12-1

(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at. The surface. 3,823 feet MSL. 700 feet AGL.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. May conduct operations under visual flight rules. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of. Special VFR airspace. Class D airspace. Class B airspace.

(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is. The outer segment of Class B airspace. An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. A Mode Cveil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains below 8,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which. Thereisahighvolumeofpilottrainingactivitiesoranunusualtypeofaerialactivity,neitherofwhichishazardous to aircraft. The flight of aircraft is prohibited. The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder. Prior to entering that air space, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.

(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is. The surface. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.

(Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?. Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.

(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?. Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should. Rely on body sensations. Increase the breathing rate. Rely on aircraft instrument indications.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?. Insufficient oxygen. Excessive carbon monoxide. Insufficient carbon dioxide.

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should. Swallow or yawn. Slow the breathing rate. Increase the breathing rate.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?. Drowsiness. Decreased breathing rate. A sense of well-being.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as. Humidity decreases. Altitude increases. Oxygen demand increases.

Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?. At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures. To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure.

(Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at. DENAY intersection. Glide slope intercept. ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.

(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is. 11,000 feet MSL. 7,000 feet MSL. 9,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed approach point?. 4.8 NM. 5.2 NM. 12.0 NM.

(Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies?. 1,157 feet. 1,320 feet. 1,360 feet.

(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is. 2,365 feet MSL. 2,400 feet MSL. 3,000 feet MSL.

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when. Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication sequipment, occurring in flight. Requested to contact a new controlling facility. Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.

(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?. One VOR receiver. One VOR receiver and DME. Two VOR receivers and DME.

Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are. Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic. To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures. Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion.

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until. Reaching the FAF. Advised to begin descent. Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.

(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of. Denver VORTAC. Dymon outer marker. Cruup I-AQD DME fix.

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?. A procedure turn is not authorized. Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when. Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes. Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix. Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.

On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach. Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the. Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used. Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.

(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?. 1,420 feet. 1,340 feet. 1,121 feet.

For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a. Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM. Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR. Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.

For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.

(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of. Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. 8,000 feet MSL. 2,100 feet AGL.