The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight
time is:
The commander The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace The aircraft owner The airliner operator.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall,
unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the
following code on mode ""A""
7 700 7 500
7 600
7 000.
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish
radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz.
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
flight of the intercepted aircraft. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an
ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as
circumstances permit
Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Squawk 7700.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then
clench fist Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. Crossing arms extended above his head Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
landing adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
flight plan. descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will : Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ,
Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ,
Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight , Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean? Obstacle identification surface. Obstacle in surface. Obstacle identification slope. Obstruction in surface.
What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Depature end of runway.
10 Distance end of route. Departure end of route. Distance end of runway.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid
within a sector of : 25 NM 10 NM 15 NM 30 NM.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: FAP. FAF. MAP. IF.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its
descend below the OCA? When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway
lights in sight When the aircraft has the control tower in sight When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet When seems possible to land.
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Mean sea level. Aeredrome reference point. Relevant runway threshold. Aerodrome elevation.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA
should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual
reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle
clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination
regrouping all the correct answers is : 1, 2, 3. 1, 2.
2, 3.
1, 3.
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.
Up to 5.
3.
4.
Up to 4.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure
commence? At the IAF. At the IF. At the FAF.
At the final en-route fix.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is
called: Shuttle. Based turn.
Racetrack pattern. Procedure turn.
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights
above runway elevation from: 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot
does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track,
more than:
Half a scale deflection. One scale deflection. A quarter of scale deflection. One and a half of scale deflection.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is
called: Shuttle. Based turn. Racetrack pattern.
Procedure turn.
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other
standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
and glide path antenna, not greater than:
6m. 3m. 9m 12m.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Initial, intermediate and final.
Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. Arrival, intermediate and final. Initial and final.
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach
climb gradient of:
2.5%. 0.8%. 3.3%.
5%.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? At the point where the climb is established. At the missed approach point.
At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not
suitably located for straight-in approach, is: Visual manoeuvring (circling). Visual approach.
Contact approach.
Aerodrome traffic pattern.
A circling approach is:
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
A contact flight manoeuvre.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Landing runway.
MAP. FAF. Final missed approach track.
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre,
what actions should be taken ? Initiate a missed approach Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact
If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot
does not deviate from the centre line more than :
half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
full scale deflection of the localizer indicator. half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.
full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath
indicator.
On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered
acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway
centreline is :
30 degrees or less
40 degrees or less
20 degrees or less
10 degrees or less.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the
IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
25 NM
20 NM
10 NM
5 NM.
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :
± 5 NM ± 10 NM
± 12.5 NM
± 2.5 NM.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
200 ft
250 ft
150 ft
100 ft.
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC
charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
2.5%
2%
5%
3.3%.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser
bank.
rate of 3°per second.
maximum bank angle of 25°.
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum
speed ?
230 kt IAS. 230 kt TAS.
240 kt IAS.
240 kt TAS.
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into
the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
To the right.
To the left.
First right and then to the left.
Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
1 minute
2 minutes.
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding
procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry
procedure.
Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"".
Off set.
Parallel.
Direct.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
1 minute 30 seconds.
1 minute.
2 minutes.
2 minutes 30 seconds.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be
according to:
Heading.
Course.
Bearing.
Track.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made : to the right
to the left
in a direction depending on the entry ,
in a direction depending on the wind direction.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting
from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
Transition altitude. Transition layer.
Transition level.
The level specified by ATC.
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
only at transition altitude.
only at transition level.
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Mode A code 7600.
Mode A code 7500.
Mode B code 7600.
Mode A code 7700.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the
transponder:
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
Only when directed by ATC.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder
to Mode A Code:
7600.
2000. 7500. 7700.
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
7500.
7700.
7600.
7000.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4,
represents a navigation accuracy of
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed, is: 10 minutes.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
3 minutes.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft
preceding a 'Light' aircraft
6 NM
3 NM
2 km
10 km.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants.
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
by a danger.
A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
emergency.
A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
.
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the
pilot shall:
Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations -
Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC. Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
A strayed aircraft is :
An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which
reports that it is lost
only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then
clenching fist.
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
Crossing arms extended above his head.
Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the
order listed: Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over and ensuing significant point. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and
the old one cancelled, when:
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
.
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
communication failure?
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions.
Return to the aerodrome of departure.
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
same direction is:
4 000 feet.
2 000 feet.
3 000 feet.
1 500 feet.
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
all mentioned answers are correct
the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,
the aircraft gets radar vectors ,
the pilot is following the published approach procedure
.
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track at an angle not greater than :
30 degrees
25 degrees
20 degrees
15 degrees.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted
on the radar display
500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display
710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display
600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display.
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : Poor
Good
Medium/poor
Medium.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ?
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :
2 minutes
5 minutes
3 minutes
1 minute.
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway ?
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 4 minutes d) 1 minute.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
2 minutes
3 minutes
1 minute
5 minutes.
Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft
subjected to unlawful interference?
Code 7500.
Code 7700.
Code 7600.
Code 2000.
Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
radar contact has been lost.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you
are advised that contact has been lost.
What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation""
after you have been vectored to an airway?
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
Radar Service is terminated.
Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the
required direction by:
More than 300 ft.
300 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
More than 200 ft.
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
.
3.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
2.0 NM.
1.5 NM.
Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency
aircraft?
Code 7700.
Code 7500.
Code 7600.
Code 7000.
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the
same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
3 NM.
2 NM.
5 NM. 2.5 NM.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the
localizer course shall be:
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
pilot?
The radar identity of the aircraft has been established The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
The aircraft is subject to positive control
Position reports may be omitted.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas
and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? GEN.
RAC.
COM.
MET.
""TODA"" take-off distance available is: The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).
The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to: Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
run available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
provided) . The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
provided) .
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
runway code 4?
45 metres
35 metres
40 metres 50 metres.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
Flashing white.
Fixed green.
Flashing green.
Fixed white.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of: 300 m.
150 m.
200 m.
250 m.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing green.
Fixed lights showing blue.
Fixed lights showing yellow.
Fixed lights showing white.
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Fixed showing blue.
Fixed showing green.
Fixed showing yellow.
Flashing showing blue.
Runway end lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
Fixed lights showing variable red.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
.
Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the
runway.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed lights green colours.
Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
What is a ""barrette""?
three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
a CAT II or III holding position.
a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
at :
300 m from threshold
150 m from threshold
450 m from threshold
600 m from threshold.
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :
of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,
always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
of flashing lights only,
of an arbitrary amount of green lights,.
The runway edge lights shall be :
39
white
blue
green
red.
For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary
safeguards are to be observed such as :
boarding prior to all passengers
boarding after to all other passengers
the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
the boarding has to be done at the state discretion.
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended
if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.
Mechanically
Electrically.
Pneumatically.
By hydraulic accumulators.
The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will
be :
Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
Increased on the faster turning wheels.
Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
Increased on the slower turning wheels.
The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:
Multiple disk brake.
Drum type brake.
Single disk brake.
Belt brake.
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :
release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
prevent the brakes from overheating.
prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
.
Thermal plugs are installed in:
wheel rims.
fire warning systems.
cabin windows.
cargo compartments.
When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
0
1
0.1
0.5.
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic
failure.
a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic
braking system.
designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent
wheel blocking.
a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity
braking.
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on
larger aircraft ?
Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
Nitrogen.
Oxygen.
Springs.
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of :
A latch located in the landing gear lever.
An aural warning horn.
A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
A bolt.
A Yaw Damper is :
A rudder damper designed to avoid the ""Dutch roll"".
An elevator augmentor.
An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
A roll trim tab.
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...
The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will
retract and the left one will extend. The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the
left one will retract. The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the
left one will retract.
The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the
left one will extend.
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers?
Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection. Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR. Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.
On an aeroplane, spoilers are : upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?
At the pumps.
In the reservoirs.
At actuators.
At the coolers.
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:
prevent pump cavitation
seal the system
keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature
reduce fluid combustibility.
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :
store fluid under pressure.
increase pressure surges within the system.
reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
reduce fluid temperature only.
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for :
flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.
50
undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
flap extension only.
The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
in flight only.
by the air conditioning system.
by an auxiliary system.
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
decreases
increases
remains constant
may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform
the following functions:1. control of cabin altitude,2. control of cabin altitude rateof-
change,3. limitation of differential pressure4. balancing aircraft altitude with
cabin altitude5. cabin ventilation6. keeping a constant differential pressure
throughout all the flight phases.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is : 1, 2, 3
2, 6, 4
5, 6, 1
4, 5, 3.
The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to :
Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and
minimise cabin pressure surges.
regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.
.
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by The cabin outflow valve.
The cabin inlet airflow.
The engine's RPM.
The engine's bleed valves.
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.
cockpit and passenger cabin.
cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to
exceed: 8000 ft
4000 ft
6000 ft
10000 ft.
Cabin altitude means the: cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
flight level the aircraft is flying at.
flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m) 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
12000 ft (approx. 3600 m).
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
pressure is approximately:
7 - 9 psi
3 - 5 psi
13 - 15 psi
22 psi.
The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is
approximately:
9.0 psi
3.5 psi
13.5 psi
15.5 psi.
The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :
has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :
regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s). pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
engine rpm. inward relief valve(s).
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the
aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits. must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2
minutes. depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator. must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to
200 seats must be equipped with at least: 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to
300 seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen
needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency
descend is: 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above
15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
30 minutes.
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft.
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen
mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? FL 250.
FL 300.
FL 390.
FL 100.
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with
individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the
masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: 15000 ft.
13000 ft.
12000 ft.
14000 ft.
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during
commercial flight. 410.
300.
250.
490.
The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about :
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
2 hours.
5 minutes.
In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the : total pressure. static pressure.
total pressure plus static pressure.
dynamic pressure.
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to : react like an altimeter. read a little high. read a little low. freeze at zero.
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument (s) : airspeed indicator only. altimeter only. vertical speed indicator only. airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near
the source is known as:
position pressure error. barometric error. instrument error. hysteresis effect.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will: continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured
gradually indicate zero
under-read
indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale.
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:
continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
blocked over-read gradually return to zero.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is :
lower than the real altitude.
the same as the real altitude.
higher than the real altitude.
equal to the standard altitude.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is: higher than the real altitude. the same as the real altitude. lower than the real altitude. equal to the standard altitude.
On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: pressure altitude density altitude temperature altitude standard altitude.
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will : overread.
underread.
be just as correct as before
.
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA
conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will decrease
increase at a linear rate
remain constant
increase at an exponential rate.
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:
decrease increase at a linear rate remain constant increase at an exponential rate.
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
descent the instrument will: over-read read zero continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage under-read.
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