1. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the: A. L/D (Max). B. Lift a low speed. C. Drag and reduce airspeed.
2. How does Vs (KTAS) speed vary with altitude? A. Remains the same at all altitudes. B. Varies directly with altitude. C. Varies inversely with Altitude.
3. An airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit will: A. Fly more efficiently. B. Be very unbalance in lateral control forces. C. Feel heavy in longitudinal axis.
4. When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. Low-speed flight only. B. High-speed flight only. C. Low-speed and high-speed flight.
5. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A. The critical mach number Will increase significantly. B. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C. Sweepback Will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
6. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. Increase lift at relative slow speeds. B. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C. Direct air from the low pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
7. What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor and power. B. Load factor, angle of attack and power. C. Angle of attack, weight and air density.
8. During a turn with constant power: A. The aircraft nose will pitch down. B. The aircraft will decelerate. C. The rate of decent will increase.
9. Upon landing, spoilers A. Decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. B. Function by increasing tire to ground friction. C. Should be extended after the thrust reverses have been deployed.
10. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet? A. 0 DME miles. B. 2 DME miles. C. 2.3 DME miles.
11. When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop: A. With the nose gear on the hold line. B. So that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. C. So the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
12. Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? A. Air carrie's operations specifications. B. International flight information manual. C. Airplane flight manual.
13. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. ARINC. B. Any FSS. C. Appropriate dispatch office.
14. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. C. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
15. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and: A. Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. B. Request a new ATC clearance. C. Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
16. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. Green, yellow and white beacon light. B. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. C. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.
17. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. All turbine powered airplanes. B. Passenger carrying turbine power airplanes only. C. Large turbine power airplanes only.
18. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other? A. 4 degrees on the ground and in flight. B. 6 degrees on the ground and in flight. C. 6 degrees in flight and 4 degrees on the ground.
19. Identify REIL A. Amber lights for the first 2000 feet of runway. B. Green lights at the threshold and red light at far end of runway. C. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
20. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. A. Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1000 feet then alternate red and white lights to the end. B. Alternate red and white from 3000 feet to 1000 feet, then red lights to the end. C. Alternate red and white lights from 3000 feet to the end of the runway.
21. Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que: A. El piloto asume la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la hace ATS B. El control cede su responsabilidad al piloto por ser vuelo VFR C. El piloto es responsable de la separación con otros tránsitos IFR y VFR.
22. Las condiciones MET para operar VFR en una zona ATZ NO son menores de: A. Vis 3000 m, Techo 1000 pies B. Vis 5000 m y 1500 pies, distancia de nubes C. Vis 8000 m y Techo 1000 pies.
23. En el espacio aéreo CTR se: A. Organiza el tránsito en el círculo de aeródromo B. Establecen secuencias de aproximación por instrumentos C. Provee separación de aeronaves en ruta.
24. La máxima velocidad de una aeronave categoría A en un círculo de espera a 12.000 es: A. 170 Kts B. 230 Kts C. 240 Kts.
25. En una aproximación IFR, se llama FAF al punto donde una aeronave: A. Inicia la aproximación intermedia B. Está alineada con la pista para aterrizar C. Efectúa la espera en fijo primario.
26. Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será un vuelo: A. NO controlado B. Efectúa la espera en fijo primario C. Controlado si las condiciones son IMC.
27. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. When wing lift has been reduced. B. At high groundspeeds. C. When the wheels are locked and skidding.
28. Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa: A. Sígame B. Prosiga C. Aterrice acá.
29. Un piloto está en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia del que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de (minutos): A. 1 B. 2 C. 3.
30. Una expresión “Aproximación Visual”: A. La puede solicitar el piloto o ser iniciada por el controlador B. La ordena el controlador C. Cancelo plan instrumentos, continuo plan visual.
31. Accident-prone pilots tend to A. Have disdains toward rules. B. Follow methodical information gathering techniques. C. Excessively utilize outside resources.
32. An air carrier crew fixated on completing the last flight of a four day trip often may exhibit A. Get-there-its. B. Staged decision-making. C. Naturalistic decision-making.
33. What causes hypoxia? A. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B. An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C. A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.
34. The crew monitoring function is essential: A. Particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT issues. B. Particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT. C. During RNAV departures in class B airspace.
35. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
36. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. 90 knots. B. 96 knots. C. 110 knots.
37. Which is a definition of V(2) speed? A. Takeoff decision speed. B. Takeoff safety speed. C. Minimun takeoff speed.
38. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning? A. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll. B. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.
39. What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. Clearway. B. Stopway. C. Obstruction clearance plane.
40. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft? A. Immediately after ground contact. B. Immediately prior to touchdown. C. After applying maximum wheel braking.
41. Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces? A. Turbine wheels. B. Turbine vanes. C. Compressor rotor or impeller.
42. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A. An abrupt change in relative wind. B. A decrease in angle of attack. C. Sudden decrease in load factor.
43. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. V (2). B. V (EF). C. V (1).
44. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. V (SO). B. V(S). C. V (S1).
45. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A. Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C. Adjust air speed to that recommended for rough air.
46. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. As air density decreases thrust increases. B. As temperature increases, thrust increases. C. As temperature increases thrust decreases.
47. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A. Maintain a constant altitude. B. Maintain constant attitude. C. Mountain constant airspeed and altitude.
48. El Límite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de aeronaves jet en Colombia según el RAC es de: A. 90 horas B. 80 horas C. 85 horas.
49. La parte séptima Del RAC corresponde a: A. Normas de aeronavegabilidad y operación de aeronaves B. Régimen sancionatorio C. Personal aeronáutico.
50. El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de una aeronave comercial a: A. Un controlador de tráfico aéreo B. Un inspector de la UAEAC C. Un inspector de la Fuerza Aérea Colombiana.
51. What is the condition that may occur when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A. Mach buffet. B. Wingover. C. Dutch roll.
52. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. Increase lift at relative slow speeds. B. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C. Direct air from the low pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
53. What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor and power. B. Load factor, angle of attack and power. C. Angle of attack, weight and air density.
54. During a turn with constant power: A. The aircraft nose will pitch down. B. The aircraft Will decelerate. C. The rate of decent will increase.
55.Upon landing, spoilers A. Decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. B. Function by increasing tire to ground friction. C. Should be extended after the thrust reverses have been deployed.
56. What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range and visual information.
57. Automated flight decks or cockpits A. Enhance basic pilot flight skills. B. Decrease the workload in terminal areas. C. Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
58. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A. Increase in indicated airspeed. B. Decrease in indicated airspeed. C. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.
59. Airport information sings,used to provide destination or information have: A. Yellow inscriptions on a black background. B. White inscriptions on a black background C. Black inscriptions on a yellow background.
60. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of 6 per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
61. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage.
62. When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too: A. High. B. Low. C. Shallow.
63. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advise to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.
64. What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A. Does not cause illusions. B. Lower than actual. C. Higher than actual.
65. Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases: A. The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased. B. The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased. C. Oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
66. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear an flaps down.
67. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue dalay.
68. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes? A. Air mass thunderstorms. B. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. C. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.
69. Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes? A. 4000 feet thick. B. 2000 feet thick. C. A thicknees which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.
70. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather? A. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface. B. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface. C. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
71. Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature ranges of A. - 15 to - 25 deg C. B. 0 to - 10 deg C. B. 0 to - 10 deg C.
C. colder than -25 deg C.
72. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as A. 1500 ft/min. B. 4500 ft/min. C. 6000 ft/min.
73. METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC? A. The rain became lighter. B. Atmospheric pressure increased. C. A funnel cloud was observed.
74. When executing a stabilized approach, you should use A. No more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non- precision or precision approach from 1000 feet above the airport or TDZE. B. No more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach or 1200 FPM for a non- precision approach. C. No more than 800 FPM for a non-precision approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.
75. Una autorización de salida en plan IFR debe contener en su orden: A. Limite, Vía, Mantenga y Restricciones B. Vía, Mantenga, Limite y Restricciones C. Restricciones, Limite, Mantenga, Vía.
76. La respuesta radar de un respondedor en MODO 3/A código 2000 es: A. Vuelo militar en misión especial B. Vuelo VFR en Colombia C. Solicito asignación de código.
77. Las frecuencias de radio en la gama HF se caracterizan por: A. Muy precisas y no afecta los fenómenos atmosféricos B. Muy imprecisas y afectadas por fenómenos atmosféricos C. No son afectadas por el fenómeno FADING.
78. En la fraseología normalizada, en la autorización a la espera en un fijo no debe faltar: A. tiempo de alejamiento y EAT B. Tiempo de alejamiento y ETA C. Nombre de radioayuda y EAT.
79. Si estamos volando en espacio aéreo Clase A, esperamos: A. Autorizaciones para IFR B. Autorizaciones IFR e información VFR C. Información de aeronaves en VFR.
80. En el contenido de una autorización IFR debemos colacionar: A. Solo los SID´s, niveles y restricciones B. Con decir RECIBIDO es suficiente C. Toda la autorización.
81. Bajo qué situación un piloto puede cambiar su plan de vuelo IFR a VFR A. Cuando lo solicite el controlador B. Si está volando en espacio aéreo Clase A C. Si está volando en espacio aéreo Clase D.
82. De una aeronave secuestrada con flaps abajo después de aterrizar significa: A. Déjenme solo, no intervengan B. La situación está desesperada C. Pueden subir, situación controlada.
83. Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed? A. V (C.. B. V (S). C. V (A.
84. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A. Higher than at low elevation. B. Lower than at low elevation. C. The same as at low elevation.
85. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A. Apply full main wheel braking only. B. Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.
86. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A. Increase speed for a headwind. B. Increase speed for a tailwind. C. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.
87. What is an area identified by the term 'stopway'? A. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during normal takeoff.
88. Low pressure air decreases aircraft performance because A. The air is denser than higher pressure air. B. The air is less dense than high pressure air. C. Air expands in the engine during the combustion process.
89. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A. Increases takeoff distance. B. Decrease takeoff speed. C. Decrease takeoff distance.
90. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A. Compressor discharge. B. Fuel spray nozzles. C. Turbine inlet.
91. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. Limiting compressor speed. B. Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C. Limiting torque.
92. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. When wing lift has been reduced. B. At high groundspeeds. C. When the wheels are locked and skidding.
93. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. Increasing speed or altitude. B. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
94. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A. Critical engine failure speed. B. Rotation speed. C. Accelerate-stop distance.
95. La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a: A. Aeródromos e instalaciones B. Personal aeronáutico C. Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves.
96. La responsabilidad Final en la operación de una aeronave depende de: A. La UAEAC B. El piloto al mando C. La empresa explotadora.
97. De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de los mínimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener: A. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 30 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor inoperativo. B. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 45 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor inoperativo. C. Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor inoperativo.
98. De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonomía para actuar como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave si en los_____ días precedentes no se han efectuado _____ despegues y aterrizajes A. 60 y 3 B. 90 y 3 C. 60 y 2.
99. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration? A. V (SO). B. V (S1). C. V (S1).
100. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol: A. V (2min). B. V (1). C. V (LOF}.
101. The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon: A. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed. B. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. C. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.
102. Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight? A. These forces are equal. B. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. C. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
103. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the A. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface. B. Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface. C. Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.
104. Stall speed is affected by A. Weight, load factor, and power. B. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. C. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
105. When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason? A. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. B. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane. C. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as
possible.
106. Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. A. Power, pitch, bank, and trim. B. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides. C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
107. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to A. increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B. Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. C. Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.
108. The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind? A. Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation. B. Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation. C. Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation.
109. What causes wind? A. The Earth’s rotation. B. Air mass modification. C. Pressure differences.
110. Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level? A. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient. B. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows. C. Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.
111. Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature spread A. Decreases as the relative humidity decreases. B. Decreases as the relative humidity increases. C. Increases as the relative humidity increases.
112 What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend? A. The method by which the air is lifted. B. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. C. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.
113. Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? A. Cirrus clouds. B. Nimbostratus clouds. C. Towering cumulus clouds.
114. Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain? A. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting. B. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting. C. Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism.
115. What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm? A. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail. B. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. C. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.
116. Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause. A. The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. B. The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal. C. Drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.
117. A jet stream is defined as wind of A. 30 knots or greater. B. 40 knots or greater. C. 50 knots or greater.
118. Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that A. A warm front has passed. B. A warm front is about to pass. C. There are thunderstorms in the area.
119. A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is A. 3 knots or less. B. 6 knots or less. C. 9 knots or less.
120. The optimum Glide Path angle of an ILS is: A. 4.0° B. 3.0° C. 1.5°.
121. The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (Kts) above 14.000 ft. to 20.000 ft., according OACI: A. 230 B. 240 C. 265.
122. The difference between MDA and DA is: A. MDA is for Precision approach and DA is for non-Precision approach B. MDA is Minimum departure altitude and DA is decision altitude C. MDA is for non-Precision approach and DA is for precision approach.
123. THRESHOLD is defined as: A. The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing B. The beginning of that portion of the runway used for warm-up. C. The beginning of that portion of the takeoff runway.
124. During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing? A. Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach. B. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach. C. Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.
125. What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA. B. Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route. C. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
126. If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°? A. 1 minute. B. 2 minutes. C. 3 minutes.
127. At higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed: A. Is the same as the TAS. B. Is higher and so is the resultant ground speed. C. Remains the same but the ground speed is faster than at lower altitude airports.
128. Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210? A. Indicated. B. Pressure. C. Calibrated.
129. If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°? A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 1 minute 30 seconds.
130 What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked? A. The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter. B. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. C. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
131. The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially? A. Pitch and power. B. Power only. C. Pitch only.
132. Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by. A. Bringing the engine from forward thrust into a momentary stop (stationary) then spooled up into reverse thrust. B. It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward C. Starting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust.
133. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? A. Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown. B. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path. C. Stay well below its final approach flight path and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
134. What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL? A. Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route. B. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport. C. 29.92 Inches Hg.
135. On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located: A. At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ B. Depends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway C. 500 Ft from the beginning of the runway.
136. A runway incursion is: A. Not possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers B. A serious offence punishable to non-licensed ground vehicle drivers C. Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway.
137 If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at the VOR: A. You must slow down to 200 Kts B. You are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts C. You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC.
138. Automated flight decks or cockpits A. Enhance basic pilot flight skills. B. Decrease the work load in terminal areas. C. Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
139. Identify REIL. A. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway. C. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
140. What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? A. -5°C. B. -15°C. C. +5°C.
141. A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is A. Maintaining a safe airspeed. B. Landing directly into the wind. C. Turning back to the takeoff field.
142. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Decreasing headwind or tailwind. B. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
143. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? A. Maintain a constant altitude. B. Maintain a constant attitude. C. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
144. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwin.
145. La luz roja intermitente dirigida hacia una aeronave en vuelo (sin radio comunicaciones), significa: A. Aeródromo peligroso, no aterrice. B. Ejerza precaución. C. Ceda el paso a otras aeronaves y continúe en el circuito.
146. La aeronave que observa a otra que se acerca B por la izquierda: A. Subirá́ para ceder el paso a la otra aeronave. B. Tiene el derecho de paso. C. No tiene derecho de paso y variará su rumbo a la derecha.
147. Si una aeronave vuela fuera del espacio aéreo controlado con rumbo entre o y 179 grados, llevará un nivel cuadrantal: A. Par + 500 si es un vuelo VFR. B. Impar si es un vuelo VFR. C. Impar + 500 si es un vuelo VFR.
148. Si después de haber sido interceptado por una aeronave, esta se aleja haciendo un viraje A ascendente de 90° o más, eso indica A. Sígame. B. Puede seguir. C. Aterrice aquí.
149. Se debe reportar la variación de la hora estimada de reporte del próximo punto de notificación, cuando: A. Sea conveniente. B. Varía en 5 minutos. C. Varía en más de 3 minutos.
150. Se volara con el altímetro ajustado al QNH cuando el piloto vuele en: A. ATZ, CTR, Y TMA. B. UTA, FIR. C. ATZ, CTR Y FIR.
151. Defines VNO as: A. Maximum operating limit speed. B. Maximum structural cruising speed. C. Never-exceed speed.
152. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane A. Lift, airspeed, and drag. B. Lift, airspeed, and CG. C. Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
153. Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its: A. Rudder. B. Elevator. C. Ailerons.
154. A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is: A. Maintaining a safe airspeed. B. Landing directly into the wind. C. Turning back to the takeoff field.
155. The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease A. The drag. B. Landing speed. C. The lift of the wing.
156. In order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is essential to: A. Apply full power to the live engine (firewall) B. Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop) C. Secure the failed engine.
157. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of A. Heat exchange. B. The movement of air. C. Pressure differentia.
158. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by A. Dust or haze at flight level. B. Long streaks of cirrus clouds. C. A constant outside air temperature.
159. What is a characteristic of stable air? A. Strati form clouds. B. Fair weather cumulus clouds. C. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.
160. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
A. Absence of wind and turbulent conditions. A. Absence of wind and turbulent conditions. B. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. C. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.
161. A common location of clear air turbulence is A. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow. C. South of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.
162. Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass? A. Cumuliform clouds. B. Showery precipitation. C. Continuous precipitation.
163. Virga is best described as: A. Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. B. Wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. C. Turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
164. Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate A. An inversion. B. Unstable air. C. Turbulence.
165. If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain? A. Constant airspeed (VA.. B. Level flight attitude. C. Constant altitude and constant airspeed.
166. In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation? A. Cumulonimbus clouds. B. High humidity and freezing temperature. C. Freezing rain.
167. Where does wind shear occur? A. Exclusively in thunderstorms. B. Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature. C. With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
168. Straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within: A. 5° of the alignment of the runway center line B. 15° of the alignment of the runway center line C. 25° of the alignment of the runway center line.
169. Each required flight crewmembers is required to keep his or her shoulders harness fastened A. During takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft B. While the crewmembers are at their station unless he or she is unable to perform requires duties C. During takeoff and landing unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
170. You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at least: A. No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion B. 500 ft. on climb and 1.500 ft. on descent C. 500 FPM.
171. For which speed variation should you notify ATC? A. When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots. B. When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. C. Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.
172. What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport. C. Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
173. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should A. Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. B. Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency. C. Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
174 While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? A. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. B. Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. C. Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
175. 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as A. Maximum landing gear extended speed. B. Maximum landing gear operating speed. C. Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
176. 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as A. Maximum landing gear extended speed. B. Never-exceed speed. C. Maximum nose wheel extend speed.
177. 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as A. Speed for best rate of descent. B. Speed for best angle of climb. C. Speed for best rate of climb.
178. A Standard rate turn is: A. A turn at a rate of 3% min at 100 Kts B. (TAS in Kts / 3o) + 5 C. A turn at a rate of 3o / sec.
179. Pressure altitude is: A. Displayed when the altimeter setting is corrected for temperature at sea level B. Displayed when the altimeter setting is set on the QNH window C. Displayed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter regardless of outside temp. + pressure.
180. What information does a Mach meter present? A. The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound. B. The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound. C. The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.
181. Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates A. True altitude at field elevation. B. Pressure altitude at field elevation. C. Pressure altitude at sea level.
182. When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude? A. Decrease the angle of bank B. Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack C. Decrease the angle of attack.
183. If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°? A. 1 minute. B. 2 minutes. C. 4 minutes.
184. Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by A. Decreasing airspeed and shall owing the bank. B. Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank. C. Increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
185. If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions? A. The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing. B. The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero. C. No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
186. The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon A. True airspeed. B. Calibrated airspeed. C. Ground speed.
187. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? A. Below .75 Mach. B. From .75 to 1.20 Mach C. From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach.
188. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft? A. Immediately after ground contact. B. Immediately prior to touchdown. C. After applying maximum wheel braking.
189. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? A. Past the point where the jet touched down. B. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point. C. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
190. When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs. A. 30.50 B. 31.00 C. 32.00.
191. The area before a displaced threshold may be used: A. Only in emergencies B. For taxiing and landing rollout only C. For taxiing, takeoff and landing rollout.
192. A red background sign with white lettering denotes: A. Warning positions for Noncommercial or VFR aircraft B. Instructions for military aircraft only C. An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft.
193. Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace: A. True, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces B. False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia C. False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so.
194. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? A. 15°C and 29.92" Hg. B. 59°F and 1013.2" Hg. C. 15°C and 29.92 Mb.
195. If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. A. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. B. Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures. C. Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.
196. La UTA es un espacio aéreo: A. Categoría A, con vuelos IFR y VMC. B. Categoría A restringido a instrumentos. C. Categoría B únicamente.
197. La parte quinta del RAC corresponde a: A. Personal Aeronáutico B. Reglamento del Aire C. Régimen Sancionatorio.
198. La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a: A. Reglamento del Aire B. Personal Aeronáutico C. Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves.
199. El RAC exige que por encima de ___________ se debe llevar suficiente oxígeno para suministro de todos los miembros de la tripulación en caso de una despresurización. A. 11.000 pies B. 10.000 pies C. 12.000 pies.
200. La separación vertical mínima entre dos aeronaves operando en espacio aéreo RVSM es de: A. 500 pies B. 1.000 pies C. 2.000 pies.
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