature is associated with the tropopause? Absence of wind and turbulence. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot
be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to
a calm wind? Altitude increases; pitch
and indicated airspeed
decrease Altitude, pitch, and
indicated airspeed
decrease.
Altitude, pitch, and
indicated airspeed
increase. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot
be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm
wind? Indicated airspeed
decreases, aircraft pitches
up, and altitude
decreases.
Indicated airspeed
increases, aircraft pitches
down, and altitude
increases.
Indicated airspeed
decreases, aircraft pitches
down, and altitude
decreases.
. What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phaseprocess? Hot Warm front. Cold front occlusions. Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"? Any rapid change of
horizontal wind shear in
excess of 25 knots;
vertical shear excepted.
Any rapid change in wind
direction or velocity which
causes airspeed changes
greater than 15 knots or
vertical speed changes
greater than 500 ft/min.
Any rapid change of
airspeed greater than 20
knots which is sustained
for more than 20 seconds
or vertical speed changes
in excess of 100 ft/min.
. Which is a necessary condition for the
occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion
wind shear? The temperature
differential between the
cold and warm layers must
be at least 10 °C.
A calm or light wind near
the surface and a
relatively strong wind just
above the inversion.
A wind direction difference
of at least 30° between the
wind near the surface and
the wind just above the
inversion. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? Increased stall speed Increased pitchdown tendencies increase angle of attack for stalls. Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process? Ap`ly heated type 2 fluid Decrease the water content
Increase the viscosity of type 1 fluid
. Which primary source contains information
regarding the expected weather at the
destination airport, at the ETA? Low-Level Prog Chart. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
. Which procedure increases holding time when
deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step
process? Heated Type 1 fluid
followed by cold Type 2
fluid.
Cold Type 2 fluid followed
by hot Type 2 fluid.
Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid
followed by cold Type 1
fluid. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? Expansion of air as it raises. Movement of air over a colder surface. Release of latent heat during the vaporization
process.
. Which term applies when the temperature of
the air changes by compression or expansion
with no heat added or removed? Katabatic. Advection. Adiabatic. Which type cloud is associated with violent
turbulence and a tendency toward the
production of funnel clouds? Cumulonimbus mamma. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus. Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? Nimbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus. Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream? Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream. Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream? Cold front and warm front. Warm front. Occluded front. Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough. Which type of icing is associated with the
smallest size of water droplet similar to that
found in low-level stratus clouds? Frost ice. Frost ice. Rime ice. Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes? Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall linde thuunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water. Which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET Embedded thunderstorms,
lines of thunderstorms,
and thunderstorms with
3/4-inch hail or tornadoes.
Cumulonimbus clouds with
tops above the tropopause
and thunderstorms with
1/2-inch hail or funnel
clouds.
Any thunderstorm with a
severity level of VIP 2 or
more. Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer? Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind. Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band? Squall line. Advective fog. Frontogenesis. Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone? Calm. High pressure area. low pressure area. Which weather condition is present when the tropical stor is upgraded to a hurricane? Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more. A clear area of hurricane eye has formed.. Sustained winds of 65 knots or more. Which weather phenomenon signals the
beginning of the mature stage of a
thunderstorm? The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind. Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous? Downdrafts are kept cool
by cold rain which tends to
accelerate the downward
velocity.
Downdrafts converge
toward a central location
under the storm after
striking the surface.
Downdrafts become
warmer than the
surrounding air and
reverse into an updraft
before reaching the
surface. A breaking action given by ATS of 0,25 and below is: medium/poor good poor. On a wet runway the surface is soaked but
no significant patches of
standing water are visible.
the surface shows a
change of colour due to
moisture.
significant patches of
standing water are visible.
. The duration of an ATIS message should not exceed: 1 minute. 30 seconds. 2 minutes. A runway would not be reported as "flooded" unless: significant patches of standing water are visible.
30% of the runway surface
is covered to a depth
between 3 mm and 15 mm
with water.
extensive standing water
is visible. The SIGMET service in the ATP is in the following part: GEN AGA ENR. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: GEN, ENR (enroute) and AD (aerodromes). GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL. What is the meaning of "WIP"? With permission With effect from Work in progress. The ICAO document concerning the provision
of the AIS is Annex _____ to the Convention on
Civil Aviation 9 15 7. A detailed description of lower ATS routes can be found in part ____ section ____ of the AIP. 1; ENR0 2; ENR3 3; ADO. An aircraft in flight in an IFR would receive a report of severe turbulence in the ____format. SIGMET
SPECI AIREP
. Select the acronym corresponding to the
following definition: an special NOTAM series
notifying, by means of a specific format, an
important change for the aircraft operations,
due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or
a volcanic ash cloud VULTAM NAVTAM ASHTAM. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts: DME frequencies visibility minima OCH or OCA
. Each contrating state shall provide an
Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its
territory and for areas in which the state is
responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside
its territory, and this shall include the
preparation and origination of: only NOTAM's and Circulars. integrated Aeronautical Information Package. only AIP and NOTAM's. Which of the following phenomena would cause
a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at
subsonic cruising levels? Cumulo-nimbus cloud,
volcanic ash or severe
icing.
Active thunderstorms,
moderate or severe
turbulence or heavy hail.
Severe line squalls, heavy
hail or severe icing. The temporary, long-term modification (3
months or more) and the short-term extensive
or graphical information are published as
follows: AIP Amendments trigger NOTAM
AIP Supplements
. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: the nationality letters for
the location indicators
assigned to the state,
followed by P, R and D.
the letters P (Prohibited),
R (Restricted) and D
(Dangerous) for the area
concerned and figures.
the nationality letters for
location indicators
assigned to the state or
territory, followed the
letters P, R and D and
figures. Runway Visual Range is reported and passed to an aircraft when the visibility falls below: 1.500 m 1.500 ft 1.100 m. Which of the following describe the state of the surface of a runway? Wet; damp; flushed; contaminated. Dry; damp; wet; water patches; flooded. Dry; wet; water patches; flooded. Surface friction information is provided for: the whole runway each 1/2 of the runway
each 1/3 of the runway
. Which of the following has had a significant
effect on the role and importance of
aeronautical information and flight data? ICAO
The introduction of RNAV,
RNP and computer
systems.
The speed of aeroplanes.
. In a precision approach category I lighting
sysem, the center line and crossbar lights shall
be: fixed lights showing variable green. Fixed lights showing variable green. flashing lights showing variable white. fixed lights showing variable white. Where on a taxiway is the runway vacated sign located? 30 m from the runway center line. At the boundary of the ILS/MLS sensitive area. 60 m from the runway center line. Runway center line lights must be provided: on runways equipped for
category I precision
approaches.
on a precision approach
runway category II or III.
on runways intended to be
used for takeoff with an
RVR>400 m by
aeroplanes with high
landing speeds. Touchdown zone markings are placed: 150 m from the runway threshold. 300 m from the runway threshold 450 m from the runway threshold. Runway end lights shall be: fixed lights showing variable red. fixed lights showing variable white. fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at
a taxi-holding position and the runway is
intended to be used in RVR condition less than
550 m? Traffic lights.
Specific operational
procedures to limit the
number of aircraft on the
manoeuvring area to one
at a time and vehicles on
the manoeuvring area to
the essential minimum.
Ground movement radar.
. Alternate yellow and green centerline lights of a taxiway indicate: the proximity of a runway. a rapid exit taxiway. an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area. Taxiway center line lights on a taxiway other than an exit taxiway shall be fixed light showing Green, yellow, and white beacon light. yellow white. Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign: runway designation sign. road holding position sign. direction sign. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and
the whole of the runway is used for takeoff,
which of the following runway lights can be
used to indicate the center of the runway from
the beginning of a runway to the displaced
threshold? An approach lighting
system if its characteristics
and intensity settings
afford the guidance
required during takeoff
and it does not dazzle the
pilot of an aircraft taking
ofF Red center line lights. Green/yellow alternating runway edge lights.
. The horizontal deviation on the expanded ILS display represented by one dot is aproximately 1° 2° 0.5°. The heading inputs to the EHSI are from: The IRS The FMC the IRS through the symbol generator. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated from the start of the before
starting engine checklist to
completion of final
checklist upon termination
of flight from the start of the before
starting engine checklist to
completion of checklist
prior to engine shutdown. when starting to taxi for
takeoff to the engine
shutdown checklist after
termination of the flight. A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or equipment which are required to be
operative for overwater
passenger air carrier
flights may be inoperative for a
one-time ferry flight of a
large airplane to a
maintenance base may be inoperative prior to
beginning a flight in an
aircraft. A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver over the MAWP after the MAWP. just prior to the MAWP. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: must be adhered to. does not preclude a rejected landing. precludes a rejected landing. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. se the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
maintain an altitude at or
above the glide slope until
a lower altitude is
necessary for a safe
landing. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be
aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI
glide slope angle may result in a hard landing. increased landing rollout. landing short of the runway threshold. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background. An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be
in satisfactory operating condition prior to
dispatch, if the flight will be conducted under VFR
conditions at night with
scattered thunderstorms
reported en route.
carrying passengers, but
not if it is "all cargo".
conducted IFR, and ATC
is able to radar vector the
flight around areas of
weather. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-thetop
conditions. What radio navigation
equipment is required to be a dual installation? VOR.
VOR and ILS.
VOR and DME.
. An air carrier that elects to use an Inertial
Navigational System (INS) must meet which
equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a
proposed flight? The INS system must
consist of two operative
INS units.
Only one INS is required
to be operative, if a
Doppler Radar is
substituted for the other
INS.
A dual VORTAC/ILS
system may be substituted
for an inoperative INS. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.
the pilot review
appropriate weather,
aircraft flight manual
(AFM), and operation of
the particular GPS
receiver.
air carrier and commercial
operators must meet the
appropriate provisions of
their approved operations
specifications. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that the pilot review
appropriate weather,
aircraft flight manual
(AFM), and operation of
the particular GPS
receiver. air carrier and commercial
operators must meet the
appropriate provisions of
their approved operations
specifications. the equipment be
approved in accordance
with TSO C-115a. Automated flight decks or cockpits enhance basic pilot flight skills decrease the workload in terminal areas. often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpit. Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on 122.1 MHz.
122.0 MHz.
123.6 MHz.
. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the
course deviation indicator centers on 356° with
the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR
equipment may be used if 4° is entered on
a correction card and
substracted from all VOR
courses.
be used during IFR flights,
since the error is within
limits.
not be used during IFR
flights, since the
TO/FROM should read
TO. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and
fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram
air input and drain hole of the pitot system
become completely blocked by ice. What
airspeed indication can be expected? Increase in indicated airspeed. Decrease in indicated airspeed. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.
. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance
in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory
(RA) is expected to maintain the course and
altitude resulting from the
deviation, as ATC has
radar contact.
request ATC clearance forthe deviation.
notify ATC of the deviation
as soon as practicable. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC
clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is
expected to notify ATC and maintain the course and
altitude resulting from the
deviation, as ATC has
radar contact.
request a new ATC
clearance.
expeditiously return to the
ATC clearance in effect
prior to the advisory, after
the conflict is resolved.
. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly.
On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter
setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet,
and the altimeter is functioning properly, what
will it indicate upon landing? 585 feet. 1,300 feet. Sea level. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system, a minimum of 1 hour of the
oldest recorded data must
be erased to get a valid
test.
a total of 1 hour of the
oldest recorded data
accumulated at the time of
testing may be erased.
a total of no more than 1
hour of recorded data may
be erased. Hold line markings at the intersection of
taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two
solid and two dashed) that extend across the
width of the taxiway. These lines are white in color and the
dashed lines are nearest
the runway.
yellow in color and the
dashed lines are nearest
the runway.
yellow in color and the
solid lines are nearest the
runway. Holding position signs have white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. reen and white beacon light with dual flash of the white. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC? LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with
runway. LDA. 15° usable off
course indications, ILS -
35°. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC? SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°.
SDF - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with
runway.
SDF - 15° usable off
course indications, ILS -
35°.
. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight
recorder data kept, in the event of an accident
or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
60 days. 90 days. 30 días. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram
air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but
the drain hole and static port are not? Indication will drop to zero. Indication will rise to the top of the scale. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb. Identify REIL Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. Amber lights from 3,000
feet to 1,000 feet, then
alternate red and white
lights to the end.
Alternate red and white
lights from 3,000 feet to
1,000 feet, then red lights
to the end.
Alternate red and white
lights from 3,000 feet to
the end of the runway. Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. Alternate green and yellow
lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to
the centerline of the
taxiway.
Alternate green and yellow
lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to
the edge of the exit.
Alternate green and yellow
lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to
a point on the exit
. Identify the runway distance remaining markers Signs with increments of
1,000 feet distance
remaining.
Red markers laterally
placed across the runway
at 3,000 feet from the end.
.Yellow marker laterally
placed across the runway
with signs on the side
denoting distance to end. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) Two rows of transverse
light bars disposed
symmetrically about the
runway centerline.
Flush centerline lights
spaced at 50-foot intervals
extending through the
touchdown zone.
Alternate white and green
centerline lights extending
from 75 feet from the
threshold through the
touchdown zone. If a required instrument on a multiengine
airplane becomes inoperative, which documents
dictates whether the flight may continue en
route? A master Minimun
Equipment List for the
airplane.
O Certificate holder's manual
Certificate holder's manual
. If a visual descent point ( VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it will be coded in the waypoint sequence and identified using ATD. will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. must be included in the normal waypoints. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a
single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF
equipment fails, the flight must be able to proceed safely to a
suitable airport using VOR
aids and complete an
instrument approach by
use of the remaining
airplane radio system.
continue to the destination
airport by means of dead
reckoning navigation.
proceed to a suitable
airport using VOR aids,
complete an instrument
approach and land. If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is
inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast
along the proposed route of flight, an airplane
may be dispatched only when able to climb and
descend VFR and
maintain VFR/OT en
in VFR conditions. in day VFR conditions. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the
VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum
bearing error permissible is plus or minus 6°. plus 6° or minus 4°. plus or minus 4°.
. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the
pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed
indication can be expected? No variation of indicated
airspeed in level flight if
large power changes are
made.
Decrease of indicated
airspeed during a climb.
Constant indicated
airspeed during a descent. If installed, what aural and visual indications
should be observed over the ILS back course
marker? A series of two dot
combinations, and a white
marker beacon light.
Continuous dashes at the
rate of one per second,
and a white marker
beacon light.
A series of two dash
combinations, and a white
marker beacon light. If receiver autonomous Integrity Monitoring
(RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS
approach, the pilot should continue to the MAP and
hold until the satellites are
recaptured.
proceed as cleared to the
IAF and hold until satellite
reception is satistactory.
select another type of
approach using another
type of navigation aid. If the ambient temperature is colder than
standard at FL310, what is the relationship
between true altitude and pressure altitude? They are both the same, 31,000 feet. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. If the ambient temperature is warmer than
standard at FL350, what is the density altitude
compared to pressure altitude? Lower than pressure altitude. Higher than pressure altitude.
Impossible to determine
without information on
possible inversion layers
at lower altitudes. If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative, the RVR required to begin the approach is increased by 20 % the DA/DH is increase by 50 feet. the inoperative middle marker has not effect on straight-in minimums. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker
beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which
ground components are required to be
operative for a Category II instrument approach
to a DH below 150 feet AGL?
RCLS and REIL.
Radar and RVR. TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations
(LAHSO), the pilot should have readily
available: the published Available
Landing Distance (ALD),
landing performance of the
aircraft, and slope of all
LAHSO combinations at
the destination airport the published runway
length and slope for all
LAHSO combinations at
the airport of intended
landing. the landing performance of
the aircraft, published
Available Landing
Distance (ALD) for all
LASHO combinations at
the airport of intended
landing, plus the forecast
winds. Information obtained from flight data and
cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for
determining who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents. Information recorded during normal operations
of a cockpit voice recorder in a large
pressurized airplane with four reciprocating
engines may all be erased or
otherwise obliterated
except for the last 30
minutes. may be erased or
otherwise obliterated
except for the last 30
minutes prior to landing.
may all be erased, as the
voice recorder is not
required on an aircraft with
reciprocating engines. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of an intersecting taxiway only. of some designated point on the runway. only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. Missed approach routing in which the first
tracck is via a course rather than direct to the
next waypoint requires tha the GPS receiver be
sequenced to the missed
approach portion of the
procedure
manual intervention by the
pilot, but will not be
required , if RAIM is
aqvailable
additional action by the
operator to setthe course
. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approachwill cancel the approach mode annunciation require flying point-to-point
on the approach to comply
with the published
procedure. have not affect if the
aproach is flown manually. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the Airplane Flight Manual International Flight Information Manual. Air carrier´s Operations Specifications. International Flight Information Manual. Air carrier´s Operations Specifications. Taxi lead-off lights associated with the centerline lighting system Alternate green and yellow
lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to
the centerline of the
taxiway. Alternate green and yellow
lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to
thebeginning of the
taxiway Alternate green and yellow
lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to
a edge of the taxiway. TCAS I provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic. TCAS II provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid. The airport markings, signage and lighting
associated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO)
consists of: yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and in-pavement lights.
red and white signage, yellow hold-short
markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights.
red and black signage, inpavement
lights, and yellow hold-short markings. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by high performance aircraft. helicopters. high cockpit aircraft. The moving map below reflects a loss of position information. the AHRS. the ADC. The sign shown is an example of a mandatory instruction sign runway headingnotification signage an airport directional sign. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in
controlled airspace under IFR? Continue as cleared and file a written report to the
DGTA if requested.
If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable
for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary.
Report the malfunction
immediately to ATC. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the
airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports
indicate possible thunderstorms? Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land.
Proceed in accordance with the approved
instructions and procedures specified in
the operations manual for such an event.
Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not
been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? Notify ATC immediately. Squawk 7600. Monitor the VOR receiver.
. What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? High - white, on glide path - red and white; low - red. High - white, on glide path - green; low - red. High - white and green, on glide path - green; low - red. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? High - pulsing white, on glide path - green, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on glide path - steady white,
slightly below glide slope steady red, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on course and on glide path -
steady white, off course but on glide path - pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker? Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000
feet? 0 DME miles 2 DME miles. 2.3 DME miles. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white. What does the pulsating VASI consist of? Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady.
One-light projector, pulsing white when above
glide slope or red when more than slightly below
glide slope, steady white when on glide slope,
steady red for slightly below glide path. What does the tri-color VASI consist of? Three light bars; red, green, and amber. One light projector with three colors; red, green, and amber. Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. What facilities may be substituted for an
inoperative middle marker during a Category I
ILS approach? ASR and PAR.
The middle marker has no
effect on straight-in
minimums. Compass locator, PAR,
and ASR. What functions are provided by ILS? Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? Pilots have a choice of glide angles. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? Lights are closer together and easily distniguished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum? DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. RVR 1,000 feet. RVR 700 feet. What would be the identification when a
VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance
and is considered unreliable? A test signal, "TESTING", is sent every 30 seconds Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag would appear. The identifier would be removed. What is the maximum permissible variation
between the two bearing indicators on a dual
VOR system when checking one VOR against
the other? 4° on the ground and in flight. 6° on the ground and in flight. 6° and in flight and 4° on the ground. What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night? 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles. What is the purpose of REIL? Identification of a runway surrounded by a
preponderance of other lighting. Identification of the
touchdown zone to
prevent landing short. Establish visual descent
guidance information
during an approach. What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check? The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of
hours flown since last check, and signature in
the aircraft log. The date, place, bearing error,
and signature in the aircraft log or other record. The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading,
and signature in the aircraft log or other
permanent record. What type navigation system is Inertial
Navigation System (INS) ? A navigation
computer which provides position from information by
compass, airspeed,and an
input of wind and variation
data. from radar-type sensors
that measure ground
speed and drift angles. by signals from selfcontained
gyros and
accelerometers. What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? Weather advisories pertinent to the type of
flight, intended route of flight, and altitude. Severe weather information, changes in
flight plans, and receipt of position reports. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather
advisories, and altimeter settings. What would be the identification when a
VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance
and is considered unreliable? A test signal, "TESTING", is sent every 30 seconds. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag would appear The identifier would be removed. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR
or over-the-top which navigation equipment is
required to be installed in duplicate? VOR. ADF VOR and DME. When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued? Every 12 hours as required Every 24 hours as required. Unscheduled and issued as required. When instructed by ATC to "Hold short of a
runway (ILS critical area, etc.)," the pilot should
stop with the nose gear on the hold line. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight? At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. above 12,500 feet MSL in terminal radar service areas. When is DME required for an instrument flight? At or above 24,000 feet
MSL if VOR navigational
equipment is required. In terminal radar service
areas. Above 12,500 feet MSL. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full- scale right, or vice versa. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half- scale right, or vice versa. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet
above the touchdown zone elevation during a
Category II ILS instrument approach when only
the approach lights are visible? After passing the visual descent point (VDP). When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required. For flights at or above FL 180. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. corrections for static pressure systems. corrections for instrument error. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X (airport surface detection equipment -X), you should operate the transponder only when the airport is
under IFR or at night during your taxi. operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of
the time during taxing. be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing. When using GPS for navigation and instrument
approaches, a required alternate airport must
have an approach instrument approach procedure,
besides GPS, that is expected to be operational
and available at the ETA. a GPS approach that is
expected to be operational
and available at the ETA.
authorization to fly
approaches under IFR
using GPS avionics. When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you can taxi past this pointat yourown risk. must hold short until " cleared " to taxi on to or past the runway. may not cross the line until ATC allows you to " enter " or " cross " by instruction. Where does the DME indicator have the
greatest error between the ground distance and
displayed distance to the VORTAC? High altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC. Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. International Flight Information Manual. Airplane Flight Manual. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? All recorded information
may be erased, except for
the last 30 minutes prior to
landing. Any information more than
30 minutes old may be
erased. All recorded information
may be erased, unless the
DGAC needs to be notified
of an occurrence. Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to
approximate the rate of descent required for a
3° glide path? 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots. Which airplanes are required to be equipped
with a ground proximity warning glide slope
deviation alerting system? All turbine powered airplanes. Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. Large turbine-powered airplanes only. Which checks and inspections of flight
instruments or instrument systems must be
accomplished before an aircraft can be flown
under IFR? VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and
transponder within 24 calendar months. ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within
12 calendar months, and transponder within 24
calendar months.
Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months,
altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and
transponder within 12 calendar months. Which class of NOTAM gives the latest
information on LORAN-C chain or station
outages? NOTAM (L)'s under the identifier "LORAN-C." NOTAM (D)'s under the identifier "LRN." Class II NOTAM's published every 14 days. Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? Red. Amber Green. Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "low" indication? Red. Amber Green. Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? Red. Amber. Green. Which component associated with the ILS is
identified by the first two letters of the localizer
identification group? Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator. Which component associated with the ILS is
identified by the last two letters of the localizer
group? Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator. Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check? Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. Date, place, bearing error, and signature. Which equipment requirement must be met by
an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial
Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? The dual system must
consist of two operative
INS units. A dual VORTAC/ILS
system may be substituted
for an inoperative INS.
Only one INS is required
to be operative, if a
Doppler Radar is
substituted for the other
INS. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? VOR/DME FIX. Surveillance radar Compass locator. Which ground components are required to be
operative for a Category II approach in addition
to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and
approach lights? Radar and RVR. RCLS and REIL. HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. Which indication may be received when a VOR
is undergoing maintenance and is considered
unreliable?
Coded identification T-E-S- T. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag might appear. An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance. Which pressure is defined as station pressure? Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. Which equipment requirement must be met by
an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial
Navigation System C The dual system must
consist of two operative
INS units. A dual VORTAC/ILS
system may be substituted
for an inoperative INS. A dual VORTAC/ILS
system may be substituted
for an inoperative INS. Which " rule-of-thumb" may be used to
approximate the rate of descent required for a
3° glidepath? 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots. (INS) on a proposed flight? All recorded information
may be erased, except for
the last 30 minutes prior to
landing. Any information more than
30 minutes old may be
erased. All recorded information
may be erased, unless the
DGAC needs to be notified
of an occurrence. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of
the two VOR receivers fails, which course of
action should the pilot-in-command follow? No call is required if one of
the two VOR receivers is
operating properly. Advise ATC immediately. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required? Descend below Class A airspace. Advise dispatch via company frequency. Notify ATC immediately. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the
failure of which unit will precipitate an
immediate report to ATC? One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. Airborne radar. DME. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air
carrier airplane be able to communicate with,
under normal conditions, along the entire route
(in either direction) of flight? ARINC. Any FSS. Appropriate dispatch office. With no traffic identified by TCAS, you can rest assured that no
other aircraft are in the
area. must continually scan for
other traffic in visual
conditions must scan only for hot air
balloons. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? 108.10 to 118.10 MHz 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz. You arrived at the initial fix for the LPV
approach into XYZ. The preflight briefer issued
you an unrealiable advisory on the approach
before you took off. Your avionics indicates
good signals and full GPS service is available. know you can fly the
approach down to
LPVminimums. cannot use that approach
because of the advisory
from FSS. must revert to another
approach system such as
VOR. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells
you to call ground control when clear of the
runway. You are considered clear of the runway
when the aft end of the aircraft is
even with the taxiway
location sign. the flight deck area of the
aircraft is even with the
hold line. all parts of the aircraft
have crossed the hold line. NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the band the receiver determines position by: UHF, range position lines UHF, secondary radar principles SHF, secondary radar principles. The minimun number of satellites required for a 3D fix is: 3 4 5. The most significant error of GNSS is: GDOP Receiver clock Ionospheric propagation. When using GNSS to carry out a non-precision approach the MDA will be determined using: barometric altitude GPS altitude Radio altimeter height. Which of the following statements concerning NAVSTAR/GPS time is correct? satellite time is the same as UTC the satellite runs its own
time based on seconds
and weeks which is
independent of UTC
the satellite runs its own
time based on seconds
and weeks which is
correlated with UTC. Find the heading of the various legs of the traffic patterns for runway 31 Left entry: 020°- Left base
040°- Downwind 020°-
Right entry 040°- Right
Base 030°
Left entry: 085°- Left base
040°- Downwind 130°-
Right entry 175°- Right
Base 220° 040°- Downwind 130°-
Right entry 175°- Right
Base 220°
Left entry: 040°- Left base
210°- Downwind 130°-
Right entry 175°- Right
Base 220°. Find the time: Groud speed 145- Distance 128NM 53 min. 59 min. 40 min. Whit this data find the wind direction and
speed: Track 169°-Ground Speed 132 knotsTrue
heading 173°- True airspeed 160 knots. WCA 12L- Wind Direction
110°- Wind Speed 39
knots WCA 12L- Wind Direction
220°- Wind Speed 28
knots
WCA 4° R- Wind Direction
191°-Wind Speed 30
knots. find ground speed and true course (track): Wind
direction 185°-Wind speed 40 knots- True
heeading 115°-True airspeed 170 knots.
Ground speed 161 knotsWCA
13R-True course
102° Ground speed 173 knotsWCA
8L-True course 248° Ground speed 116 knots- WCA 8R-True course 344°. Given: Fuel gallons: 20. Find: pounds 120 Pounds 130 Pounds 150 Pounds. Given: 288 Status Miles. Find: Nautical Miles 160 NM 250 NM 150 NM. Given Oil, Gallons: 4. Find: Pounds 20 Pounds 60 Pounds 30 Pounds. Pressure Altitude: 0 ft- Ture Air Temperature: 40°C. Find density altitude 4.000 ft 2.000 ft 3.000 ft. Pressure altitude: 12,000- OAT -10°C- CAS 190 MPH. Find True Airspeed 228 knots 170 knots 235 MPH. A radio wave is: An energy wave
comprising an electrical
field in the same plane as
magnetic field. An electrical field
alternating with a magnetic
field An energy wave where
there is an electrical field
perpendicular to magnetic
field. The frequency band containing the frequency corresponding to 29.1 cm is: UHF VHF SHF. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR along
the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W what should
be set on the OBS? 274° 264° 094°. The VOR indication on a RMI whose deviation is not zero: Are magnetic. Are compass. Are relative. The coverage of an ILS localiser extends
to____either side of the on course line out to a
range of___ nm 10°, 35nm 35°, 10nm 35°, 17nm. alternating dots and dashes on a blue light. red yellow green yellow green red green yellow red. The antenna of an airborne weather radar is stabilised: in pitch, roll, and yaw in pitch and roll In pitch and roll whether the stabilisation is on or off. The special SSR codes are as follows:
Emergency______, radio failure______,
entering an airspace______,unlawful
interference with the conduct of the
flight______. 7700; 7600; 2000; 7500. 7700; 7600; 7500; 2000. 7600; 7500; 2000; 77000. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed an identification pulse is automatically and
continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35 µ sec
after the last framing pulse. an identification pulse is automatically and
continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35 µ sec
before the last framing pulse. an identification pulse is automatically and
continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35 µ sec
after the last framing pulse. . The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of: alternating dots and dashes on a blue light. continuous dots at a rate of 2 per second, blue light continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because: each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate. MDME transmits and receives on different frequencies. it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses. The accuracy associated with DME is: + or - 3% of range, or
0.5nm, whichever is
greater. + or -1.25% of range +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range. For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be
associated the aerial separation must not
exceed_____ in a terminal area and _____
outside a terminal area. 100m 2000m 50feet 200feet 30m 600m. DME and VOR are "frequency paired" because: the same receiver can be used for both aids. the VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency. cockpit workload is reduced. Which provisions on a VFR flight in Class E airspace are correct? Service provided: Air
Traffic Control Service;
ATC Clearance: non
required. Service provided: Traffic
Information as far as
practical; ATC Clearance:
not required. Service provided: Air
Ttraffic control Service;
ATC Clearance: required.
. The vertical IFR separation minimum being
applied by ATC within a controlled airspace
above FL290 is: 1.000 feet (300 m) 2.000 feet (600 m) 500 feet (150 m). A minimum vertical separation shall be provided
until aircraft are stablished inbound on the ILS
localizer course and/or MLS final approach
track. This minimum is, when independent
parallel approaches are being conducted:
150 m (500 ft) 200 m (660 ft) 300 m (1.000 ft). The wake turbulence category "heavy" is applied to aircraft of (MTOM): 126.000 lbs or more 136.000 fg or more more than 136.000 lbs. When, in air space where VFR are permitted,
the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to
continue his flight in accordance with visual
flight rules, until the destination is reached: 1.
He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR").
2. He must request and obtain clearance. 3. He
may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to
a VFR flight plan. 4. The flight plan
automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The
correct combination of statements is: 1, 4 1, 3 2, 4. A MEDIUM (wake turbulence category) aircraft
is following a HEAVY category aircraft during a
radar approach. What is the minimum wake
turbulence radar separation to be applied?
5 NM.
a NM providing 1.000 ft
vertical separation also
maintained. 6 NM.
. At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region? Flight information service and alerting service. Flight information service. Flight information service and air traffic advisory service. Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final
approach may be requested to make minor
speed adjustements by ATC. The adjustements
shall never be more than: 25 knots at any stage. 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold. 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold. One of the functions ensured by a radar control
unit for the provision of approach control
service is: to conduct surveillance radar approaches. to apply a reduced vertical
separation of 500 feet
between IFR flights and
VFR flights. to apply a horizontal
separation less than 5 NM. As called VISUAL APPROACH can be performed: when an instrument
approach is not completed
and visual reference to
terrain is subsequently
maintained. an approach made under
VFR using instrument
height and track guidance. during IFR and VFR
approaches in VMC. A TMA is: an area in which
submission of a flight pan
is not required. a CTA established to
cover several major air
traffic routes around one
or more major
aerodromes. a CTR. At the commencement of final approach, if the
controller possesses wind information in the
form of components, significant changes in the
mean surface wind direction and speed shall be
transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind
component significant change is: 8 kts 5 kts 10 kts. An aircraft making a radar approach should be
directed to consider executing a missed
approach if the aircraft is not visible on the
radar display for any significant interval during
the: last 2 NM of the approach. last 4 NM of the approach. last 3 NM of the approach.
. What is the definition of "aerodrome traffic"? Traffic on the
manoeuvring area and in
the circuit. Traffic on the
manoeuvring area and in
the local vicinity of the
aerodrome. Traffic on the movement
area and in the local
vicinity of the aerodrome. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate
that the flight commences in accordance with
VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? I Z V. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: prescribed by the aircraft operations. deciden on pilot's discretion. standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are
permited, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and are separated from each
other are classified as: class E class A class B. The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is: that part of an aerodrome
to be used for takeoff,
landing and taxiing of
aircraft, including apron(s). that part of an aerodrome
to be used for takeoff,
landing and taxiing of
aircraft, excluding
apron(s). that part of an aerodrome
to be used for takeoff,
landing and taxiing of
aircraft, including
movement area and
apron(s). The Air Traffic control Services do not prevent collisions with terrarin. Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar. Prevent collisions with terrain. Do not prevent collisions with terrain. For visual approaches, the following shall apply:
A) A visual approach may only be requested
when the reported ceiling is at or above the
initial approach altitude/level. B) When so
requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the
aircraft for a visual approach. C) When cleared
for a visual approach, the pilot has to maintain
own separation to other aerodrome traffic. D)
Separation has to be provided by ATC between
an aircraft for a visual approach and other
arriving and departing aircraft. B and C B only A and D. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or G airspace below FL100 is: 250 kts IAS 250 kts TAS 280 kts IAS. If you are flying a surveillance radar approach
(SRA). What information is reported by radar
controller? Distance from touchdown
and observed deviation
from the glide path. Distance from touchdown
and pre-computed levels
through which the aircraft
should be passing to
maintain the glide path. Range and bearing from
touchdown. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a
controlled aerodrome will report "field in sight",
a clearance for "visual approach" may be given
under certain conditions The approach must be passing the FAF. Continued approach will be according to VFR. The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic. Minimum radar vectoring altitudes should be sufficiently high to minimise: exposure to noise on the ground radar slant range error. activation of ground proximity warnings.
. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago
convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services
(ATS)? Annex 6 Annex 14 Annex 11
. Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall be used for
flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
consecutive weeks and: on at least 20 days consecutively on at least ten occasions
or every day over a period
of at least 20 consecutive
days. on at least ten occasions
or every day over a period
of at least ten consecutive
days. What are the three Air Traffic Services? Area Control, Tower Control, Approach Control Flight Information Service, Area Control, Approach Control. Air Traffic Control Services, Flight Information Services, Alerting Services. Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes? The pilot. The publishers of aeronautical handbooks. Each State for ATS routes over their territory. The abreviation RNP means: required navigation precision requested navigation position required navigation performance. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed by regional air navigation agreements. by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements. by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements. The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is: 0.25 nm 2 nm 1 nm. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: twin DME VOR/DME Twin VOR. The IRS position can be updated: on the ground only at designated positions en- route and on the ground on the ground and overhead VOR/DME. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate: on take-off at TOC at TOD. Which positions can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alpha-numerics? SIDS & STARS, reporting points and airways designators Navigation facilities, reporting points and airways designators SIDS & STARS and latitude and longitude. The FMC navigational database can be acceses by the pilots: to update the database to read information only to change information between the 28 day updates. Above latiyudes of 84° a twin FMS/triple IRS
system will go to de-coupled operations. The
reason for this is: to prevent error messages
as the IRS longitudes
show large differences to ease the pilot's
workload to improve the system
accuracy. The period of validity of the navigational database is: 28 days 1 month determined by the national authority and may be from 28 days to 91 days. A runwaymay be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC? Clear ice, rime ice and snow. Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard. Snow, ice and slush. Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? Code letter "D". Code letter "B"
Code letter "C".
. The part of an aerodrome used for embarking
and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo
and mail as well as the servicing of aircraft is
called? Apron
Ramp
Stand
. Category II operation is: a runway intended for the operation of class II type aircraft.
a precision instrument
approach and landing,
with either a DH lower
than 100 ft, or with no DH
and a RVR not less than
200 m.
a precision instrument
approach and landing,
with a DH lower than 200
ft but no lower than 100 ft,
and a RVR not less than
350 m. The aerodrome elevation is the height of: the airfield reference datum. the threshold of the main precision runway. the highest point in the landing area. According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4 " shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: 1.800 m and over. 1.600 m 1.500 m
. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is
categorised by aerodrome reference code. This
code is composed of two elements: a number
and a letter. What does the number relate to: Load classification number Single wheel loading classification. Aerodrome reference field length. An aerodrome reference point is defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area. the designated geographical location of the aerodrome. pre-fñight altimeter check location. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? Annex 11 Annex 6 Annex 14. "An area symmetrical obout the extended
runway center line and adjacent to the end of
the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of
damage to an aeroplane undershooting or
overruning the runway" is the definition for: Clearway. runway end safety area. stopway. A volume of airspace extending upwards and
outwards fron an inner portion of the strip to
specified upper limits which is kept clear of all
obstructions is called: obstacle free zone critical area non transgression zone. Which of the following group shows the correct designators for three parallel runways seen from the direction ot the approach? 29, 29C, 29. 29L, 29C, 29R. 29L, 29, 29R. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. Precision approach runways category I, II and III. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: by a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways. by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "l" and "r" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R". by a letter for 2 parallel runways. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: information signs; yellow
or black background with
black or yellow
inscriptions.
mandatory instruction
signs; lack background
with red inscriptions.
information signs; orange
background with black
inscriptions.
. The ICAO bird strike information system is also known as: IBSI
IBIS
IRIS
. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that
specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes
for different runways. Which is the minimum
width of a runway with runway code 4? 35 metres 45 metres 40 metres. The length of a clearway should not exceed: 1/2 TORA 1/2 TODA 1/2 LDA. An OCA is referenced to: the Aerodrome Reference Point. Mean Sea Level. the relevant Runway Threshold. A minimum instrument altitude for enroute
operations off of published airways which
provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in
non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet
in designated mountainous areas Minimum Obstruction
Clearance Altitude
(MOCA)
Off-Route Obstruction
Clearance Altitude
(OROCA)
Minimum Safe/Sector
Altitude (MSA). A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If
existing weather conditions are below those for
VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and
an ATC clearance received prior to takeoff if weather
conditions are below IFR
minimums.
entering controlled
airspace.
entering IFR weather
conditions. An alternate airport for departure is required if weather conditions are
below authorized landing
minimums at the departure
airport.
when the weather forecast
at the ETD is for landing
minimums only at the
departure airport.
when destination weather
is marginal VFR (ceiling
less than 3,000 feet and
visibility less than 5 SM).
. An ATC "instruction" is the same as an ATC "clearance."
is a directive issued by
ATC for the purpose of
requiring a pilot to take a
specific action providing
the safety of the aircraft is
not jeopardized.
must be "read back" in full
to the controller and
confirmed before
becoming effective.
. Assuming that all ILS components are operating
and the required visual references are not
acquired, the missed approach should be
inititiated upon arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach. Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the aircraft dispatcher.
flight navigator.
pilot in command.
. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B- 727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization? 230 knots. 250 knots 275 knots. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots. At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace? 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots. At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine- powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace? 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180. Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet
at a military or joint civil/military use airports
should expect to operate at which holding
pattern airspeed? 250 knots 260 knots 230 knots. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing prority? When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis. How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis? 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour.
hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.
. How should a pilot describe braking action? 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal. Nil, poor, fair, or good.
. How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. ll radio fixes over which the flight will pass.
The initial fix, all radio
fixes which the pilot
wishes to be compulsory
reporting points, and the
final fix. If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched
from an airport that is below landing minimums,
what is the maximum distance that a departure
alternate airport may be located from the
departure airport? Not more than 2 hours at
cruise speed with one
engine inoperative.
Not more than 2 hours at
normal cruise speed in still
air with one engine
inoperative Not more than 1 hour at
normal cruise speed in still
air with one engine
inoperative. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take? Maintain an airspeed
within the operating
limitations as close to the
requested speed as
possible.
Attempt to use the
requested speed as long
as possible, then request
a reasonable airspeed
from ATC.
Advise ATC of the
airspeed that will be used.
. If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT", the pilot should advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take? Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions. In what airspace will ATC not authorize "VFR on Top"? Class C airspace Class B airspace Class A airspace. Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is 265 knots.
230 knots.
200 knots.
. Maximum holding speed for a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is: 265 knots 230 knots. 156 knots. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is 210 knots.
230 knots. 265 knots.
. NOTAM (L)s are used to disseminate what type of information? Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays.
Taxi closures, personnel
and equipment near or
crossing runways, airport
lighting aids that do not
affect instrument
approaches criteria, and
airport rotating beacon
outages.
Time critical information of
a permanent nature that is
not yet available in
normally published charts.
. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by stating "Have numbers" stating "Have Weather" repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast. Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport
in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports
and forecasts must indicate that weather
conditions will be at or above authorized
minimums at that airport for a period 1 hours before or after the ETA. during the entire flight.
when the flight arrives.
. The minimum weather conditions that must
exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in
the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier
flight are those listed in the NOAA
IAP charts for the
alternate airport, at the
time the flight is expected
to arrive.
those specified in the
certificate holder's
Operations Specifications
for that airport, when the
flight arrives.
those listed in the NOAA
IAP charts for the
alternate airport, from 1
hour before or after the
ETA for that flight. The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for
the runway of intended operation is not
reported. What minimum ground visibility may
be used instead of the RVR value? 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/8 SM. . The visibility criteria for a particular instrument
approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum
ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR
value? 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM. Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain "VFR on Top"? Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.
. Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot
continue an instrument approach to the DH,
after receiving a weather report indicating that
less than minimum published landing conditions
exist at the airport? If the instrument approach
is conducted in a radar
environment.
When the weather report
is received as the pilot
passes the FAF.
When the weather report
is received after the pilot
has begun the final
approach segment of the
instrument approach. Under which condition, if any, may a pilot
descend below DH or MDA when using the
ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary
visual reference for the intended runway? Under no condition can
the approach light system
serve as a necessary
visual reference for
descent below DH or
MDA.
Descent to the intended
runway is authorized as
long as any portion of the
approach light system can
be seen.
The approach light system
can be used as a visual
reference, except that
descent below 100 feet
above TDZE requires that
the red light bars be visible
and identifiable.
. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? Continue taxiing in the
landing direction until
advised by the tower to
switch to ground control
frequency.
Exit the runway at the
nearest suitable taxiway
and remain on tower
frequency until instructed
otherwise.
Exit the runway at the
nearest suitable taxiway
and switch to ground
control upon crossing the
taxiway holding lines. What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000? Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000. What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received? Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Assume lost communications and continue as planned.
Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.
. What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation? Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance. What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route? Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude. What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect? Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance Start engines, perform pre- take-off check, and reques. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude.
must maintain the last
assigned altitude until
established on a published
route or segment of the
approach with published
altitudes.
may descend from the
assigned altitude only
when established on the
final approach course.
. What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain "VFR on Top"? May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below may maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers. What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach? A visual approach is an
IFR authorization while a
contact approach is a VFR
authorization.
A visual approach is
initiated by ATC while a
contact approach is
initiated by the pilot.
Both are the same but
classified according to the
party initiating the
approach. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes? 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. What is the maximum holding speed for a civil
turbojet holding at a civil at 15,000 feet MSL,
unless a higher speed is required due to
turbulence or icing and ATC is notified? 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplan 230 knots.
180 knots. 250 knots.
. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL? 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots. What is the minimum flight visibility and
distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in
Class E airspace, with a VFR -on Top
clearance during daylight hours? 3 statute miles, 1000 feet
above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal
5 statute miles, 1000 feet
above, 1,000 feet below,
and 1 mile horizontal.
5 statute miles, 1000 feet
above, 500 feet below,
and 1 mile horizontal. What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pre-taxi clearance programs? Pilots request IFR
clearance when ready to
taxi. The pilot will receive
taxi instruction with
clearance. Pilots request IFR
clearance when ready to
taxi. Pilots will receive taxi
clearance, then receive
IFR clearance while
taxiing or on run-up. Pilots request IFR
clearance 10 minutes or
less prior to taxi, then
request taxi clearance
from ground control. What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback? Except for SID's, read
back altitude assignments,
altitude restrictions, and
vectors.
If the clearance or
instruction is understood,
an acknowledgment is
sufficient.
Read back the entire
clearance or instruction to
confirm the message is
understood. What is the primary purpose of a STAR? Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports. What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance? A procedure for delaying
departure for traffic
volume, weather, or need
to issue further
instructions.
When an IFR clearance is
received by telephone, the
pilot will have time to
prepare for takeoff prior to
being released.
Gate hold procedures are
in effect and the pilot
receives an estimate of
the time the flight will be
released. What is the required flight visibility and distance
from clouds if you are operating in Class E
airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR clearance
during daylight hours? 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet
above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5 statute miles, 500 feet
above, 1,000 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
3 statute miles, 500 feet
above, 1,000 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal. What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan? File at least 30 minutes
prior to departure and
request the clearance not
more than 10 minutes
prior to taxi.
File at least 30 minutes
prior to departure and
request the clearance at
least 10 minutes prior to
taxi.
File at least 1 hour prior to
departure and request the
clearance at least 10
minutes prior to taxi. What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? Transponder and DME. Two-way communications. Two-way communications and transponder. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported? 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM 3/8 SM. What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include? Clearance limit and en route altitude Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace? 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL? 288 knots.
250 knots.
230 knots.
. What is the minimum flight visibility and
distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in
Class E airspace, with a VFR -on Top
clearance during daylight hours? 3 statute miles, 1000 feet
above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal
5 statute miles, 1000 feet
above, 1,000 feet below,
and 1 mile horizontal.
.
5 statute miles, 1000 feet
above, 500 feet below,
and 1 mile horizonta. What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pre-taxi clearance programs Pilots request IFR
clearance when ready to
taxi. The pilot will receive
taxi instruction with
clearance.
Pilots request IFR
clearance when ready to
taxi. Pilots will receive taxi
clearance, then receive
IFR clearance while
taxiing or on run-up.
Pilots request IFR
clearance 10 minutes or
less prior to taxi, then
request taxi clearance
from ground control.
. What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback? Except for SID's, read
back altitude assignments,
altitude restrictions, and
vectors.
If the clearance or
instruction is understood,
an acknowledgment is
sufficient.
Read back the entire
clearance or instruction to
confirm the message is
understood. What is the primary purpose of a STAR? Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports. What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance? A procedure for delaying
departure for traffic
volume, weather, or need
to issue further
instructions.
When an IFR clearance is
received by telephone, the
pilot will have time to
prepare for takeoff prior to
being released.
Gate hold procedures are
in effect and the pilot
receives an estimate of
the time the flight will be
released.
. What is the required flight visibility and distance
from clouds if you are operating in Class E
airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR clearance
during daylight hours? 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet
above, 500 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5 statute miles, 500 feet
above, 1,000 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
3 statute miles, 500 feet
above, 1,000 feet below,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
. What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan? File at least 30 minutes
prior to departure and
request the clearance not
more than 10 minutes
prior to taxi.
File at least 30 minutes
prior to departure and
request the clearance at
least 10 minutes prior to
taxi.
File at least 1 hour prior to
departure and request the
clearance at least 10
minutes prior to taxi.
. What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? Two-way communications. Two-way communications and transponder. Transponder and DME. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported? 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM 3/8 SM. What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include? Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
. What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace? No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and TSO-C74b transponder. What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. What restriction applies to a large, turbine- powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace? Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.
. What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized "VFR on Top? The same afforded all IFR flights. 3 miles horizontally instead of 5. Traffic advisories only. What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace? The same as within Class
C airspace when
communications and radar
contact is established.
Radar vectors to and from
secondary airports within
the outer area.
Basic radar service only
when communications and
radar contact is
established. What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace? Sequencing of arriving
aircraft, separation of
aircraft (except between
VFR aircraft), and traffic
advisories.
Sequencing of arriving
aircraft (except VFR
aircraft), separation
between all aircraft, and
traffic advisories.
Sequencing of all arriving
aircraft, separation
between all aircraft, and
traffic advisories. What special consideration is given for turbine- powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect? They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm-up block. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi. What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s? Status of navigation aids,
ILSs, radar service
available, and other
information essential to
planning.
Airport or primary runway
closings, runway and
taxiway conditions, and
airport lighting aids
outages.
Temporary flight
restrictions, changes in
status in navigational aids,
and updates on equipment
such as VASI. When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition? The IFR portion is
automatically canceled
and the VFR portion is
automatically activated
when the pilot reports VFR
conditions.
The pilot should advise
ATC to cancel the IFR
portion and contact the
nearest FSS to activate
the VFR portion.
The pilot should advise
ATC to cancel the IFR
portion and activate the
VFR portion. When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air. When a speed adjustment is necessary to
maintain separation, what minimum speed may
ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft
departing an airport? 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots. When a speed adjustment is necessary to
maintain separation, what minimum speed may
ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft
operating below 10,000 feet? 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots. When does ATC issue a STAR? Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot. When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes 1-1/2 minutes 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less. When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound? Abeam the holding fix or
when the wings are level
after completing the turn to
the outbound heading,
whichever occurs first.
At the end of a 1-minute
standard rate turn after
station passage.
When abeam the holding
fix. When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach? At the DH when the
runway is not clearly
visible.
When the time has
expired after reaching the
DH and the runway
environment is not clearly
visible.
At the DH, if the visual
references for the
intended runway are not
distinctly visible or anytime
thereafter that visual
reference is lost. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? The IFR alternate
minimums section in front
of the NOAA IAP book.
2000-3 for at least 1 hour
before until 1 hour after
the ETA.
The actual minimums
shown on the chart for the
airport. When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised immediately? Any inoperative or
malfunctioning aircraft
receivers.
If a simultaneous ILS
approach is desired.
If radar monitoring is
desired to confirm lateral
separation. When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane? 1 SM.
1/2 SM. 300 feet and 1/2 SM.
. When the forecast weather conditions for a
destination and alternate airport are considered
marginal for operations, what specific action
should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?
List an airport where the
forecast weather is not
marginal as the alternate.
Add 1 additional hour of
fuel based on cruise
power settings for the
airplane in use.
List at least one additional
alternate airport. When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern? 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes? Over all designated
compulsory reporting
points.
Only where specifically
requested by CORPAC
Flight Planning.
When requested to
change altitude or advise
of weather conditions. Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan? All compulsory reporting points en route. The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight. the fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated. Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?
Leaving FAF inbound or
outer marker inbounds
and missed approach.
Leaving FAF inbound,
leaving outer marker
inbound or outbound, and
missed approach.
Leaving FAF inbound,
leaving outer marker
inbound or outbound,
procedure turn outbound
and inbound, and visual
contact with the runway. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? Position reports, vacating
an altitude, unable to climb
500 ft/min, and time and
altitude reaching a holding
fix or point to which
cleared.
Position reports, vacating
an altitude, unable to climb
500 ft/min, time and
altitude reaching a holding
fix or point to which
cleared, and a change in
average true airspeed
exceeding 5 percent or 10
knots.
Vacating an altitude,
unable to climb 500 ft/min,
time and altitude reaching
a holding fix or point to
which cleared, a change in
average true airspeed
exceeding 5 percent or 10
knots, and leaving any
assigned holding fix or
point. While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?
Anytime the flight is on a
published leg of an
approach chart.
When the flight is within
the 10-mile ring of a
published approach.
Only when approach
control clears the flight for
the approach. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight"? Taxi, takeoff, landing, and
all other operations
conducted below 10,000
feet MSL, including cruise
flight.
Descent, approach,
landing, and taxi
operations, irrespective of
altitudes MSL.
Taxi, takeoff, landing, and
all other operations
conducted below 10,000
feet, excluding cruise
flight.
. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is: CO2 Dry powder
Freon
. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end? At the point where the climb is established. Where the turn towards the IAF is made. Where 50 m obstacle clearance is obtaine. The initial missed approach segment: begins at the MAPt and ends where the climb is established. begins at the threshold and end s at the point where the climb is established. begins where the pilot looses the guidance criteria and ends . Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? A departure where the
initial departure track
differs more than 20° from
the runway alignment.
A departure where the
initial departure track
differs more than 15° from
the runway alignment.
A departure where the
initial departure track
differs more than 10° from
the runway alignment. Which of the following frequences are used for emergency operations? 243 MHz and 2.182 kHz. 2.182 kHz. 121,5 MHz, 243 MHz and 2.182 kHz. What is the meaning of V seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site? Assistance required. Supplies and fuel required. Medical assistance required. Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? Code 7000 Code 7700
code 7500
. Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they: operate within controlled airspace. are requested by ATC operate outside controlled airspace. If a transponder failure is detected before departure from an aerodrome the aircraft: cannot fly
can fly for up to 24 hours
by which time the
transponder must be
repaired
can fly to an aerodrome
where the transponder can
be repaired.
. Which of the statements below describes the Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)?
The length of the runway
declared available and
suitable for the ground run
of an aeroplane taking off.
The length of the runway
plus the length of the
clearway.
The length of the runway
plus the length of the
stopway. What is the only object permitted to protrude
through the plane of a precision approach CAT
II and CAT III lighting system within 60 m of the
center line of the approach lights? An ILS or MLS azimuth
(centerline guidance)
antenna.
. Any fixed object no more
than 45 ft high.
The ILS glidepath
antenna. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators directing high pressure air
over the top of the wing or
flap through slots and
making the wing surface
smooth.
directing a suction over
the top of the wing or flap
through slots and making
the wing surface smooth.
making the wing surface
rough and/or directing high
pressure air over the top
of the wing or flap through
slots. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? Low speed. High speed. Any speed. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's lift, gross weight, and drag. lift, airspeed, and drag. lift and airspeed, but not drag. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. Motion about the longitudinal axis. Motion about the lateral axis. Motion about the vertical axis. For a given angle of bank, the load factor
imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a
coordinated constant-altitude turn is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. varies with the rate of turn. is constant. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? Reduce the wings' lift upon landing Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? The same angle of attack. A lower angle of attack. A higher angle of attack.
. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude
remains in the new position after the controls
have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude
tends to move farther from its original position,
after the controls have been neutralized.
Negative static stability Positive static stability Negative dynamic stability. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude
tends to return to its original position after the
controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability Neutral dynamic stability. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000
pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000
pounds in flight, the load factor would be 2 Gs. 3 Gs. 9 Gs. If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as
angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical
component of lift and sink rate affected? Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases and the sink rate increases. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine
inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the
ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected
outside the reference lines? While maneuvering at
minimum controllable
airspeed to avoid
overbanking. When operating at any
airspeed greater than
Vmc. When practicing immiment
stalls in a banked attitude.
. The reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? It permits a relatively constant angle of
incidence along its length when in cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack
along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or
root from stalling during cruising flight. The safest and most efficient takeoff and initial
climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane
is? Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. accelerate to an airspeed slightly above Vmc, then
lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb
airspeed. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher
angle of attack.
. the purpose of leading-edge slats on high- performance wings is: Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the L/Dmax. lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.
. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane? With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed. What effects indicated stall speed? Weight, load factor, and power Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? Sluggish in aileron control. Sluggish in rudder control. Unstable about the lateral axis. What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane? The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed
indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane
represent? Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. What effect does an increase in airspeed have
on a coordinated turn while maintaining a
constant angle of bank and altitude? The rate of turn will
decrease resulting in a
decreased load factor.
The rate of turn will
increase resulting in a
increased load factor. The rate of turn will
decrease resulting in no
changes in load factor. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? Decreases profile drag Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.
. What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines? None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude. What condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane? When practicing immiment stalls in a banked attitude. operating With one engine inoperative. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. What is a purpose of flight spoilers? Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. What is load factor? Lift multiplied by the total weight Lift substracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design? The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. What is the condition known as when gusts
cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one
direction while yawing in the other? Porpoise. Wingover. Dutch roll. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if
the airspeed decreases in level flight below that
speed for maximum L/D? Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow? Supersonic Mach number. Transonic Mach number. Critical Mach number.
. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic index. What is the movement of the center of pressure
when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are
shock-stalled first? Inward and aft. Inward and forward. Outward and forward. What is the primary function of the leading edge
flaps in landing configuration during the flare
before touchdown?
Prevent flow separation. Decrease rate of sink. Increase profile drag. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design? The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will increase
changes in the magnitude
of force coefficients due to
compressibility. Sweepback will accelerate
the onset of
compressibility effect.
. What is the purpose of a control tab? Move the flight controls in
the event of manual
reversion. Reduce control forces by
deflecting in the proper
direction to move a
primary flight control. Prevent a control surface
from moving to a fulldeflection
position due to
aerodynamic forces. What is the purpose of a servo tab? Move the flight controls in
the event of manual
reversion. Reduce control forces by
deflecting in the proper
direction to move a
primary flight control. Prevent a control surface
from moving to a fulldeflection
position due to
aerodynamic forces. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? Move the flight controls in
the event of manual
reversion. Reduce control forces by
deflecting in the proper
direction to move a
primary flight control. Prevent a control surface
from moving to a fulldeflection
position due to
aerodynamic forces. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. What is a purpose to used flight spoilers ? Increase the rate of
descent without increasing
aerodynamic drag. Aid in longitudinal balance
when rolling an airplane
into a turn. Reduce the wings' lift upon
landing. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? Provide horizontal balance
as airspeed is increased to
allow hands-off flight.
Adjust the speed tail load
for different airspeeds in
flight allowing neutral
control forces. Modify the downward tail
load for various airspeeds
in flight eliminating flightcontrol
pressures. What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? It permits a relatively
constant angle of attack
along its length when in
cruising flight It prevents the portion of
the blade near the hub or
root from stalling during
cruising flight.
It permits a relatively
constant angle of
incidence along its length
when in cruising flight. What is the relationship between induced and
parasite drag when the gross weight is
increased? Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with
the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank
but increasing airspeed? Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease. Rate and radius will increase. What is the result of a shock-induced
separation of airflow occurring symmetrically
near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft? A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. A severe moment or "tuck under". Severe porpoising. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff
and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine
airplane? Accelerate to best engine-out, rate-ofclimb
airspeed while on
the ground, then lift off
and climb at that speed.
Vmc, then lift off at that
speed and climb at
maximum angle-of-climb
airspeed. an airspeed slightly above
Vmc, then lift off and climb
at the best rate-of-climb
airspeed. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin- engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC? Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. What procedure is recommended for an engine- out approach and landing? The flightpath and
procedures should be
almost identical to a
normal approach and
landing. The altitude and airspeed
should be considerably
higher than normal
throughout the approach. A normal approach,
except do not extend the
landing gear or flaps until
over the runway threshold.
. What true airspeed and angle of attack should
be used to generate the same amount of lift as
altitude is increased? The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift
if the angle of attack and other factors remain
constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be the same two times greater four times greater.
. When are inboard ailerons normally used? Low-speed flight only High-speed flight only Low-speed and high- speed flight. When are outboard ailerons normally used? Low-speed flight only High-speed flight only Low-speed and high- speed flight. Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? Same direction. Opposite direction Remains fixed for all positions. Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move? Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions. Which direction from the primary control surface
does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when
the control surface is moved? Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions. Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps? Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? Increase lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? Reduce the drag caused
by supersonic flow over
portions of the wing. Increase the onset of drag
divergence and aid in
aileron effectiveness at
high speed. Break the airflow over the
wing so the stall will
progress from the root out
to the tip of the wing. Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? Tabs. Flaps. Outboard ailerons.
. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control? Slats. Elevator Dorsal fin. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? Ruddervator. Upper rudder. Leading-edge flaps.
. Why do some airplanes equipped with
inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for
slow flight only? Increased surface area
provides greater
controllability with flap
extension. Aerodynamic loads on the
outboard ailerons tend to
twist the wingtips at high
speeds. Locking out the outboard
ailerons in high-speed
flight provides variable
flight control feel. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag. Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur? .50 to .75 Mach. 75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large,
four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered
airplane from one facility to another to repair an
inoperative engine. Which is an operational
requirement for the three-engine flight? The gross weight at
takeoff may not exceed 75
percent of the maximum
certificated gross weight.
Weather conditions at the
takeoff and destination
airports must be VFR.
The computed takeoff
distance to reach V1 must
not exceed 70 percent of
the effective runway
length. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplanning"
is where the airplane rides on standing water. a film of moisture covers
the painted or rubbercoated
portion of the
runway the tires of the airplane are
actually riding on a mixture
of steam and melted
rubber. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust
output will increase due to greater
efficiency of jet aircraft in
thin air.
remain the same since
compression of inlet air
will compensate for any
decrease in air pressure decrease due to higher
density altitude. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could
dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires
having a pressure of 121 psi? 90 knots. 96 knots. 110 knots. At what minimum speed will dynamic
hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure
of 70 psi? 85 knots. 80 knots. 75 knots. At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does
maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A speed less than that for L/Dmax. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax. At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does
maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur A speed greater than that for L/Dmax A speed equal to that for L/Dmax. A speed less than that for L/Dmax. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what
speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when
landing on a smooth, wet runway? At approximately 2.0 times
the speed that dynamic
hydroplaning occurs.
At a lower speed than
dynamic hydroplaning.
At the same speed as
dynamic hydroplaning. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop
engine is a measure of turbine inlet temperature. shaft horsepower and jet thrust. propeller thrust only. For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for
a particular runway considered in computing
takeoff weight limitations? Those passenger-carrying
transport aircraft
certificated between
August 26, 1957 and
August 30, 1959.
Turbine-engine-powered
transport airplanes
certificated after
September 30, 1958.
U.S. certified air carrier
airplanes certificated after
August 29, 1959. How can turbulent air cause an increase in
stalling speed of an airfoil? An abrupt change in relative wind. A decrease in angle of attack. Sudden decrease in load factor. How should reverse thrust propellers be used
during landing for maximum effectiveness in
stopping? Gradually increase
reverse power to
maximum as rollout speed
decreases.
Use maximum reverse
power as soon as possible
after touchdown.
Select reverse-pitch after
landing and use idle power
setting of the engines. How should thrust reversers be applied to
reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft? Immediately after ground contact. Immediately prior to touchdown. ImmediAfter applying maximum wheel braking. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above
single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be
maintained? VMC. VYSE. VXSE. If severe turbulence is encountered, which
procedure is recommended? Maintain a constant altitude. Maintain a constant attitude. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. Maximum range performance of a turbojet
aircraft is obtained by which procedure as
aircraft weight reduces? Increasing speed or altitude. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop
engine is normally available in which
altitude range? 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. 25,000 feet to the tropopause. The tropopause to 45,000 feet. The most important restriction to the operation
of turbojet or turboprop engines is limiting compressor speed. limiting exhaust gas temperature. limiting torque. Under normal operating conditions, which
combination of MAP and RPM produce the
most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high
performance reciprocating engines? High RPM and low MAP. Low RPM and high MAP. High RPM and high MAP. Under what condition is Vmc the highest? Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. CG is at the most rearward allowable position. CG is at the most forward allowable position. Under which condition during the landing roll
are the main wheel brakes at maximum
effectiveness? When wing lift has been reduced.
At high groundspeeds. When the wheels are locked and skidding.
. What action is appropriate when encountering
the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence
(CAT)? Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. What characterizes a transient compressor
stall? Loud, steady roar
accompanied by heavy
shuddering.
.Sudden loss of thrust
accompanied by a loud
whine.
Intermittent "bang", as
backfires and flow
reversals take place. What effect does an uphill runway slope have
upon takeoff performance?
Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff speed. Decreases takeoff distance. What effect does high relative humidity have
upon the maximum power output of modern
aircraft engines? Neither turbojet nor
reciprocating engines are
affected.
Reciprocating engines will
experience a significant
loss of BHP.
Turbojet engines will
experience a significant
loss of thrust. What effect does landing at high elevation
airports have on groundspeed with comparable
conditions relative to temperature, wind, and
airplane weight? Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation. What effect will an increase in altitude have
upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower
(ESHP) of a turboprop engine? Lower air density and
engine mass flow will
cause a decrease in
power.
Higher propeller efficiency
will cause an increase in
usable power (ESHP) and
thrust.
Power will remain the
same but propeller
efficiency will decrease.
. What effect would a change in ambient
temperature of air density have on gas-turbineengine
performance? As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases. What effect, if any, does high ambient
temperature have upon the thrust output of a
turbine engine? Thrust will be reduced due
to the decrease in air
density.
Thrust will remain the
same, but turbine
temperature will be higher.
Thrust will be higher
because more heat energy
is extracted from the
hotter air. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-thanrecommended
touchdown speed have on
hydroplaning? No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking. What effective runway length is required for a
turbojet-powered airplane at the destination
airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or
slippery at the ETA? 70 percent of the actual
runway available, from a
height of 50 feet over the
threshold.
115 percent of the runway
length required for a dry
runway.
115 percent of the runway
length required for a wet
runway. What indicates that a compressor stall has
developed and become steady? Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud "bang" and low reversal. Completes loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. What is an area identified by the term
"stopway"? An area, at least the same
width as the runway,
capable of supporting an
airplane during a normal
takeoff.
An area designated for
use in decelerating an
aborted takeoff.
An area, not as wide as
the runway, capable of
supporting an airplane
during a normal takeoff.
. What is controlled by the waste gas of a turbocharged
reciprocating engine? Supercharger gear ratio. Exhaust gas discharge. Throttle opening. What is the best method of speed reduction if
hydroplaning is experienced on landing? Apply full main wheel braking only Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick
speed? Vmu. Vmd Vmu. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of
a runway which does not contain obstructions
and can be considered when calculating takeoff
performance of turbine-powered aircraft? clearway. Stopway. Obstruction clearance plane. What is the resulting performance loss when
one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. What performance is characteristic of flight at
maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum range and distance glide. Best angle of climb. Maximum endurance. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range"
airplane performance when a tailwind is
encountered? Increase speed. Maintain speed.
Decrease speed.
. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to
be ferried to another base for repair of an
inoperative engine, which operational
requirement must be observed?
Only the required flight
crewmembers may be on
board the airplane.
The existing and forecast
weather for departure, en
route, and approach must
be VFR.
No passengers except
authorized maintenance
personnel may be carried. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged
reciprocating engine? The highest altitude at
which a desired manifold
pressure can be obtained.
Highest altitude where the
mixture can be leaned to
best power ratio.
The altitude at which
maximum allowable BMEP
can be obtained. Which condition has the effect of reducing
critical engine failure speed? Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
Low gross weight.
High density altitude.
. Which condition reduces the required runway
for takeoff? Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increased headwind component. Which is correct symbol for the stalling speed or
the minimum steady flight speed at which the
airplane is controllable? Vso. Vs. Vs1. Which is the correct symbol for design cruising
speed? Vc. Vs.
Vma.
. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum
steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the
landing configuration? Vs. Vs1. Vso. Which is the definition of V2 speed? Takeoff decision speed. Takeoff safety speed.
Minimum takeoff speed.
. Which maximum range factor decreases as
weight decreases? Angle of attack. Altitude. Airspeed. Which operational requirement must be
observed by a commercial operator when
ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered
airplane from one facility to another to repair an
inoperative engine? The computed takeoff
distance to reach V1 must
not exceed 70 percent of
the effective runway
length.
The existing and forecast
weather for departure, en
route, and approach must
be VFR.
No passengers may be
carried. Which operational requirement must be
observed when ferrying a large, turbine-enginepowered
airplane when one of its engines is
inoperative? The weather conditions at
takeoff and destination
must be VFR.
Weather conditions must
exceed the basic VFR
minimums for the entire
route, including takeoff
and landing.
The flight cannot be
conducted between official
sunset and sunrise. Which operational requirement must be
observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane
when one of its three turbine engines is
inoperative? The weather conditions at
takeoff and destination
must be VFR.
The flight cannot be
conducted between official
sunset and official sunrise.
Weather conditions must
sunset and official sunrise.
Weather conditions must
exceed the basic VFR
minimums for the entire
route, including takeoff
and landing. Which performance factor decreases as
airplane gross weight increases, for a given
runway Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected
to the highest temperature? Compressor discharge. Fuel spray nozzles. Turbine inlet. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel
consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? Increase speed for a headwind. Increase speed for a tailwind. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. Which term describes the hydroplanning which
occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held
off a smooth runway surface by steam
generated by friction? Reverted rubber hydroplanning. Dynamic hydroplanning. Viscous hydroplaning. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest
potential for severe engine damage? Intermittent "backfire" stall. Transient "backfire" stall. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 138.5 X 97.6 inches? Floor load
limit - 235 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 219 lb Tiedown
devices - 71 lb 21,840.9 pounds. 21,769.9 pounds. 22,059.9 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 143 X 125.2 inches? Floor load
limit - 209 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 197 lb Tiedown
devices - 66 lb 25,984.9 pounds.
25,787.9 pounds. 25,721.9 pounds.
. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 24.6 X 68.7 inches? Floor load
limit - 85 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown
devices - 29 lb
924.5 pounds. 968.6 pounds. 953.6 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 33.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load
limit - 76 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown
devices - 27 lb 857.4 pounds. 830.4 pounds. 786.5 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 34.6 X 46.4 inches? Floor load
limit - 88 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 41 lb Tiedown
devices - 26 lb 914.1 pounds 940.1 pounds. 981.1 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 36 X 48 inches? Floor load limit :
169 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 47 Lbs Tiedown
devices: 33 Lbs 1,948.0 pounds. 1,995.0 pounds. 1,981.0 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 36.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load
limit - 107 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 37 lb Tiedown
devices - 33 lb 1,295.3 pounds.
,212.3 pounds.
1,245.3 pounds.
. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 36.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load
limit - 112 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 45 lb Tiedown
devices - 29 lb 1,331.8 pounds. 1,302.8 pounds. 1,347.8 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 42.6 X 48.7 inches? Floor load
limit - 121 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 47 lb Tiedown
devices - 33 lb 1,710.2 pounds. 1,663.2 pounds.
1,696.2 pounds.
. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 76 X 74 inches? Floor load limit :
176 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight : 77 Lbs Tiedown
devices: 29 Lbs 6,767.8 pounds. 6,873.7 pounds. 6,796.8 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 81 X 83 inches? Floor load limit
180 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight 82 Lbs tiedown
devices : 31 Lbs 8,403.7 pounds.
8,321.8 pounds.
8,290.8 pounds.
. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 87.7 X 116.8 inches? Floor load
limit - 175 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 137 lbTiedown
devices - 49 lb
12,262.4 pounds. 12,448.4 pounds. 12,311.4 pounds. What is the minimum floor load limit that an
aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of
cargo? Pallet dimensions are 116.8 X 87.7
inches Pallet weight - 137 lbs. Tiedown devices -
49 lbs. Cargo weight - 12,262.4 lbs. 172 lbs/sq ft.
176 lbs/sq ft.
179 lbs/sq ft.
. What is the minimum floor load limit that an
aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of
cargo? Pallet dimensions are 37.5 X 35
inchesPallet weight - 34 lbs.Tiedown devices -
23 lbs. Cargo weight 1,255.4 lbs. 152 lbs/sq ft. 148 lbs/sq ft.
144 lbs/sq ft.
. What is the minimum floor load limit that an
aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of
cargo? Pallet dimensions are 39 X 37 inches
Pallet weight - 37 lbs. Tiedown devices - 21 lbs
Cargo weight - 1,094.3 lbs 115 lbs/sq ft. 112 lbs/sq ft. 109 lbs/sq ft. What is the minimum floor load limit that an
aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of
cargo? Pallet dimensions are 48.5 X 33.5
inches Pallet weight - 44 lbs. Tiedown devices -
27 lbs. Cargo weight - 786.5 lbs. 79 lbs/sq ft. 76 lbs/sq ft 73 lbs/sq ft. What is the minimum floor load limit that an
aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of
cargo? Pallet dimensions are 78.9 X 98.7
inches Pallet weight - 161 lbs. Tiedown devices -
54 lbs. Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lb 180 lbs/sq ft. 186 lbs/sq ft. 183 lbs/sq ft. What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft
have to carry the following pallet of cargo?
Pallet size is 78.9 wide and 98.7 long Pallet
weight - 161 lb Tiedown devices - 54 lb Cargo
weight - 9,681.5 lb 185 lbs/sq ft. 179 lbs/sq ft. 183 lbs/sq ft. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 33.5 X 48.5 B inches?Floor load
limit - 66 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight - 34 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb 744.6 pounds.
681.6 pounds 663.0 pounds.
. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 24.6 X 68.7 inches? Floor load
limit - 79 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown
devices - 27 lb 884.1 pounds. 857.1 pounds. 841.1 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 24.6 X 68.7 inches? Floor load
limit - 79 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown
devices - 27 lb 884.1 pounds. 857.1 pounds. 841.1 pounds. What is the minimum floor load limit that an
aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of
cargo? Pallet dimensions are 78.9 X 98.7
inches Pallet weight - 161 lbs. Tiedown devices -
54 lbs. Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lbs 180 lbs/sq ft.
186 lbs/sq ft.
183 lbs/sq ft.
. Whe weight and CG of an aircraft used in air
taxi service must have been calculated from
those values established by actual weighing of
the aircraft within what period of time? Multiengine aircraft,
preceding 36 calendar
months.
Multiengine and singleengine
aircraft, preceding
36 calendar months.
Multiengine aircraft, last
36 calendar months;
single-engine, last 24
calendar months. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 33.5 X 48.5 inches? Floor load
limit - 66 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 34 lb Tiedown
devices - 29 lb 744.6 pounds. 681.6 pounds. 663.0 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 42.6 X 48.7 inches? Floor load
limit - 117 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown
devices - 31 lb 1,611.6 pounds. 1,654.6 pounds. 1,601.6 pounds. What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 96.1 X 133.3 inches? Floor load
limit - 249 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 347 lb Tiedown
devices - 134 lb 21,669.8 pounds. 21,803.8 pounds. 21,669.8 pounds. . What is the maximum allowable weight that
may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 98.7 X 78.9 inches? Floor load
limit - 183 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 161 lb Tiedown
devices - 54 lb 9,896.5 pounds. 9,735.5 pounds. 9,681.5 pounds. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water;however, Ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contac whit FPD Ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contac whit it Ice is slow to absorb it, an to melt when in contac with it.
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