1. Which air conditioning system component optimizes cabin temperature regulation, modulating the high temperature bleed air mixed with the cold air at the mixer unit outlet? a. The pack flow control valves. b. The trim air valves. c. The Recirculation fans.
2. Which component from the pressurization system under normal operating conditions modulates the amount of air discharged overboard from the fuselage to keep the cabin differential pressure in approximately 8 PSI? a. Outflow valve. b. Safety valves c. Avionics skin air inlet valves.
3. What is the component which controls the pressure in the pressurization system through a flap-type outflow valve? a. Cabin Pressure Controller b. Flight Management and Guidance System c. Zone pack controller.
4. What component controls the quantity of air supplied from the pneumatic system to the air conditioning packs. a. The flow control valves b. Zone pack controller c. Cabin Pressure Controller.
5. In this element the air enters the compressor from the primary heat exchanger and is compressed the pressure and temperature increase. a. Zone pack controller b. Main Heat Exchangers c. Air-Cycle Machines.
6. On ECAM fuel page, when is the FUEL USED indication for the engines re-initialized to Zero: a. At next aircraft Refueling. b. At next engine start. c. After engine shutdown.
7. Which is the function of the intercell transfer valves when they are operated? a. Allow the fuel to flow from center tank to the inner cells. b. Allow the fuel to flow from inner cells to the outer cells. c. Allow the fuel to flow from outer cells to the inner cells.
8. In the engine secondary air systems, what air is used to cool both HP turbine stages (make-up air). a. Fan air. b. Booster stage air (LPC). c. 10th stage air (HPC).
9. Which of the following components from the engine fuel system cuts off the fuel flow (in conjunction with the LP fuel valve and according to Eng. Master Lever or Eng. Fire PB) to the nozzles, during normal or emergency shutdown of the engine? a. The Fuel Diverter & Return to Tank Valve. b. The Fuel Metering Valve. c. The Pressure Raising & Shutoff Valve.
10. When performing an engine manual start, which is the only automatic action carried out by the EEC. a. Provide double ignition at 16% N2. b. Provide fuel at 18% N2. c. Closure of the starter valve and ignition cutoff at 43% N2.
11. Which of the following bearing compartment is the only one that does not have its own oil scavenge system? a. No. 1, 2 y 3 bearing compartment. b. No. 4 bearing compartment. c. No. 5 bearing compartment.
12. Which component from the engine fuel system regulates the flow of fuel to the engine (according to an electrical signal coming from the EEC) to the nozzles, to satisfy aircraft thrust requirements. a. The Fuel Diverter & Return to Tank Valve. b. The Fuel Metering Valve. c. The Pressure Raising & Shutoff Valve.
13. What kind of fuel pump is used for the HP stage (HP fuel pump) in the engine fuel system. a. Gear rotor type pump. b. Centrifugal impeller type pump. c. Gear type pump.
14. Inside the ACAC (air cooled air cooler) what air is used to cool down the air utilized to pressurize and cool the No.4 bearing compartment (buffer air). a. Fan air. b. Booster stage air (LPC). c. 12th stage air (HPC).
15. During an engine manual sequence, which action opens the fuel LP valve and the PRSOV (pressure raising & shutoff valve) to allow fuel into the combustion chamber? a. Set the rotary switch in the IGN/START position (center pedestal). b. Set the ENG MASTER LEVER in the ON position (center pedestal). c. Set the ENG MAN START PB in the ON position (overhead).
16. Under normal operating conditions and with a low pressure condition in the green system: a. Yellow system transfers fluid at 3000 PSI through the PTU to pressurize the green system. b. The blue electric pump transfers fluid at 3000 PSI through the PTU to pressurize the green system. c. Yellow system mechanically transfers hydraulic power through the PTU to pressurize the green system, there is no fluid transfer.
17. If the blue electric pump fails during a flight, the blue hydraulic system: a. Is lost for the rest of the flight. b. Can be recovered by extending the RAT. c. Can be recovered by means of the PTU.
18. Under normal operating conditions and the PTU PB in AUTO position, la power transfer unit works automatically: a. When the pressure difference between blue and yellow system is 500 PSI. b. When the pressure difference between green and yellow is 500 PSI. c. Only manually setting the PTU PB in ON position. .
19. Which is the main purpose of the priority valves in the hydraulic systems: a. Cuts off hydraulic power to heavy load users under low hydraulic pressure conditions. b. Maintain hydraulic power to heavy load users under low hydraulic pressure conditions. c. Regulate the hydraulic power to all users under low hydraulic pressure conditions.
20. Which component from the hydraulic systems covers transient pressure demands and dampens small pressure and flow changes. a. Pressure relief valve. b. Pressure transducer. c. Hydraulic accumulator.
21. With the aircraft on ground (BLUE ELECT PUMP PB in AUTO position, engines not running) and the electrical network powered by EXT PWR, how is it possible to pressurize the blue hydraulic system: a. Setting the BLUE ELECT PUMP PB (hydraulic control panel) in ON position. b. Setting the BLUE PUMP OVRD PB (maintenance panel) in ON position. c. Extending the RAT. d. Through the yellow electric pump and the PTU.
22. What is the purpose of keeping the reservoirs pressurized at nominal 50 PSI: a. Prevent the movement of fluid inside the reservoirs during aircraft maneuvers. b. Allow the drainage of the reservoirs more easily. c. Keep a positive supply of fluid from the reservoir to the pumps to prevent cavitations’.
23. What secondary surfaces from the flight control system provide assistance to ailerons when making movements around the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. a. Ground spoilers. b. Roll spoilers. c. Slats/flaps.
24. Which component from flight control system allows the control of the aircraft around the roll axis, with a complete failure of all computers (ELAC’s, SEC’s y FAC’s). a. Rudder. b. Ailerons. c. THS.
25. When performing a landing gear gravity extension, why is it necessary to operate first the vent valves in the hydraulic system by turning the gravity extension crank handle. a. To pressurize the extension line of the gear actuators. b. To prevent hydraulic block of the actuators when releasing the gears. c. To mechanically release the gears and doors from the uplock boxes.
26. Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to operate the alternate brakes. a. Green system. b. Blue system. c. Yellow system.
27. Which component from the main gears locks the gears in the extended position with hydraulic pressure available? a. The actuating cylinder. b. The locks stay actuator. c. The up lock box.
28. How many bearings are used on the L.P shaft? a. Two ball bearings and one roller. b. One ball bearing and one roller. d. One ball bearing and two rollers.
29. How many latches must be released to open the ‘C’ ducts? a. Three plus the translating cowl double latch. b. Four plus the translating cowl double latch. c. Three, located under the latch access panel.
30. How many lock out pins must be inserted before dispatching the aircraft with an inoperative T/R? a. One. b. Two. c. Three.
31. How many magnetic chip detectors are used in the oil system? a. Six. b. Seven. c. Five.
32. How many stages are there on the H.P. compressor? a. Ten. b. Fourteen. c. Twelve.
33. What action is taken to dispatch the aircraft if the starter air valve fails to open during a start? a. Change the starter air valve solenoid. b. Manually operate the starter air valve. c. Change the starter air valve.
34. What ECAM indications are displayed when the thrust reverser is completely deployed. a. The words “REV” boxed amber in the EPR dial. b. The words “REV” boxed green in the EPR dial. c. There is no indication on ECAM.
35. What are the consequences of a fully blocked oil pressure filter? a. The by-pass valve opens and allows the oil to by-pass the filter. b. The indicated oil pressure will decrease as the filter blocks. c. A high indicated oil pressure alerts the pilot who reduces engine power.
36. What is the purpose of the Active Clearance Control (A.C.C) system? a. To cool the engine casing to improve compressor efficiency. b. To ensure that engine performance is maintained by optimizing turbine blade tip clearance. c. To reduce the blade tip wear and maintain efficiency.
37. What does the air starter valve close during a satisfactory start? a. When the ignition mode selector is moved back to the NORM position. b. When the dedicated alternator comes online. c. When N2 reaches approximately 43%.
38. Which component from the hydraulic systems protects the system against overpressures, sending the excess pressure directly to return when system pressure reaches 3436 PSI. a. Pressure relief valve. b. Pressure transducer. c. Hydraulic accumulator.
39. Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to normal extension/retraction operation of gears and nose gear steering? a. Green system. b. Blue system. b. Blue system. .
40. What LGCIU provides the gears and doors position indications on ECAM Wheel page? a. LGCIU1. b. LGCIU2. c. Both LGCIU1 & LGCIU2.
41. Which hydraulic system provides the pressure to operate the parking brake? a. Green system. b. Blue system. c. Yellow system.
42. How is maximum rated T.O power selected? a. By opening the thrust lever until T.O reference E.P.R. is reached. b. By positioning the thrust lever to the TO.GA (max open) stop. c. By fully opening the thrust lever and pressing the bump rating button.
43. Which component from the landing gear system provides the force to accomplish the extension/retraction operation of the gears? a. The actuating cylinder. b. The lock stays actuator. c. The down lock springs.
44. What function does the rudder travel limiter accomplish? a. To decrease rudder deflection when aircraft speed decreases. b. To increase rudder deflection when aircraft speed decreases. c. To decrease rudder deflection when aircraft speed increases.
45. Which component from the Refuel/Defuel system allows the connection of the boost pump pressure outputs (fuel feed system) to the refueling gallery, when performing defueling/fuel transfer operations between aircraft tanks on ground. a. Refuel valve. b. Defuel/Transfer valve. c. Air inlet valve.
46. Which component from the aircraft fuel system allows the feeding of any engine from any fuel tank: a. By-pass suction valves. b. Sequence valves. c. Crossfeed valve.
47. When does the APU air intake flap open? a. As soon as the APU operates under air load. b. As soon as ignition begins. c. As soon as MASTER SW pushbutton is set to ON.
48. What’s happens if there is a failure in the APU cooling fan, the oil cooler (clog) or thermal bypass valve open? a. Auto shutdown for “LOW OIL PRESSURE” b. Auto shutdown for “HIGH OIL TEMP” c. Auto shutdown for “NO ACCEL”.
49. How do you check the APU oil quantity? a. On the ECAM oil page, or on a sight glass on the oil cooler, or by CFDS interrogation. b. On the ECAM APU page, or on a sight glass on the accessory gearbox, or by CFDS interrogation. c. Only by CFDS interrogation and on the ECAM ENGINE/WARNING page.
50. In a cold aircraft configuration (completely de-energized), how is it possible to determine if the APU fire extinguisher bottle has a low-pressure condition caused by thermal discharge. a. By means of the amber DISCH light (fire panel). b. By means of the white SQUIB light (fire panel). c. By the absence of the red disc in the fuselage.
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