Tmap Next

1. What is testing? (R). (a) Testing is an activity intended to detect errors. (b) Testing is a process that provides insight into, and advice on quality and relate risks. (c) Testing is a process designed to find out whether the correct functionality has been implemented.

While executing tests, the testers notice the dramatically bad system performance, despite the fact that no test cases have been designed for this. (R) To what way of testing does this form of information gathering belong?. (a) dynamic explicit testing. (b) dynamic implicit testing. (c) statis testing.

3. In addition to the qualities listed below, what else should a test professional be? (R) (a) have a verbal and written communications skills (b) be able to work accurately (c) have analytical skills (d) be convincing and preserving (e) be factual (f) have positively critical attitude. (A) be creative. (B) be an expert in the subject matter. (C) be an expert in test tools.

4. In which TMap phase are test techniques allocated/assigned? (R). (a) Planning. (b) Specification. (c) Execution. (d) Preparation.

5. In which of the following can TMap be applied: (a) With iterative, incremental, waterfall and agilo approaches. (b) With new development, maintenance and migration of information. (c) In situations where much attetion has to paid to the communication process and associated skills. (d) All of the above > TMap can be applied in all situations listed.

6. Can TMap de used in every administrative organization regardless of the development methodology and/or testing situatutions?. Yes. no.

7. What is the correct definition of static testing?. (a) assesing the end products without software being run. (b) assesing intermediate products in the system desing process > this is evaluation. (c) conducting the agreed test strategy without any modifications > this is at most an example of rigid testing.

8. The test infrastructure consist of facilities and resources required to conduct testing effectively. Which facility does not belong to the testing infrastructure?. (a) test enviroments > this is a test infrastructure. (b) test desing techniques > test desing techniques are standardized operating procedures for deriving test cases from a certain test basis and coverage. They are primarily used in the Specification pahse. (c) test tools > this is a test infrastructure. (d) Workplaces > this is a test infrastructure.

9. Which test method is also referred to as ad hoc testing?. (a) Structured testing > In a structured testing process, testing is carried out systematically and not ad hoc. (b) Unstructured testing > Unstructured testing is often refered to as ad hoc testing. (c) Maintenance testing > Ad hoc testing is unstructured testing and has no quality criteria. It bears no relations to system, acceptance or maintenance testing either. (d) Risk-based testing > There is no underlying risk analysis in the case of ad hoc testing and so testing Is not risk-based.

10. Which document type best conveys the purpose of a master test plan?. (a) Coordination document. (b) Infrastructure document. (c) Planning document.

11. Fos a system, an organization wants to test the degree to which the manual procedures interconnect with the automated information system and the workability of these manual procedures for the organization. To which quality characteristics does this description relate?. (a) Effectivity. (b) Connectivity. (c) Functionality. (d) Suitability.

12. What is a test level?. (a) A set of actions aimed at creating a test deliverable by a universal method. (b) The whole of the test functions, facilities, procedures and activities including their relationships. (c) The degree to which testing is performed. (d) A group of test activities that are managed and executed collectively.

13. What is a regression test?. (a) A test aimed at verifying that a defect has been correctly fixed. (b) A test aimed at verifying that all the unchanged parts of a system still function correctly after the implementation of a change. (c) A test aimed at verifying whether or not the products if of sufficient quality to execute a complete test of the product. (d) A test aimed at verifying that the end-to-end functionality of one or more systems is tested.

14. What does the quality attribute manageability mean?. (a) The degree to which the user is able to introduce enhancements or variations on the information system without amending the software. (b) The ease and speed with which the information system can be resumed following a breakdown. (c) The ease with which information system can be placed and maintained in an operational condition. (d) The ease with which the information system can be adapted to new requirements of the user.

15. What constitutes a good test environment?. (a) It is possible to adequately determine to what extent the test object meets the requirements. (b) It has been configured and tested by qualified personnel. (c) It meets both of the requirements list above. (d) It is a similar to the production environment as possible and the test data is consistent.

16. The client that has assigned the test thinks it is important to test the degradation factor or the information system. Of which characteristics is the degradation factor a characteristic?. (a) Manageability. (b) Continuity. (c) Flexibility. (d) Portability.

17. Which quality characteristics does the following definition describe? The degree to which the information system meets the demands of the organization and the profile of the end users for whom it was intended, as well as the degree to which the information system contributes to the achievement to the business objectives. (a) Efficiency. (b) Manageability. (c) Reliability. (d) Effectivity.

18. What are the advantages of using test tools?. (a) They perform routine test work, allow stress tests to be executed more effectively and make middleware testing easier. (b) Standarization, higher productivity and more economical. (c) The reduce the number of different test functions, perform higher quality testing and increase job satisfaction.

19. In which TMap phase is the infrastructure specified?. (a) Control. (b) Setting up and maintaining infrastructure. (c) Planning. (d) Specification.

20. In which TMap phase is a test scrip created?. (a) Planning. (b) Specification. (c) Execution. (d) Preparation.

21. To which group of test tool types does a simulator belong?. (a) Tools for debugging and analyzing the code. (b) Tools for designing the test. (c) Tools for planning and controlling the test. (d) Tools for executing the test.

22. For which activity are test design technique checklist used?. (a) Intake of the test object. (b) Creating checklist. (c) Creating test specifications. (d) Collection of the test basis.

23. Which of the following questions is not an advantage of structured testing approach?. (a) It can be used in any situation, regardless of who the client is or which system development approach is used. (b) It prevents defects and finds them at an early stage. (c) The test products are reusable. (d) Neither of the above.

24. For which of the following does TMap not provide a technique?. (a) Test estimation. (b) Product evaluation. (c) Test automation. (d) Test design.

25. During the planning phase, which activity should be carried out after determining the test strategy?. (a) Allocate test units and test techniques. (b) Estimating the effort. (c) Analyzing the product risks. (d) Feedback and consolidation of the plan.

26. Which of the following is not included in final report?. (a) Evaluation of the test object. (b) Progress of the test process. (c) Release advice. (d) Evaluation of the test process.

27. In which phase of TMap life cycle are central starting points defined?. (a) Planning. (b) Preparation. (c) Specification. (d) Execution.

28. Which of the following tools does not belong to the group of tools used for designing test?. (a) Test data tool. (b) Simulator. (c) Test design tool. (d) Model-based testing tool.

29. Which of the following can be used as an alternative test basis?. (a) Present system in production. (b) Prototype. (c) Information session. (d) All of the above.

31. Which of the following is a possible extension to the minimum fields required when reporting a defect?. (a) Identification of the test environment. (b) Project name. (c) Severity.

32. In which phase does the test manager prepare the final report?. (a) Completion. (b) Control. (c) Execution.

33. Test process evaluation is an activity performed in the Completion phase. What is the aim of this evaluation?. (a) To assess the test results. (b) To determinate which test cases should be preserved. (c) To learn from experience gained during the completed test.

34. What is the aim of performing an intake of the test object in the Execution phase?. (a) To prepare the starting point required for the execution of the tests. (b) To establish whether the delivered parts of the test object function in such a way that adequate testing can be carried out. (c) To establish the testability of the test basis. (d) To obtain test results, on the basis of which evaluation of the test object can take place.

36. Is the checklist drawn up for the purpose for assessing the test basis dependent on the test design techniques being applied?. (a) Yes. (b) No.

37. The project defect administration contains the following defect: The specification for a function A1 does not describe which action should follow when the function returns an error. Which technique can be used to establish this defect?. (a) Checklist for assessing the test basis. (b) Error guessing. (c) Syntactic test. (d) Test strategy.

38. The test basis is not always present, complete or up to date. In such a case, an (additional) alternative test basis can be set up. What is the best (additional) alternative test basis that can be defined?. (a) The product risk analysis. (b) A test basis set up by the tester. (c) The information obtained during an information session.

39. Which of the following best describes robustness derived from quality characteristics continuity?. (a) The degree to which the information system remains free breakdowns. (b) The degree to which the information system can simply proceed after the breakdown has been rectified. (c) The ease and speed with which the information system can be resumed following a breakdown. (d) The ease with which the core of the information system can proceed after a part has been shut down.

40. There is a choice of three possibilities for the entering of test data in an existing system Which is preferable from a testing perspective?. (a) Use of production data. (b) Entering through separate front-end-software. (c) Entering through regular system functions.

41. Which of the following is not a generic requirement of a test environment?. (a) Representative. (b) Manageable. (c) Flexible. (d) Cheap.

42. Which fields are part of the defect report minimum field set?. (a) Severity, submitter and test environment identification. (b) Severity, brief characterization and priority. (c) Submitter, unique identification and temporary severity.

44. Testing consists of planning, preparation and measurement. Which is the best approach in terms of average time ratios between these three activities?. (a) planning : preparation : measuring = 10 : 40 : 50. (b) planning : preparation : measuring = 10 : 50 : 40. (c) planning : preparation : measuring = 20 : 40 : 40. (d) planning : preparation : measuring = 30 : 30 : 40.

46. How you could to encourage developers to execute unit tests?. (a) By prescribing the use of test design techniques. (b) By ensuring there is a good technical specification of the unit. (c) By ensuring there is a good test environment. (d) By ensuring there are elementary forms of test documentation.

47. In which order are the following activities in Test Driven Development (TDD) carried out?. (a) Test, code, refactor. (b) Refactor, code test. (c) Code, refactor, test. (d) Test, refactor, code.

48. How is development testing similar to system testing or acceptance testing?. (a) The person who discovers a defect is usually the person who will resolve it. (b) The risk-related parts must be tested first. (c) Reporting mut be very detailed. (d) Fede está calvo.

50. What is not one of the aims of the testability review test basis report?. (a) Providing feedback on the quality of the test basis and its impact on the planned test procedure. (b) Gaining an insight into the estimation for the test procedure. (c) Obtaining information on project risks. (d) Discussing the weak spots in the system design on time.

51. Which of the following statements is not correct?. (a) Every test situation occurs in at least 1 test case. (b) A logical test case covers no more than 1 test situation > A logical test covers 1 or more test situation. (c) Every logical test case is worked out concretely into 1 physical test case. (d) Every physical test case occurs in 1 test script.

52. What does the following definition refer to? Used to examine whether the system displays the desired behaviour under specific circumstances. (a) Test situation. (b) Dynamic test. (c) Test case. (d) System test.

53. Into how many physical test cases is each logical test case worked out?. (a) Into one physical test case. (b) Into one or more physical tests cases. (c) Into a maximum of one physical test case.

54. How many test situations are required to obtain condition coverage when applying the basic technique decision points to the follow decision? R = A AND B OR C. (a) 2. (b) 4. (c) 6. (d) 8.

55. How many equivalence classes can be distinguished from the following? People that have between 2 and 5 years driving experience (mayor o igual (>-) 2 menor o igual (-<) 5) receive a discount of 20% while people with more than 5 years experince (>5) receive a discount of 40% R = A AND B OR C. (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.

56. If a person is younger than 8 years old (<8), aged between 35 and 45 years (>35 and <45) or older than 60 years (>60), then he/she is eligible for a discount. How many equivalence classes can be distinguished in the example above?. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5.

57. Which values should be chosen to generate test cases for the following condition when applying the slight variant of boundary values analysis? Age < 18. (a) 17, 18, 19. (b) 17, 18. (c) 18, 19. (d) 0, 18.

58. During the input, the Age data item is verified in the following way: Age <= 12 Which value should be chosen to generate test cases for the above example if the slight variant of boundary value analysis is used?. (a) 6 and 15. (b) 11 and 12. (c) 11 and 13. (d) 12 and 13.

59. See the following specification: IF A < = 10 AND B = 12 OR C > = 10 THEN X := 40 ENDIF IF D < = 14 THEN X := 50 ELSE X := 0 ENDIF D <= 14 is an example of which of the following?. (a) Action. (b) Condition. (c) Operator. (d) Test situation.

60. See the following decision: R = A and (B or C) and D The basis decision point technique is applied to the decision using modified condition/decision coverage. In which test situation does the value of D determinate the outcome of the decision, R, as TRUE?. (a) A=TRUE B=TRUE C=FALSE D=TRUE. (b) A=FALSE B=TRUE C=TRUE D=TRUE. (c) A=TRUE B=FALSE C=FALSE D=TRUE. (d) A=FALSE B=FALSE C=FALSE D=TRUE.

61. See the following specifications: A person entitled to benefits (A) is eligible for a financial bonus (FB), if the person is married (B) or has children (C). The decision is in the following way: FB = A AND (B OR C) When the basic technique decision point is used with condition/decision coverage, the following test situation is determined: A =TRUE B=FALSE C=TRUE Which test situation is missing?. (a) A=TRUE B=TRUE C=FALSE. (b) A=TRUE B=TRUE C=TRUE. (c) A=FALSE B=TRUE C=TRUE. (d) A=FALSE B=TRUE C=FALSE.

62. A decision table consists of three conditions. How many combinations does the complete decision table contain?. (a) 2. (b) 4. (c) 8. (d) 9.

63. A test basis consists of rules, which specify how an attribute should comply in order to be accepted as valid input and/or output by the system. The validity of the input data must be tested. Which test design technique is suitable and focused on this test situation?. (a) Data combination test. (b) Data cycle test. (c) Process cycle test. (d) Syntactic test.

64. The specifications of a particular subsystem contain no pseudo-code or other structured descriptions. They do, however, provide information about the data that plays a role in the subsystem and its influence on the functionality. Which test design technique would you use to test the functionality?. (a) Data combination test. (b) Elementary comparison test. (c) Data cycle test. (d) Process cycle test.

65. Which test design technique is used for performance testing?. (a) Data combination test. (b) Data cycle test. (c) Process cycle test. (d) Real life test.

66. For which test design technique is the CRUD basic technique used?. (a) Sata combination test. (b) Data cycle test. (c) Process cycle test. (d) Use case test.

67. See the following figure: Which path combinations can be differentiated when the basic technique paths is applied with test depth level 2?. (a) 1-2; 2-3; 3-4; 2-4; 2-5; 2-6; 3-5; 3-6; 4-5; 4-6; 5-6. (b) 1-2; 1-3; 1-4; 2-5; 3-5; 4-5; 2-6; 3-6; 4-6. (c) 1-2-5; 1-2-6; 1-3-6; 1-3-5; 1-4-6; 1-4-5.

68. See the procedure flow below: How many test situations are produced when the coverage type paths test depth level 3 is used?. (a) 3. (b) 8. (c) 10. (d) 13.

69. See the illustration bellow: What is the minimum number of logical test cases that is generated using the process cycle test, if the coverage type paths test depth level 1 is used?. 2. 3. 5. 6.

70. See the specification bellow: IF customer no. > 200 AND article group = 330 THEN discount = 5% END-IF IF region code = 4 OR region code = 8 THEN invoice type = A ELSE invoice type = B END-IF What is the minimum number of logical test cases necessary to test all test situations when using the Elementary Comparison Test with coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage?. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 6.

71. See the specification and illustration bellow: The test modified technique Elementary Comparison Test with coverage type decision points with modified condition/decision coverage, has been used on the bellow specification? IF A AND B THEN C=50 ELSE IF C AND D THEN Error message ENDIF ENDIF Which is the corresponding graph?. (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.

72. In order to test a registration application for a city break holiday, logical test cases must be created based on the data combination test. It is agreed to conduct less depth testing. One data pair is defined that must be fully tested in combination: • Aircraft class – city Eight test cases are designed using the classification tree. Where should the circles/bullets for the test case 3 be placed?. (a) Whitsun – Prague – 2nd. (b) Whitsun – Vienna – 2nd. (c) Easter – Prague – business. (d) Easter – Vienna – business.

73. See the classification tree bellow: In order to the test purchase of school supplies, logical test cases mut be created based on the data combination test. It has been agreed in this instance that a medium depth test is required. This means that all data must be subjected to pairwise testing: • Pens – paper – school diary – bag The test cases are designed using the below classification tree. What is the minimum number of test cases that will be generated by applying the pairwise testing technique? (What is “N” at a minimum?). 2. 4. 6. 12.

74. A decision table contains three conditions. How many test situations does the decision table contain if the basic technique decision point is applied with condition coverage?. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 8.

75. See the following specification: IF Dutch telephone number AND telephone number does not contain 10 digits THEN error message ENDIF How many logical test cases can be identified if a semantic test using the basic technique decision point and modified condition/decision coverage is applied?. (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.

77. The following diagram shows a simple job applicant shortlist process where an applicant must have 5 years or more experience, be certified and have university studies. How many test situations are derived when obtaining path coverage level 2 while applying the test design technique Process Cycle Test?. (a) 2. (b) 4. (c) 6. (d) 8.

78. The following test cases have been designed to test a simple job applicant shortlist application. From the diagram, which test case is missing in order to obtain pairwise coverage when applying the test design technique Data Combination Test?. (a) Experience >= 5 years, Certified = No, University Studies = No. (b) Experience >= 5 years, Certified = Yes, University Studies = Yes. (c) Experience < 5 years, Certified = Yes, University Studies = Yes. (d) Experience < 5 years, Certified = Yes, University Studies = No.

79. Which test case is missing to obtain the variant CRURDR of CRUD coverage when applying the Data Cycle test design technique to the entity USER? TC1: Create new user TC2: Search for user and verify details TC3: Modify user details TC4: Search for user and verify details TC6: Search for user and verify details. (a) TC5: Debug user. (b) TC5: Print user. (c) TC5: Define user. (d) TC5: Delete user.

80. How many logical test cases are required to obtain modified condition/decision coverage when applying the semantic test design technique to the following business rule? “In order to create a new user, the user’s surname, their date of birth and their place of birth (all three together) must not already exist in the system”. (a) 2. (b) 4. (c) 6. (d) 8.

81. How many logical test cases are required to obtain condition/decision coverage from the follow decision table when applying the test design technique Decision Table Test? (. 2. 4. 6. 8.

81. A test basis consists of rules, which specify how an attribute should comply in order to be accepted as valid input and/or output by the system. The validity of the input data must be tested. Which test design technique is suitable to test the validity of such data?. (a) Data Combination Test. (b) Data Cycle Test. (c) Semantic Test. (d) Syntactic Test.

82. See the definition below: Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things. Of which test level is this the definition?. (a) acceptance test. (b) development test. (c) system test.

83. In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place.?. (a) Defining central starting points. (b) Intake of the test object. (c) Specifying the test object intake. (d) Executing (re)tests.

84. Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?. (a) a defect in the test basis. (b) a defect in the test specification. (c) a defect in the test object.

85. Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?. (a) when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available. (b) when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project. (c) when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested.

86. What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?. (a) that the tests are reproducible. (b) that the test specifications are transferable. (c) that coverage of 100% is achieved. (d) that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy.

87. See the illustration below: To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination: -car - attraction Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree. Where must the 'bullets' for test case 4 be placed?. (a) Saturday, fun park, 2nd. (b) Sunday, museum, station. (c) Sunday, fun park, station.

88. A structured testing approach is characterized by: -providing concrete footholds -covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant aspects -providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to be done What is the fourth characteristic?. (a) it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system. (b) managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality. (c) the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the total lead time of development is shortened. (d) to find defects at an early stage.

89. During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied here?. (a) by using boundary values. (b) by using a higher or lower test depth level. (c) by taking equivalence classes into consideration.

90. Which activity is not part of the Completion phase?. (a) updating the testware to be preserved. (b) assessing test results. (c) evaluating the test process. (d) selecting the testware to be preserved.

91. Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a relationship with programs that have not yet been realized?. (a) code coverage tool. (b) Comparator. (c) 'model-based testing' tool. (d) stubs and drivers.

92. For the creation of the central starting point there are several techniques. In the given situation it is necessary that consistency between the data entered is guaranteed. Which of the techniques below is preferable if only one technique may be used? s. (a) use of production data. (b) entering through separate front-end software. (c) entering through regular system function.

93. See the definition below: The ease with which the information system can be adapted to new requirements of the user and the changing external environment, or to correct errors. Of which quality characteristic is this the definition?. (a) manageability. (b) flexibility. (c) maintainability.

94. See the decision and test situations below: R = (A AND B) OR C Which test situation is missing if the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage is used?. A=TRUE B=TRUE C=TRUE. A=TRUE B=FALSE C=FALSE.

95. See the specification below in which a decision point is described: R = (D OR E) AND F Use of the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage produces the following table with test situations: Which values are missing where the dots are stated (? to make the table complete?. 010. 011. 110. 111.

96. See the specification of a discount campaign below: 3. 4. 5.

98. See the illustration below: Which test situations can be differentiated when the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?. (a) 1-2; 2-3; 3-4; 2-4; 2-5; 2-6; 3-5; 3-6; 4-5; 4-6; 5-6. (b) 1-2; 1-3; 1-4; 2-5; 3-5; 4-5; 2-6; 3-6; 4-6. (c) 1-2-5; 1-2-6; 1-3-6; 1-3-5; 1-4-6; 1-4-5.

100. See the illustration below: What is the minimum number of logical test cases generated by the use of the Process Cycle Test if the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?. (a) 3. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 9.

108. Which of the following statements about 'evaluation' is correct?. (a) evaluation relates to the left-and and right-hand side of the V model. (b) evaluation is the review of end products. (c) evaluation applies to incremental and iterative system development methods.

114. See the figure below: Of which test design technique is this an example?. (a) Data Combination Test. (b) Data Cycle Test. (c) Semantic Test. (d) Syntactic Test.

117. See the specification below: How many logical test cases can be generated if a semantic test using the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage is used?. (a) 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4.

118. Which activity takes place in the Preparation phase?. (a) the test object intake. (b) allocating test units and test techniques. (c) determining the test basis. (d) collection of the test basis.

120. What is to be preserved in the activity reserving the testware?. (a) all testware created during the project. (b) a selection of the testware in consultation with the future administrator.

122. What is not an element of a test case in relation to the system behavior to be tested?. (a) action. (b) defect. (c) initial situation. (d) predicted result.

123. Drivers can be used in the Execution phase of a test process. What are drivers for?. (a) to test, at an early stage, a module that has relationships with modules not yet realized. (b) to gain insight into aspects like memory use, CPU use, network load and performance. (c) to determine whether the system continues to function correctly and at the required speeds under the expected production load.

124. Problems can be prevented by looking closely at the way the starting point for the test execution must be structured and which process must be deployed when using it. Which problem does this not prevent?. (a) production disruptions. (b) a deteriorating starting point. (c) testing gets increasingly expensive.

125. See the following specification: How many test situations are produced when the coverage type decision points condition/decision coverage is used?. 2. 3. 4.

126. See the specification below: Apply the Decision Table Test to the above specification. When doing this, use the coverage type multiple condition coverage. How many logical test cases result in an error message?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

127. What is the definition of valuation? What is the definition of? valuation?. (a) Evaluation gives insight in the actual and future status of the end product. (b) Evaluation is a process that gives insight into and advice on quality and related risks. (c) Evaluation is assessing the interim products in the system development process.

130. Is the checklist created to determine the test basis dependent on the selected test design technique?. (a) yes. (b) No.

132. Which TMap phase may be located on the critical path?. (a) Planning and Control. (b) Specification. (c) Execution. (d) Preparation.

133. What is the correct description of the term test level?. (a) the information that defines the required system behavior. (b) a group of test activities with the attention of checking the information system in respect of a number of correlated (part aspects of) quality characteristics. (c) a group of test activities that are managed and executed collectively.

134. During which TMap phase is testing 'dynamic implicit'?. (a) Specification. (b) Execution. (c) Preparation.

136. Which test design technique can be used to test performance?. (a) Data Cycle Test. (b) Process Cycle Test. (c) Real-Life Test.

137. See the following specification: How many test situations can be distinguished for this specification when the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision is used?. 2. 6. 8. 64.

138. During the test execution of a large customer registration system, the system went down for several times. Although there were no test cases described the tester concluded that the continuity was poor. Which testing method is described here?. (a) dynamic explicit testing. (b) dynamic implicit testing. (c) static testing.

140. When customer data is entered, it is mandatory to specify an e-mail address. Which test design technique can be used to test the above?. (a) Data Cycle Test. (b) Process Cycle Test. (c) Syntactic Test.

141. There are two parties in the V model: -the supplying party -the accepting party Which system development phase or test phase is not performed by the supplying party?. (a) Functional design. (b) Realization. (c) System test. (d) Technical design.

142. See the definition below: Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things. Of which test level is this the definition?. (a) acceptance test. (b) development test. (c) system test.

143. The specification of test cases according to a test design technique follows five general steps. Which step is stablishing the starting point? Which step is? stablishing the starting point?. (a) step 2. (b) step 3. (c) step 4. (d) step 5.

144. What is the aim of the activity 'assessing the test basis'?. (a) to determine the risk of the various system components. (b) to select the most suitable test design techniques. (c) to determine whether the delivered system components can be tested in a useful manner. (d) to establish the testability of the test basis.

145. What is not a test benefit?. (a) facilitating good project control by providing information. (b) avoiding repair costs and consequential loss in the production situation. (c) avoiding damage during production. (d) release of a product.

146. See the illustration below: What is the minimum number of logical test cases generated by the use of the Process Cycle Test if the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?. 3. 5. 6. 9.

147. What is not one of the aims of the 'testability review test basis' report?. (a) providing feedback on the quality of the test basis and its impact on the planned test procedure. (b) gaining an insight into the estimation for the test procedure. (c) obtaining information on project risks. (d) discussing the weak spots in the system design on time.

148. See the specification below: IF A AND (B OR C) THEN error message ENDIF How many logical test cases are distinguished if Semantic Testing with coverage type decision points condition/decision coverage is used?. 2. 3. 4. 8.

149. See the illustration below: Which test situations can be differentiated when the coverage type paths test depth level 2 is used?. (a) 1-2; 2-3; 3-4; 2-4; 2-5; 2-6; 3-5; 3-6; 4-5; 4-6; 5-6. (b) 1-2; 1-3; 1-4; 2-5; 3-5; 4-5; 2-6; 3-6; 4-6. (c) 1-2-5; 1-2-6; 1-3-6; 1-3-5; 1-4-6; 1-4-5.

151. During the Process Cycle Test, the coverage type paths is used. In which way can coverage be varied here?. (a) by using boundary values. (b) by using a higher or lower test depth level. (c) by taking equivalence classes into consideration.

152. The test infrastructure consists of facilities and resources required to conduct testing effectively. Which facility does not belong to the testing infrastructure?. (a) test environments. (b) test design techniques. (c) test tools. (d) Workplaces.

153. A structured testing approach is characterized by: ✑ providing concrete footholds ✑ covering the full scope and describing the complete range of relevant aspects ✑ providing a structure, so that it is clear what exactly by whom, when and in what sequence has to be done What is the fourth characteristic?. (a) it delivers insight into and advice on any risks in respect of the quality of the tested system. (b) managing test activities in the context of time, money and quality. (c) the testing is on the critical path of the total development, as briefly as possible, so that the total lead time of development is shortened. (d) to find defects at an early stage.

154. Which activity is not part of the Completion phase?. (a) updating the testware to be preserved. (b) assessing test results. (c) evaluating the test process. (d) selecting the testware to be preserved.

155. For the creation of the central starting point there are several techniques. In the given situation it is necessary that consistency between the data entered is guaranteed. Which of the techniques below is preferable if only one technique may be used?. (a) use of production data. (b) entering through separate front-end software. (c) entering through regular system function.

156. See the illustration To test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created in accordance with the Data Combination Test. In addition, it has been agreed that less depth testing must be performed. One data pair has been defined that must be fully tested in combination: ✑ car - attraction Eight test cases are designed using a classification tree. Where must the 'bullets' for test case 4 be placed?. a) Saturday, fun park, 2nd. (b) Sunday, museum, station. (c) Sunday, fun park, station.

157. See the specification below in which a decision point is described: R = (D OR E) AND F Use of the coverage type decision points modified condition/decision coverage roduces the following table with test situations: Which values are missing where the dots are stated (? to make the table complete?. (a) 010. (b) 011. (c) 110. (d) 111.

158. What can be avoided by consolidating separate checklists into one checklist for assessing a test basis?. (a) finding the same test basis defect more often. (b) using a particular checklist in both the acceptance and system tests. (c) that every project compiles its own checklist. (d) duplicating work on identical parts of the test basis during the evaluation.

159. Three parameters play a role for a printing function and for every parameter there are two equivalence classes to be tested: Which combination is missing in the table if the coverage type pairwise testing is applied?. (a) arial color 10. (b) arial black 12. (c) verdana color 10. (d) verdana black 10.

160. Which type of tool is used in the Execution phase to test a module or component that has a relationship with programs that have not yet been realized?. (a) code coverage tool. (b) comparator. (c) 'model-based testing' tool. (d) stubs and drivers.

161. See the definition below: The ease with which the information system can be adapted to new requirements of the user and the changing external environment, or to correct errors. Of which quality characteristic is this the definition?. (a) manageability. (b) flexibility. (c) maintainability.

162. See the specification of a discount campaign below: How many equivalence classes can be distinguished from the above specification?. 3. 4. 5.

163. Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?. (a) a defect in the test basis. (b) a defect in the test specification. (c) a defect in the test object.

164. In which TMap phase activity does the pre-test take place?. (a) Defining central starting points. (b) Intake of the test object. (c) Specifying the test object intake. (d) Executing (re)tests.

165. With which units do you best start the unit integration test?. (a) the units that are ready first. (b) the units that are the worst (least) documented. (c) the units in which the most problems are expected.

166. Which test design technique uses operational profiles and load profiles?. (a) Data Cycle Test. (b) Process Cycle Test. (c) Real-Life Test. (d) Use Case Test.

167. What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?. (a) that the tests are reproducible. (b) that the test specifications are transferable. (c) that coverage of 100% is achieved. (d) that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy.

168. Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?. (a) when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available. (b) when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project. (c) when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested.

169. With which step in the business driven test management (BDTM) approach follows the step determining risk class? With which step in the business driven test management (BDTM) approach follows the step? determining risk class?. (a) determining light/thorough testing. (b) formulating the assignment and gathering test goals. (c) creating test cases. (d) allocating test techniques.

170. Which system development method is agile and contains structured guidelines for development testing?. (a) DSDM. (c) XP. (b) SDM.

172. What is the aim of a unit test?. (a) to demonstrate that a unit meets the functional specifications. (b) to demonstrate that a unit meets the technical specifications. (c) to demonstrate that a unit integrates properly with other units.

174. Which test design technique can be used to test performance?. (a) Data Cycle Test. (b) Process Cycle Test. (c) Real-Life Test.

175. The possible results of every condition are tested at least once. To which coverage type does this refer?. (a) condition coverage. (b) condition/decision coverage. (c) decision coverage. (d) modified condition/decision coverage.

176. Which defects can be detected more effectively with development tests than with system and/or acceptance tests?. (a) defects related to effectivity. (b) defects related to the database and/or the operating system. (c) defects related to the functional specifications. (d) defects related to performance.

177. See the following specification: (a) 2. (b) 6. (c) 8. (d) 64.

180. A fun park is celebrating its 25th birthday and has come up with the following discount campaign: Everybody is given 50% discount on their admission ticket. Children younger than 4 years, adults older than 64 years, and for this special occasion adults aged 25 years will be allowed in free. How many equivalence classes are included in this situation?. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5.

181. What is the definition of valuation? What is the definition of evaluation?. (a) Evaluation gives insight in the actual and future status of the end product. (b) Evaluation is a process that gives insight into and advice on quality and related risks. (c) Evaluation is assessing the interim products in the system development process.

182. See the procedure flow below: How many test situations are produced when the coverage type paths with test depth level 2 is used?. (a) 3. (b) 8. (c) 12. (d) 13.

185. See the illustration below: In order to test a registration application for a weekend trip, logical test cases must be created according to the Data Combination Test. It is agreed to conduct light testing. One data pair is defined that must be fully tested in combination: ✑ day ?attraction Using a classification tree, six test cases are design Where should the 'bullets' for test case 4 be placed?. (a) Saturday, zoo, 2nd. (b) Sunday, zoo, family car. (c) Sunday, zoo, 2nd.

189. What is not a general step when specifying test cases?. (a) allocating the test techniques. (b) identifying test situations. (c) creating the test script. (d) establishing the starting point.

190. What is recorded in a test plan?. (a) the initial situation, action and predicted result. (b) the test situations to be tested. (c) the division into test units and the test techniques to be used. (d) a stepped plan for the test execution.

193. What is an advantage of the BDTM approach?. (a) a test process that can be controlled by the client. (b) a cheaper test process. (c) a risk-free production launch of the tested system.

Había una pregunta que era tipo: En que metodología de desarrollo se codifican antes las pruebas que el propio codigo: TDD. klñk.